Refer to the exhibit.
A network engineer must update the configuration on Switch2 so that it sends LLDP packets every minute and the information sent via LLDP is refreshed every 3 minutes Which configuration must the engineer apply?
A)
B)
C)
D)
What are two benefits of FHRPs? (Choose two.)
What is a requirement for nonoverlapping Wi-Fi channels?
Refer to the exhibit.
How should the configuration be updated to allow PC1 and PC2 access to the Internet?
Refer to the exhibit.
The following must be considered:
• SW1 is fully configured for all traffic
• The SW4 and SW9 links to SW1 have been configured
• The SW4 interface Gi0/1 and Gi0/0 on SW9 have been configured
• The remaining switches have had all VLANs adde d to their VLAN database
Which configuration establishes a successful ping from PC2 to PC7 without interruption to traffic flow between other PCs?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Which two network actions occur within the data plane? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.
Users on existing VLAN 100 can reach sites on the Internet. Which action must the administrator take to establish connectivity to the Internet for users in VLAN 200?
Refer to the exhibit.
Traffic that is flowing over interface TenGigabitEthernet0/0 experiences slow transfer speeds. What is the reason for the issue?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which route must be configured on R1 so that OSPF routing is used when OSPF is up. but the server is still reachable when OSPF goes down?
Which type of IPv6 address is similar to a unicast address but is assigned to multiple devices on the same network at the same time?
Which action implements physical access control as part of the security program of an organization?
Which characteristic differentiates the concept of authentication from authorization and accounting?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which command must be issued to enable a floating static default route on router A?
Which QoS per-hop behavior changes the value of the ToS field in the IPv4 packet header?
How does Rapid PVST+ create a fast loop-free network topology?
Refer to the exhibit.
R1 learns all routes via OSPF Which command configures a backup static route on R1 to reach the 192 168.20.0/24 network via R3?
What is one reason to implement LAG on a Cisco WLC?
Which value is the unique identifier that an access point uses to establish and maintain wireless connectivity to wireless network devices?
A network engineer is installing an IPv6-only capable device. The client has requested that the device IP address be reachable only from the internal network. Which type of IPv6 address must the engineer assign?
What is the difference between IPv6 unicast and anycast addressing?
Which protocol is used for secure remote CLI access?
A network engineer must configure two new subnets using the address block 10 70 128 0/19 to meet these requirements:
• The first subnet must support 24 hosts
• The second subnet must support 472 hosts
• Both subnets must use the longest subnet mask possible from the address block
Which two configurations must be used to configure the new subnets and meet a requirement to use the first available address in each subnet for the router interfaces? (Choose two )
What is the function of the controller in a software-defined network?
Which QoS traffic handling technique retains excess packets in a queue and reschedules these packets for later transmission when the configured maximum bandwidth has been surpassed?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is updating the R1 configuration to connect a new server to the management network. The PCs on the management network must be blocked from pinging the default gateway of the new server. Which command must be configured on R1 to complete the task?
Refer to the exhibit.
What is a reason for poor performance on the network interface?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is configuring the HO router. Which IPv6 address configuration must be applied to the router fa0'1 interface for the router to assign a unique 64-brt IPv6 address to Itself?
Drag and drop the descriptions of AAA services from the left onto the corresponding services on the right.
What provides centralized control of authentication and roaming In an enterprise network?
Refer to the exhibit.
Packets received by the router from BGP enter via a serial interface at 209 165 201 1 Each route is present within the routing table Which interface is used to forward traffic with a destination IP of 10.1.1.19?
A network engineer is configuring a switch so that it is remotely reachable via SSH. The engineer has already configured the host name on the router. Which additional command must the engineer configure before entering the command to generate the RSA key?
Refer to the exhibit.
Site A was recently connected to site B over a new single-mode fiber path. Users at site A report Intermittent connectivity Issues with applications hosted at site B. What is the reason for the problem?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer assumes a configuration task from a peer Router A must establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with neighbor 172 1 1 1 The output displays the status of the adjacency after 2 hours. What is the next step in the configuration process for the routers to establish an adjacency?
Which protocol uses the SSL?
Refer to the exhibit.
The DHCP server and clients are connected to the same switch. What is the next step to complete the DHCP configuration to allow clients on VLAN 1 to receive addresses from the DHCP server?
Refer to the exhibit.
Packets received by the router from BGP enter via a serial interface at 209.165.201.10. Each route is present within the routing table. Which interface is used to forward traffic with a destination IP of 10.10.10.24?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which action must be taken to ensure that router A is elected as the DR for OSPF area 0?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which network prefix was learned via EIGRP?
Drag and drop the facts about wireless architectures from the left onto the types of access point on the right. Not all options are used.
What is an expected outcome when network management automation is deployed?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which minimum configuration items are needed to enable Secure Shell version 2 access to R15?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Which two spanning-tree states are bypassed on an interface running PortFast? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.
Traffic sourced from the loopback0 Interface is trying to connect via ssh to the host at 10.0.1.15. What Is the next hop to the destination address?
Which action is taken by the data plane within a network device?
Refer to the exhibit.
Host A sent a data frame destined for host D
What does the switch do when it receives the frame from host A?
What causes a port to be placed in the err-disabled state?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two commands must be configured on router R1 to enable the router to accept secure remote-access connections? (Choose two)
Refer to the exhibit.
Users need to connect to the wireless network with IEEE 802. 11r-compatible devices. The connection must be maintained as users travel between floors or to other areas in the building What must be the configuration of the connection?
Drag and drop the TCP or UDP details from the left onto their corresponding protocols on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
An IP subnet must be configured on each router that provides enough addresses for the number of assigned hosts and anticipates no more than 10% growth for now hosts. Which configuration script must be used?
A)
B)
C)
D)
A Cisco engineer must configure a single switch interface to meet these requirements
• accept untagged frames and place them in VLAN 20
• accept tagged frames in VLAN 30 when CDP detects a Cisco IP phone
Which command set must the engineer apply?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Which WLC management connection type is vulnerable to man-in-the-middle attacks?
R1 as an NTP server must have:
• NTP authentication enabled
• NTP packets sourced from Interface loopback 0
• NTP stratum 2
• NTP packets only permitted to client IP 209.165 200 225
How should R1 be configured?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
The link between PC1 and the switch is up. but it is performing poorly. Which interface condition is causing the performance problem?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which configuration enables DHCP addressing for hosts connected to interface FastEthernetO/1 on router R4?
Drag and drop the Rapid PVST+ forwarding slate actions from the loft to the right. Not all actions are used.
Drag and drop the statements about networking from the left onto the corresponding networking types on the right.
A network engineer must implement an IPv6 configuration on the vlan 2000 interface to create a routable locally-unique unicast address that is blocked from being advertised to the internet. Which configuration must the engineer apply?
Refer to the exhibit.
All VLANs are present in the VLAN database. Which command sequence must be applied to complete the configuration?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two configurations must the engineer apply on this network so that R1 becomes the DR? (Choose two.)
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Refer to the exhibit.
A static route must be configured on R14 to forward traffic for the 172 21 34 0/25 network that resides on R86 Which command must be used to fulfill the request?
Refer to the exhibit.
Router R1 currently is configured to use R3 as the primary route to the Internet, and the route uses the default administrative distance settings. A network engineer must configure R1 so that it uses R2 as a backup, but only if R3 goes down. Which command must the engineer configure on R1 so that it correctly uses R2 as a backup route, without changing the administrative distance configuration on the link to R3?
Refer to the exhibit.
Switch A is newly configured. All VLANs are present in the VLAN database. The IP phone and PC A on Gi0/1 must be configured for the appropriate VLANs to establish connectivity between the PCs. Which command set fulfills the requirement?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
Router R1 resides in OSPF Area 0. After updating the R1 configuration to influence the paths that it will use to direct traffic, an engineer verified that each of the four Gigabit interfaces has the same route to 10.10.0.0/16. Which interface will R1 choose to send traffic to reach the route?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is configuring an EtherChannel using LACP between Switches 1 and 2 Which configuration must be applied so that only Switch 1 sends LACP initiation packets?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two commands when used together create port channel 10? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is asked to insert the new VLAN into the existing trunk without modifying anything previously configured Which command accomplishes this task?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which plan must be Implemented to ensure optimal QoS marking practices on this network?
A network administrator is setting up a new IPv6 network using the 64-bit address 2001 0EB8 00C1 2200:0001 0000 0000 0331/64 To simplify the configuration the administrator has decided to compress the address Which IP address must the administrator configure?
Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator received a call from a branch office regarding poor application performance hosted at the headquarters. Ethernet 1 is connected between Router1 and the LAN switch. What identifies the issue?
Refer to the exhibit.
A network engineer must configure R1 so that it sends all packets destined to the 10.0.0.0/24 network to R3, and all packets destined to PCI to R2. Which configuration must the engineer implement?
A)
B)
C)
D)
An engineer is configuring a switch port that is connected to a VoIP handset. Which command must the engineer configure to enable port security with a manually assigned MAC address of abod-bod on voice VLAN 4?
Which WPA mode uses PSK authentication?
Refer to the exhibit.
What are the two steps an engineer must take to provide the highest encryption and authentication using domain credentials from LDAP?
Drag and drop the virtualization concepts from the left onto the matching statements on the right.
What is the role of SNMP in the network?
What is the function of a controller in a software-defined network?
How does machine learning improve the detection of unauthorized network access?
Refer to the exhibit.
Router OldR is replacing another router on the network with the intention of having OldR and R2 exchange routes_ After the engineer applied the initial OSPF
configuration: the routes were still missing on both devices. Which command sequence must be issued before the clear IP ospf process command is entered to enable the neighbor relationship?
A)
B)
C)
D)
What is used to identify spurious DHCP servers?
The address block 192.168.32.0/24 must be subnetted into smaller networks. The engineer must meet these requirements:
Create 8 new subnets
Each subnet must accommodate 30 hosts
Interface VLAN 10 must use the last usable IP in the first new subnet.
A Layer 3 interface is used.
Which configuration must be applied to the interface?
Why would VRRP be implemented when configuring a new subnet in a multivendor environment?
Which two VPN technologies are recommended by Cisco for multiple branch offices and large-scale deployments? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.
The SW1 and SW2 Gi0/0 ports have been preconfigured. An engineer is given these requirements:
• Allow all PCs to communicate with each other at Layer 3.
• Configure untagged traffic to use VLAN 5.
• Disable VLAN 1 from being used.
Which configuration set meets these requirements?
Which (unction generally performed by a traditional network device is replaced by a software-defined controller?
Drag and drop the IPv6 address types from the left onto their description on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
Which route does R1 select for traffic that is destined to 192.168.16.2?
Which protocol should be used to transfer large files on a company intranet that allows TCP ports 20 and 21 through the firewall?
Which plane is centralized in software-defined networking (SDN)?
Drag and drop the statements about networking from the left onto the corresponding networking types on the right
Refer to the exhibit.
The Router1 routing table has multiple methods to reach 10.10.10.0/24 as shown. The default Administrative Distance is used. Drag and drop the network conditions from the left onto the routing methods that Router1 uses on the right.
Which IPsec mode encapsulates the entire IP packet?
Refer to the exhibit.
The primary route across Gi0/0 is configured on both routers. A secondary route must be configured to establish connectivity between the workstation networks. Which command set must be configured to complete this task?
A)
B)
C)
D)
What are two disadvantages of a full-mesh topology? (Choose two.)
Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.
What is an enhancement implemented in WPA3?
What does the implementation of a first-hop redundancy protocol protect against on a network?
Which command creates a static NAT binding for a PC address of 10.1.1.1 to the public routable address 209.165.200.225 assigned to the PC?
Refer to the exhibit.
The New York router must be configured so that traffic to 2000::1 is sent primarily via the Atlanta site, with a secondary path via Washington that has an administrative distance of 2. Which two commands must be configured on the New York router? (Choose two.)
Which physical component is distributed among multiple virtual machines running on the same hypervisor?
When is the PUT method used within HTTP?
Refer to the exhibit.
The given Windows PC is requesting the IP address of the host at www.cisco.com. To which IP address is the request sent?
What happens when a switch receives a frame with a destination MAC address that recently aged out?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two values does router R1 use to identify valid routes for the R3 loopback address 1.1.1.3/32? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.
The administrator must configure a floating sialic default route that points to 2001:db8:1234:2::1 and replaces the current default route only if it fails. Which command must the engineer configure on the CPE?
Refer to the exhibit.
The DHCP server is configured with a DHCP pool for each of the subnets represented. Which command must be configured on switch SW1 to allow DHCP clients on VLAN 10 to receive dynamic IP addresses from the DHCP server?
How does encryption project the wireless network?
Refer to the exhibit.
What is represented by the word "switch’’ in line 2 of the JSON schema?
Refer to Exhibit.
Rotor to the exhibit. The IP address configurations must be completed on the DC-1 and HQ-1 routers based on these requirements:
DC-1 Gi1/0 must be the last usable address on a /30
DC-1 Gi1/1 must be the first usable address on a /29
DC-1 Gi1/2 must be the last usable address on a /28
HQ-1 Gil/3 must be the last usable address on a /29
Drag and drop the commands from the left onto the destination interfaces on the right. Not all commands are used
What is the role of disaggregation in controller-based networking?
Refer to the exhibit.
What does route 10.0.1.3/32 represent in the routing table?
Which cipher is supported for wireless encryption only with the WPA2 standard?
What is a benefit of a point-to-point leased line?
Refer to the exhibit. IPv6 is being Implemented within the enterprise. The command Ipv6 unlcast-routing is configure. Interlace GlgO/0 on R1 must be configured to provide a dynamic assignment using the assigned IPv6 block Which command accomplishes this task?
Refer to the exhibit.
What is represented beginning with line 1 and ending with line 5?
What is the collapsed layer in collapsed core architectures?
Which selections must be used on the WLC when implementing a RADIUS server for wireless authentication?
Drag and drop the management connection types from the left onto the definitions on the right.
Which two capabilities of Cisco DNA Center make it more extensible as compared to traditional campus device management? (Choose two.)
SW1 supports connectivity for a lobby conference room and must be secured. The engineer must limit the connectivity from PCI lo ma SW1 and SW2 network. The MAC addresses allowed must be Limited to two. Which configuration secures the conference room connectivity?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
How many arrays are present in the JSON data?
Which syslog severity level is considered the most severe and results in the system being considered unusable?
Refer to the exhibit. All routers in the network are configured conrectly, and the expected routes are being exchanged among the routers. Which set of routes are leamed from neighbors and installed on router 2?
Refer to the exhibit. How will the device handle a packet destined to IP address 100.100.100.100?
Which device segregates a network into separate zones that have their own security policies?
Which IPv6 address range is suitable for anycast addresses for distributed services such DHCP or DNS?
Refer to the exhibit. What is the next-hop P address for R2 so that PC2 reaches the application server via ElGRP?
When an access point is seeking to join wireless LAN controller, which message is sent to the AP- Manager interface?
Refer to the exhibit.
Given the following switch MAC addresses, which switch will be elected as the root bridge?
SW1: 0C:5A:05:53:27:17
SW2: 0C:0A:A8:1A:3C:9D
SW3: 0C:0A:18:81:83:19
SW4: 0C:0A:05:22:05:97
Which command implies the use of SNMPv3?
Drag and drop the TCP or UDP details from the left onto their corresponding protocols on the right.
What is a function of a southbound API?
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must translate the PC1 IP address to 10.199.77.100 and permit PC1 to ping the loopback 0 on router R2. What command set must be used?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
A network engineer executes the show ip route command on router D. What is the next hop to network 192.168 1 0/24 and why?
A network engineer must migrate a router loopback interface to the IPv6 address space. If the current IPv4 address of the interface is 10.54.73.1/32, and the engineer configures IPv6 address 0.0.0.0.0:ffff:a36:4901, which prefix length must be used?
Drag and drop the network topology architecture types from the left onto the corresponding function on the right. Not all architecture types are used.
Refer to the exhibit.
Which types of JSON data is shown
An email user has been lured into clicking a link in an email sent by their company's security organization. The webpage that opens reports that it was safe but the link could have contained malicious code. Which type of security program is in place?
Refer to the exhibit.
If OSPF is running on this network, how does Router 2 handle traffic from Site B to 10.10.13/25 at Site A?
An engineer must configure Interswitch VLAN communication between a Cisco switch and a third-party switch. Which action should be taken?
Which device controls the forwarding of authentication requests for users when connecting to the network using a lightweight access point?
Drag and drop the SNMP components from the left onto the descriptions on the right.
Which command enables a router to become a DHCP client?
in Which way does a spine and-leaf architecture allow for scalability in a network when additional access ports are required?
On workstations running Microsoft Windows, which protocol provides the default gateway for the device?
How do servers connect to the network in a virtual environment?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which configuration on RTR-1 denies SSH access from PC-1 to any RTR-1 interface and allows all other traffic?
Drag and drop the DNS lookup components from the left onto the functions on the right.
Which protocol does an IPv4 host use to obtain a dynamically assigned IP address?
Which command automatically generates an IPv6 address from a specified IPv6 prefix and MAC address of an interface?
What causes a port to be placed in the err-disabled state?
A network administrator is asked to configure VLANS 2, 3 and 4 for a new implementation. Some ports must be assigned to the new VLANS with unused remaining. Which action should be taken for the unused ports?
When a floating static route is configured, which action ensures that the backup route is used when the primary route fails?
Refer to the exhibit.
A network engineer must configured communication between PC A and the File Server. To prevent interruption for any other communications, which command must be configured?
What is the role of a firewall in an enterprise network?
Why was the RFC 1918 address space defined?
Which HTTP status code is returned after a successful REST API request?
What is the difference regarding reliability and communication type between TCP and UDP?
Drag and drop the WLAN components from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.
Which API is used in controller-based architectures to interact with edge devices?
What is a function of a remote access VPN?
Refer to the exhibit.
PC1 is trying to ping PC3 for the first time and sends out an ARP to S1 Which action is taken by S1?
Which resource is able to be shared among virtual machines deployed on the same physical server?
Which WLC port connects to a switch to pass normal access-point traffic?
What occurs when overlapping Wi-Fi channels are implemented?
What criteria is used first during the root port selection process?
Which mode must be used to configure EtherChannel between two switches without using a negotiation protocol?
What occurs to frames during the process of frame flooding?
Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator must turn off the Cisco Discovery Protocol on the port configured with address last usable address in the 10.0.0.0/30 subnet. Which command set meets the requirement?
How does a switch process a frame received on Fa0/1 with the destination MAC address of 0e38.7363.657b when the table is missing the address?
An engineer must configure a/30 subnet between two routers. Which usable IP address and subnet mask combination meets this criteria?
How does Cisco DNA Center gather data from the network?
Which two events occur automatically when a device is added to Cisco DNA Center? (Choose two. )
In software-defined architecture, which place handles switching for traffic through a Cisco router?
What is the function of a hub-and-spoke WAN topology?
Refer to the exhibit.
What two conclusions should be made about this configuration? (Choose two )
Router R1 must send all traffic without a matching routing-table entry to 192.168.1.1. Which configuration accomplishes this task?
Which level of severity must be set to get informational syslogs?
Refer to the exhibit.
A network administrator must permit SSH access to remotely manage routers in a network. The operations team resides on the 10.20.1.0/25 network. Which command will accomplish this task?
What are two southbound APIs? (Choose two )
What is the purpose of using First Hop Redundancy Protocol in a specific subnet?
What is the purpose of a southbound API in a control based networking architecture?
Which attribute does a router use to select the best path when two or more different routes to the same destination exist from two different routing protocols.
When a site-to-site VPN is configured, which IPsec mode provides encapsulation and encryption of the entire original P packet?
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the metric of the route to the 192.168.10.33/28 subnet?
A network engineer is configuring an OSPFv2 neighbor adjacency Drag and drop the parameters from the left onto their required categories on the right. Not all parameters are used
An engineering team asks an implementer to configure syslog for warning conditions and error conditions. Which command does the implementer configure to achieve the desired result?
By default, how Does EIGRP determine the metric of a route for the routing table?
What is the primary effect of the spanning-tree portfast command?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer configured NAT translations and has verified that the configuration is correct.
Which IP address is the source IP?
Refer to the exhibit.
An extended ACL has been configured and applied to router R2 The configuration failed to work as intended Which two
changes stop outbound traffic on TCP ports 25 and 80 to 10.0.20 0 26 from the 10.0.10 0/26 subnet while still allowing all other traffic? (Choose
two )
Drag and drop the threat-mitigation techniques from the left onto the types of threat or attack they mitigate on the right.
What are two characteristics of the distribution layer in a three-tier network architecture? (Choose two.)
Two switches are connected and using Cisco Dynamic Trunking Protocol SW1 is set to Dynamic Desirable
What is the result of this configuration?
When configuring a WLAN with WPA2 PSK in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller GUI, which two formats are available to select? (Choose two)
Refer to the exhibit.
Router R4 is dynamically learning the path to the server. If R4 is connected to R1 via OSPF Area 20, to R2 v2ia R2 BGP, and to R3 via EIGRP 777, which path is installed in the routing table of R4?
An engineer is configuring an encrypted password for the enable command on a router where the local user database has already been configured Drag and drop the configuration commands from the left into the correct sequence on the right Not all commands are used
What is a DNS lookup operation?
Which configuration ensures that the switch is always the root for VLAN 750?
How does QoS optimize voice traffic?
When a switch receives a frame for a known destination MAC address, how is the frame handed?
What does a router do when configured with the default DNS lookup settings, and a URL is entered on the CLI?
Which device tracks the state of active connections in order to make a decision to forward a packet through?
Which WAN access technology is preferred for a small office / home office architecture?
Which command entered on a switch configured with Rapid PVST* listens and learns for a specific time period?
Refer to the exhibit.
After the election process what is the root bridge in the HQ LAN?
The SW1 interface g0/1 is in the down/down state. Which two configurations are valid reasons for the interface conditions?(choose two)
What Is the path for traffic sent from one user workstation to another workstation on a separate switch In a Ihree-lter architecture model?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which IPv6 configuration is required for R17 to successfully ping the WAN interface on R18?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two prefixes are included in this routing table entry? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.
Which change to the configuration on Switch?
allows the two switches to establish an GtherChannel?
What are two descriptions of three-tier network topologies? (Choose two)
Refer to the exhibit.
The default-information originate command is configured under the R1 OSPF configuration After testing workstations on VLAN 20 at Site B cannot reach a DNS server on the Internet Which action corrects the configuration issue?
Which two QoS tools provides congestion management? ( Choose two )
An office has 8 floors with approximately 30-40 users per floor What command must be configured on the router Switched Virtual Interface to use address space efficiently?
Refer to the exhibit.
The entire contents of the MAC address table are shown. Sales-4 sends a data frame to Sales-1.
What does the switch do as it receives the frame from Sales-4?
What is the same for both copper and fiber interfaces when using SFP modules?
What is the expected outcome when an EUI-64 address is generated?
Which two protocols must be disabled to increase security for management connections to a Wireless LAN Controller? (Choose two.)
Drag the descriptions of device management from the left onto the types of device management on the right.
Which two must be met before SSH can operate normally on a Cisco IOS switch? (Choose two)
What prevents a workstation from receiving a DHCP address?
R1 has learned route 10.10.10.0/24 via numerous routing protocols. Which route is installed?
What is a function of a Layer 3 switch?
Router A learns the same route from two different neighbors, one of the neighbor routers is an OSPF neighbor and the other is an EIGRP neighbor. What is the administrative distance of the route that will be installed in the routing table?
What are two reasons that cause late collisions to increment on an Ethernet interface? (Choose two)
Drag and drop the application protocols from the left onto the transport protocols that it uses on the right
A wireless administrator has configured a WLAN; however, the clients need access to a less congested 5-GHz network for their voice quality. What action must be taken to meet the requirement?
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the effect of this configuration?
When deploying syslog, which severity level logs informational message?
Which configuration management mechanism uses TCP port 22 by default when communicating with managed nodes?
Refer to the exhibit.
To which device does Router1 send packets that are destined to host 10.10.13.165?
A router running EIGRP has learned the same route from two different paths. Which parameter does the router use to select the best path?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is bringing up a new circuit to the MPLS provider on the Gi0/1 interface of Router1 The new circuit uses eBGP and teams the route to VLAN25 from the BGP path What s the expected behavior for the traffic flow for route 10.10.13.0/25?
Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator configures four switches for local authentication using passwords that are stored in a cryptographic hash. The four switches must also support SSH access for administrators to manage the network infrastructure. Which switch is configured correctly to meet these requirements?
A network engineer must create a diagram of a multivendor network. Which command must be configured on the Cisco devices so that the topology of the network can be mapped?
Refer to the exhibit.
An access list is created to deny Telnet access from host PC-1 to RTR-1 and allow access from all other hosts A Telnet attempt from PC-2 gives this message:"% Connection refused by remote host" Without allowing Telnet access from PC-1, which action must be taken to permit the traffic?
Which WPA3 enhancement protects against hackers viewing traffic on the Wi-Fi network?
What are two reasons for an engineer to configure a floating state route? (Choose two)
Why does a switch flood a frame to all ports?
Where does wireless authentication happen?
Which networking function occurs on the data plane?
What are two characteristics of a controller-based network? (Choose two)
What is the primary function of a Layer 3 device?
A packet is destined for 10.10.1.22. Which static route does the router choose to forward the packet?
What are two benefits of network automation? (Choose two)
Which set of action satisfy the requirement for multifactor authentication?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which command must be executed for Gi1.1 on SW1 to become a trunk port if Gi1/1 on SW2 is configured in desirable or trunk mode?
A corporate office uses four floors in a building
• Floor 1 has 24 users
• Floor 2 has 29 users
• Floor 3 has 28 users
•Floor 4 has 22 users
Which subnet summarizes and gives the most efficient distribution of IP addresses for the router configuration?
With REST API, which standard HTTP header tells a server which media type is expected by the client?
Refer to Exhibit.
An engineer is configuring the NEW York router to reach the Lo1 interface of the Atlanta router using interface Se0/0/0 as the primary path. Which two commands must be configured on the New York router so that it can reach the Lo1 interface of the Atlanta router via Washington when the link between New York and Atlanta goes down? (Choose two)
If a switch port receives a new frame while it is actively transmitting a previous frame, how does it process the frames?
How does a Cisco Unified Wireless network respond to Wi-Fi channel overlap?
Which protocol prompts the Wireless LAN Controller to generate its own local web administration SSL certificate for GUI access?
Which QoS tool is used to optimize voice traffic on a network that is primarily intended for data traffic?
Refer to the exhibit.
How does router R1 handle traffic to 192.168.10.16?
How does WPA3 improve security?
Refer to the exhibit.
A packet is being sent across router R1 to host 172.16.0.14. What is the destination route for the packet?
A device detects two stations transmitting frames at the same time. This condition occurs after the first 64 bytes of the frame is received interface counter increments?
Refer to the exhibit.
For security reasons, automatic neighbor discovery must be disabled on the R5 Gi0/1 interface. These tasks must be completed:
• Disable all neighbor discovery methods on R5 interface GiO/1.
• Permit neighbor discovery on R5 interface GiO/2.
• Verify there are no dynamically learned neighbors on R5 interface Gi0/1.
• Display the IP address of R6*s interface Gi0/2.
Which configuration must be used?
Refer to the exhibit.
A packet is being sent across router R1 to host 172.163.3.14. To which destination does the router send the packet?
Which design element is a best practice when deploying an 802.11b wireless infrastructure?
What is a function of TFTP in network operations?
Refer to the exhibit.
Based on the LACP neighbor status, in which mode is the SW1 port channel configured?
What is the purpose of an SSID?
Which type of organization should use a collapsed-core architecture?
Which statement about Link Aggregation when implemented on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller is true?
What is a characteristic of spine-and-leaf architecture?
Refer to the exhibit.
What does router R1 use as its OSPF router-ID?
What does an SDN controller use as a communication protocol to relay forwarding changes to a southbound API?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which route does R1 select for traffic that is destined to 192 168.16.2?
Which two outcomes are predictable behaviors for HSRP? (Choose two)
Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator is tasked with configuring a voice VLAN. What is the expected outcome when a Cisco phone is connected to the GigabitEfriemet3/1/4 port on a switch?
What are two differences between optical-fiber cabling and copper cabling? (Choose two)
An engineer must configure a WLAN using the strongest encryption type for WPA2- PSK. Which cipher fulfills the configuration requirement?
Refer to the exhibit. A secondary route is required on router R1 to pass traffic to the LAN network on R2 if the primary link fails. Which command must be entered to configure the router?
Connectivity between four routers has been established. IP connectivity must be configured in the order presented to complete the implementation. No dynamic routing protocols are included.
1. Configure static routing using host routes to establish connectivity from router R3 to the router R1 Loopback address using the source IP of 209.165.200.230.
2. Configure an IPv4 default route on router R2 destined for router R4.
3. Configure an IPv6 default router on router R2 destined for router R4.
Refer to the exhibit. The route for 10.220.100.96/27 has been very unstable. The same route has four backups to routers A, B, C, and D via the respective methods. The routing protocol defaults for router Y have not been changed. When the current route for 10.220.100.96/27 becomes unavailable, which router will router Y use to route traffic to 10.220.100.96/27?
Configure IPv4 and IPv6 connectivity between two routers. For IPv4, use a /28 network from the 192.168.1.0/24 private range. For IPv6, use the first /64 subnet from the 2001:0db8:aaaa::/48 subnet.
1. Using Ethernet0/1 on routers R1 and R2, configure the next usable/28 from the 192.168.1.0/24 range. The network 192.168.1.0/28 is unavailable.
2. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R1 must be configured with the first usable host address.
3. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R2 must be configured with the last usable host address.
4. For the IPv6 /64 subnet, configure the routers with the IP addressing provided from the topology.
5. A ping must work between the routers on the IPv4 and IPv6 address ranges.
Refer to the exhibit. What is the administrative distance for the advertised prefix that includes the host IP address 10.30.0.1?
Which interface is used to send traffic to the destination network?
O 10.76.170 161/26 |110/102] via FO/17
O 10.76.170 161/26[110/27e31] via FO/20
R 10.76.170.161/261120/15] via FO/8
R 10.76.170.161/26 [120/10] via FO/12
What is the purpose of the service-set identifier?
An organization developed new security policies and decided to print the policies and distribute them to all personnel so that employees review and apply the policies. Which element of a security program is the organization implementing?
Refer to the exhibit. The static routes were implemented on the border router. What is the next hop IP address for a ping sent to 172.16.153.154 from the border router?
Why would a network administrator implement the HSRP protocol?
How does a network administrator securely manage an AP in lightweight mode?
How does MAC learning function?
Which fact must the engineer consider when implementing syslog on a new network?
How does MAC learning function?
Refer to the exhibit. A guest WLAN must be created that prompts the client for a username and password on the local web page of the WLC. Which two actions must be performed on the Layer 2 tab before enabling the Authentication option on the Layer 3 tab? (Choose two.)
How does automation affect network management processes?
Which interface on the WLC is used exclusively as a DHCP relay?
Which technology allows multiple operating systems lo run a single physical server?
IP connectivity between the three routers is configured. OSPF adjacencies must be established.
1. Configure R1 and R2 Router IDs using the interface IP addresses from the link that is shared between them.
2. Configure the R2 links with a max value facing R1 and R3. R2 must become the DR. R1 and R3 links facing R2 must remain with the default OSPF configuration for DR election. Verify the configuration after clearing the OSPF process.
3. Using a host wildcard mask, configure all three routers to advertise their respective Loopback1 networks.
4. Configure the link between R1 and R3 to disable their ability to add other OSPF routers.
An engineer requires a switch interface to actively attempt to establish a trunk link with a neighbor switch. What command must be configured?
What differentiates the TCP and UDP protocols?
What is a similarity between global and unique local IPv6 addresses?
Why would a network administrator choose to implement RFC 1918 address space?
Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the cable type on the right.
What is the total number of users permitted to simultaneously browse the controller management pages when using the AireOS GUI?
All physical cabling between the two switches is installed. Configure the network connectivity between the switches using the designated VLANs and interfaces.
1. Configure VLAN 100 named Compute and VLAN 200 named Telephony where required for each task.
2. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW2 to use the existing VLAN named Available.
3. Configure the connection between the switches using access ports.
4. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW1 using data and voice VLANs.
5. Configure Ethemet0/1 on SW2 so that the Cisco proprietary neighbor discovery protocol is turned off for the designated interface only.
Refer to the exhibit. Which two commands, when configured on router R1. fulfill these requirements? (Choose two.) ' Packets toward the entire network 2001:db8:23: :/64 must be forwarded through router R2. ' Packets toward host 2001: db8:23::14 preferably must be forwarded through R3.
Refer to the exhibit. VLAN 23 is being implemented between SW1 and SW2. The command show interface ethernet0/0 switchport has been issued on SW1. Ethernet0/0 on SW1 is the uplink to SW2. Which command when entered on the uplink interface allows PC 1 and PC 2 to communicate without impact to the communication between PC 11 and PC 12?
What is the function of generative AI in network operations?
Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches,
and the network connectivity between them must be configured.
I . Configure an LACP EtherChanneI and number it as 44; configure it
between switches SWI and SW2 using interfaces EthernetO/O and
Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends.
2. Configure the EtherChanneI as a trunk link.
3. Configure the trunk link with 802. Iq tags.
4. Configure VLAN 'MONITORING' as the untagged VLAN of the
EtherChannel.
==================
Guidelines
This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.
• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.
• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.
• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using
the tab(s) above the console window.
• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.
• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.
• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.
• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.
• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.
Refer to the exhibit. What is preventing host A from reaching the internet?
Which security element uses a combination of one-time passwords, a login name, and a personal smartphone?
An engineer must update the configuration on two PCs in two different subnets to communicate locally with each other. One PC is configured with IP address 192.168.25.128/25 and the other with 192.168.25.100/25. Which network mask must the engineer configure on both PCs to enable the communication?
Which key function is provided by the data plane?
Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.
Which two features are provided by Ansible in network automation? (Choose two.)
Connectivity between three routers has been established, and IP services must be configured jn the order presented to complete the implementation Tasks assigned include configuration of NAT, NTP, DHCP, and SSH services.
1. All traffic sent from R3 to the R1 Loopback address must be configured for NAT on R2. All source addresses must be translated from R3 to the IP address of Ethernet0/0 on R2, while using only a standard access list named NAT To verify, a ping must be successful to the R1 Loopback address sourced from R3. Do not use NVI NAT configuration.
2. Configure R1 as an NTP server and R2 as a client, not as a peer, using the IP address of the R1 Ethernet0/2 interface. Set the clock on the NTP server for midnight on January 1, 2019.
3. Configure R1 as a DHCP server for the network 10.1.3.0/24 in a pool named TEST. Using a single command, exclude addresses 1-10 from the range. Interface Ethernet0/2 on R3 must be issued the IP address of 10.1.3.11 via DHCP.
4. Configure SSH connectivity from R1 to R3, while excluding access via other remote connection protocols. Access for user root and password Cisco must be set on router R3 using RSA and 1024 bits. Verify connectivity using an SSH session from router R1 using a destination address of 10.1.3.11. Do NOT modify console access or line numbers to accomplish this task.
Why does an administrator choose to implement a remote access IPsec VPN?
What is a characteristic of a Layer 2 switch?
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is adding another physical interface as a new member to the existing Port-Channel1 bundle.
Which command set must be configured on the new interface to complete the process?
Which header must be included in a REST request from an application that requires JSON-formatted content?
Aswitch receives a frame with the destination MAC address 3C:5D: 7E:9F: 1A:2B.
Switch# show ethernet-frame-and-mac-address-table
How does the switch handle the frame?
Which type of protocol is VRRP?
Refer to the exhibit.
How does router R1 forward packets destined to 10.0.4.10?
All physical cabling is in place. A company plans to deploy 32 new sites.
The sites will utilize both IPv4 and IPv6 networks.
1 . Subnet 172.25.0.0/16 to meet the subnet requirements and maximize
the number of hosts
Using the second subnet
• Assign the first usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw1O1
• Assign the last usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw102
2. Subnet to meet the subnet requirements and maximize
the number of hosts
c Using the second subnet
• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier
on e0/0 on Sw101
• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier
on eO/O on swi02
Guidelines
This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.
• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.
• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.
• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using
the tab(s) above the console window.
• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.
• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.
• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.
• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.
• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.
Which statement describes virtualization on containers?
What are two benefits of private IPv4 addressing? (Choose two.)
Which action prevents debug messages from being sent via syslog while allowing other messages when an abnormally high number of syslog messages are generated by a device with the debug process turned on?
Which interface is used to send traffic to the destination network?
10.90.207.87/26 [110/1912] via F0/7
10.90.207.87/26 [110/28968] via F0/6
10.90.207.87/26 [120/14] via F0/4
10.90.207.87/26 [120/11] via F0/5
Why are API keys used to enforce rate limiting?
Which feature, when used on a WLC, allows it to bundle its distribution system ports into one 802.3ad group?
Refer to the exhibit. During initial configuration testing, the Windows workstation PC1 cannot connect with the 172.16.2.0/24 network.
Which set of actions corrects the configuration?
What is a characteristic of private IPv4 addressing?
Refer to the exhibit. Which tasks must be performed on the Download File tab to install new software using TCP port 22?)
Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches, and the network connectivity between them must be configured
1. Configure an LACP EtherChannel and number it as 1; configure it between switches SW1 and SVV2 using interfaces Ethernet0/0 and Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends
2 Configure the EtherChannel as a trunk link.
3. Configure the trunk link with 802.1 q tags.
4. Configure the native VLAN of the EtherChannel as VLAN 15.
Which interface is used to send traffic to the destination network?
O 10.18.75.113/27 [110/6906] via GO/6
O 10.18.75.113/27 [110/23018] via GO/3
R 10.18.75.113/27 [120/16] via GO/16
R 10.18.75.113/27 [120/14] via GO/23
Which two QoS tools provide congestion management? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit. What is the administrative distance for the advertised prefix that includes the host IP address 192.168.20.1?
Refer to the exhibit.
What is occurring on this switch?
What is represented by the word "LB13" within this JSON schema?
Refer to the exhibit. An LACP EtherChannel between two directly connected switches is in the configuration process.
Which command must be configured on switch SW2’s Gi0/1-2 interfaces to establish the channel to SW1?
How is Al used to identify issues within network traffic?
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is configuring a new WLAN for a wireless network that has these requirements:
Dual-band clients that connect to the WLAN must be directed to the 5-GHz spectrum.
Wireless clients on this WLAN must be able to apply VLAN settings from RADIUS attributes.
Which two actions meet these requirements? (Choose two.)
A new DHCP server has been deployed in a corporate environment with lease time set to eight hours. Which CMD command on a Windows-based device allows the engineer to verify the DHCP lease expiration?
Which default condition must be considered when an encrypted mobility tunnel is used between two Cisco WLCs?
Which technology allows for logical Layer 3 separation on physical network equipment?
What is a function of a northbound API in an SDN environment?
IP connectivity and OSPF are preconfigured on all devices where necessary. Do not make any changes to the IP addressing or OSPF. The company policy uses connected interfaces and next hops when configuring static routes except for load balancing or redundancy without floating static. Connectivity must be established between subnet 172.20.20.128/25 on the Internet and the LAN at 192.168.0.0/24 connected to SW1:
1. Configure reachability to the switch SW1 LAN subnet in router R2.
2. Configure default reachability to the Internet subnet in router R1.
3. Configure a single static route in router R2 to reach to the Internet subnet considering both redundant links between routers R1 and R2. A default route is NOT allowed in router R2.
4. Configure a static route in router R1 toward the switch SW1 LAN subnet where the primary link must be through Ethernet0/1. and the backup link must be through Ethernet0/2 using a floating route. Use the minimal administrative distance value when required.
Which AP mode wirelessly connects two separate network segments each set up within a different campus building?
In this attack, the attacking computer generates frames with two 802.1Q tags. The first tag matches the native VLAN of the trunk port (VLAN 10 in this case), and the second matches the VLAN of a host it wants to attack (VLAN 20).
