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Cisco 350-701 Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies (SCOR 350-701) Exam Practice Test

Demo: 217 questions
Total 726 questions

Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies (SCOR 350-701) Questions and Answers

Question 1

When Cisco and other industry organizations publish and inform users of known security findings and

vulnerabilities, which name is used?

Options:

A.

Common Security Exploits

B.

Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures

C.

Common Exploits and Vulnerabilities

D.

Common Vulnerabilities, Exploits and Threats

Question 2

What is a characteristic of traffic storm control behavior?

Options:

A.

Traffic storm control drops all broadcast and multicast traffic if the combined traffic exceeds the level withinthe interval.

B.

Traffic storm control cannot determine if the packet is unicast or broadcast.

C.

Traffic storm control monitors incoming traffic levels over a 10-second traffic storm control interval.

D.

Traffic storm control uses the Individual/Group bit in the packet source address to determine if the packet isunicast or broadcast.

Question 3

Why is it important to patch endpoints consistently?

Options:

A.

Patching reduces the attack surface of the infrastructure.

B.

Patching helps to mitigate vulnerabilities.

C.

Patching is required per the vendor contract.

D.

Patching allows for creating a honeypot.

Question 4

Which Cisco security solution protects remote users against phishing attacks when they are not connected to

the VPN?

Options:

A.

Cisco Stealthwatch

B.

Cisco Umbrella

C.

Cisco Firepower

D.

NGIPS

Question 5

Which feature is used in a push model to allow for session identification, host reauthentication, and session termination?

Options:

A.

AAA attributes

B.

CoA request

C.

AV pair

D.

carrier-grade NAT

Question 6

What is a feature of Cisco NetFlow Secure Event Logging for Cisco ASAs?

Options:

A.

Multiple NetFlow collectors are supported

B.

Advanced NetFlow v9 templates and legacy v5 formatting are supported

C.

Secure NetFlow connections are optimized for Cisco Prime Infrastructure

D.

Flow-create events are delayed

Question 7

Due to a traffic storm on the network, two interfaces were error-disabled, and both interfaces sent SNMP traps.

Which two actions must be taken to ensure that interfaces are put back into service? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Have Cisco Prime Infrastructure issue an SNMP set command to re-enable the ports after the preconfigured interval.

B.

Use EEM to have the ports return to service automatically in less than 300 seconds.

C.

Enter the shutdown and no shutdown commands on the interfaces.

D.

Enable the snmp-server enable traps command and wait 300 seconds

E.

Ensure that interfaces are configured with the error-disable detection and recovery feature

Question 8

An organization wants to improve its cybersecurity processes and to add intelligence to its data The organization wants to utilize the most current intelligence data for URL filtering, reputations, and vulnerability information that can be integrated with the Cisco FTD and Cisco WSA What must be done to accomplish these objectives?

Options:

A.

Create a Cisco pxGrid connection to NIST to import this information into the security products for policy use

B.

Create an automated download of the Internet Storm Center intelligence feed into the Cisco FTD and Cisco WSA databases to tie to the dynamic access control policies.

C.

Download the threat intelligence feed from the IETF and import it into the Cisco FTD and Cisco WSA databases

D.

Configure the integrations with Talos Intelligence to take advantage of the threat intelligence that it provides.

Question 9

Based on the NIST 800-145 guide, which cloud architecture is provisioned for exclusive use by a specific group of consumers from different organizations and may be owned, managed, and operated by one or more of those organizations?

Options:

A.

hybrid cloud

B.

private cloud

C.

community cloud

D.

public cloud

Question 10

A switch with Dynamic ARP Inspection enabled has received a spoofed ARP response on a trusted interface.

How does the switch behave in this situation?

Options:

A.

It forwards the packet after validation by using the MAC Binding Table.

B.

It drops the packet after validation by using the IP & MAC Binding Table.

C.

It forwards the packet without validation.

D.

It drops the packet without validation.

Question 11

Which method is used to deploy certificates and configure the supplicant on mobile devices to gain access to

network resources?

Options:

A.

BYOD on boarding

B.

Simple Certificate Enrollment Protocol

C.

Client provisioning

D.

MAC authentication bypass

Question 12

What must be used to share data between multiple security products?

Options:

A.

Cisco Rapid Threat Containment

B.

Cisco Platform Exchange Grid

C.

Cisco Advanced Malware Protection

D.

Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud

Question 13

What is a difference between DMVPN and sVTI?

Options:

A.

DMVPN supports tunnel encryption, whereas sVTI does not.

B.

DMVPN supports dynamic tunnel establishment, whereas sVTI does not.

C.

DMVPN supports static tunnel establishment, whereas sVTI does not.

D.

DMVPN provides interoperability with other vendors, whereas sVTI does not.

Question 14

Drag and drop the steps from the left into the correct order on the right to enable AppDynamics to monitor an EC2 instance in Amazon Web Services.

Options:

Question 15

Which Cisco Firewall solution requires zone definition?

Options:

A.

CBAC

B.

Cisco AMP

C.

ZBFW

D.

Cisco ASA

Question 16

Email security has become a high priority task for a security engineer at a large multi-national organization due to ongoing phishing campaigns. To help control this, the engineer has deployed an Incoming Content Filter with a URL reputation of (-10 00 to -6 00) on the Cisco ESA Which action will the system perform to disable any links in messages that match the filter?

Options:

A.

Defang

B.

Quarantine

C.

FilterAction

D.

ScreenAction

Question 17

An engineer configures new features within the Cisco Umbrella dashboard and wants to identify and proxy traffic that is categorized as risky domains and may contain safe and malicious content. Which action accomplishes these objectives?

Options:

A.

Configure URL filtering within Cisco Umbrella to track the URLs and proxy the requests for those categories and below.

B.

Configure intelligent proxy within Cisco Umbrella to intercept and proxy the requests for only those categories.

C.

Upload the threat intelligence database to Cisco Umbrella for the most current information on reputations and to have the destination lists block them.

D.

Create a new site within Cisco Umbrella to block requests from those categories so they can be sent to the proxy device.

Question 18

An engineer is configuring their router to send NetfFow data to Stealthwatch which has an IP address of 1 1 11 using the flow record Stea!thwatch406397954 command Which additional command is required to complete the flow record?

Options:

A.

transport udp 2055

B.

match ipv4 ttl

C.

cache timeout active 60

D.

destination 1.1.1.1

Question 19

When wired 802.1X authentication is implemented, which two components are required? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

authentication server: Cisco Identity Service Engine

B.

supplicant: Cisco AnyConnect ISE Posture module

C.

authenticator: Cisco Catalyst switch

D.

authenticator: Cisco Identity Services Engine

E.

authentication server: Cisco Prime Infrastructure

Question 20

Which two capabilities does an MDM provide? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

delivery of network malware reports to an inbox in a schedule

B.

unified management of mobile devices, Macs, and PCs from a centralized dashboard

C.

enforcement of device security policies from a centralized dashboard

D.

manual identification and classification of client devices

E.

unified management of Android and Apple devices from a centralized dashboard

Question 21

What are two functions of IKEv1 but not IKEv2? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

NAT-T is supported in IKEv1 but rot in IKEv2.

B.

With IKEv1, when using aggressive mode, the initiator and responder identities are passed cleartext

C.

With IKEv1, mode negotiates faster than main mode

D.

IKEv1 uses EAP authentication

E.

IKEv1 conversations are initiated by the IKE_SA_INIT message

Question 22

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is implementing a certificate based VPN. What is the result of the existing configuration?

Options:

A.

The OU of the IKEv2 peer certificate is used as the identity when matching an IKEv2 authorization policy.

B.

Only an IKEv2 peer that has an OU certificate attribute set to MANGLER establishes an IKEv2 SA successfully

C.

The OU of the IKEv2 peer certificate is encrypted when the OU is set to MANGLER

D.

The OU of the IKEv2 peer certificate is set to MANGLER

Question 23

An engineer has been tasked with implementing a solution that can be leveraged for securing the cloud users,

data, and applications. There is a requirement to use the Cisco cloud native CASB and cloud cybersecurity

platform. What should be used to meet these requirements?

Options:

A.

Cisco Umbrella

B.

Cisco Cloud Email Security

C.

Cisco NGFW

D.

Cisco Cloudlock

Question 24

What is a characteristic of Cisco ASA Netflow v9 Secure Event Logging?

Options:

A.

It tracks flow-create, flow-teardown, and flow-denied events.

B.

It provides stateless IP flow tracking that exports all records of a specific flow.

C.

It tracks the flow continuously and provides updates every 10 seconds.

D.

Its events match all traffic classes in parallel.

Question 25

Which feature is supported when deploying Cisco ASAv within AWS public cloud?

Options:

A.

multiple context mode

B.

user deployment of Layer 3 networks

C.

IPv6

D.

clustering

Question 26

A network administrator is using the Cisco ESA with AMP to upload files to the cloud for analysis. The network

is congested and is affecting communication. How will the Cisco ESA handle any files which need analysis?

Options:

A.

AMP calculates the SHA-256 fingerprint, caches it, and periodically attempts the upload.

B.

The file is queued for upload when connectivity is restored.

C.

The file upload is abandoned.

D.

The ESA immediately makes another attempt to upload the file.

Question 27

What is the purpose of the My Devices Portal in a Cisco ISE environment?

Options:

A.

to register new laptops and mobile devices

B.

to request a newly provisioned mobile device

C.

to provision userless and agentless systems

D.

to manage and deploy antivirus definitions and patches on systems owned by the end user

Question 28

Which two request methods of REST API are valid on the Cisco ASA Platform? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

GET

B.

CONNECT

C.

PUSH

D.

OPTIONS

E.

PUT

Question 29

Which solution protects hybrid cloud deployment workloads with application visibility and segmentation?

Options:

A.

Nexus

B.

Stealthwatch

C.

Firepower

D.

Tetration

Question 30

How does a Cisco Secure Firewall help to lower the risk of exfiltration techniques that steal customer data?

Options:

A.

Blocking UDP port 53

B.

Blocking TCP port 53

C.

Encrypting the DNS communication

D.

Inspecting the DNS traffic

Question 31

Which two global commands must the network administrator implement to limit the attack surface of an internet-facing Cisco router? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

no service password-recovery

B.

no cdp run

C.

service tcp-keepalives-in

D.

no ip http server

E.

ip ssh version 2

Question 32

A customer has various external HTTP resources available including Intranet Extranet and Internet, with a

proxy configuration running in explicit mode. Which method allows the client desktop browsers to be configured

to select when to connect direct or when to use the proxy?

Options:

A.

Transport mode

B.

Forward file

C.

PAC file

D.

Bridge mode

Question 33

Which CLI command is used to enable URL filtering support for shortened URLs on the Cisco ESA?

Options:

A.

webadvancedconfig

B.

websecurity advancedconfig

C.

outbreakconfig

D.

websecurity config

Question 34

Which Cisco ASA deployment model is used to filter traffic between hosts in the same IP subnet using higher-level protocols without readdressing the network?

Options:

A.

routed mode

B.

transparent mode

C.

single context mode

D.

multiple context mode

Question 35

An organization is receiving SPAM emails from a known malicious domain. What must be configured in order to

prevent the session during the initial TCP communication?

Options:

A.

Configure the Cisco ESA to drop the malicious emails

B.

Configure policies to quarantine malicious emails

C.

Configure policies to stop and reject communication

D.

Configure the Cisco ESA to reset the TCP connection

Question 36

When NetFlow is applied to an interface, which component creates the flow monitor cache that is used

to collect traffic based on the key and nonkey fields in the configured record?

Options:

A.

records

B.

flow exporter

C.

flow sampler

D.

flow monitor

Question 37

An engineer has been tasked with configuring a Cisco FTD to analyze protocol fields and detect anomalies in the traffic from industrial systems. What must be done to meet these requirements?

Options:

A.

Implement pre-filter policies for the CIP preprocessor

B.

Enable traffic analysis in the Cisco FTD

C.

Configure intrusion rules for the DNP3 preprocessor

D.

Modify the access control policy to trust the industrial traffic

Question 38

Why is it important to have logical security controls on endpoints even though the users are trained to spot security threats and the network devices already help prevent them?

Options:

A.

to prevent theft of the endpoints

B.

because defense-in-depth stops at the network

C.

to expose the endpoint to more threats

D.

because human error or insider threats will still exist

Question 39

Which Talos reputation center allows for tracking the reputation of IP addresses for email and web traffic?

Options:

A.

IP and Domain Reputation Center

B.

File Reputation Center

C.

IP Slock List Center

D.

AMP Reputation Center

Question 40

An engineer is configuring IPsec VPN and needs an authentication protocol that is reliable and supports ACK

and sequence. Which protocol accomplishes this goal?

Options:

A.

AES-192

B.

IKEv1

C.

AES-256

D.

ESP

Question 41

A network engineer is configuring DMVPN and entered the crypto isakmp key cisc0380739941 address 0.0.0.0 command on hostA. The tunnel is not being established to hostB. What action is needed to authenticate the VPN?

Options:

A.

Change isakmp to ikev2 in the command on hostA.

B.

Enter the command with a different password on hostB.

C.

Enter the same command on hostB.

D.

Change the password on hostA to the default password.

Question 42

What is a key difference between Cisco Firepower and Cisco ASA?

Options:

A.

Cisco ASA provides access control while Cisco Firepower does not.

B.

Cisco Firepower provides identity-based access control while Cisco ASA does not.

C.

Cisco Firepower natively provides intrusion prevention capabilities while Cisco ASA does not.

D.

Cisco ASA provides SSL inspection while Cisco Firepower does not.

Question 43

What is a benefit of using telemetry over SNMP to configure new routers for monitoring purposes?

Options:

A.

Telemetry uses a pull mehod, which makes it more reliable than SNMP

B.

Telemetry uses push and pull, which makes it more scalable than SNMP

C.

Telemetry uses push and pull which makes it more secure than SNMP

D.

Telemetry uses a push method which makes it faster than SNMP

Question 44

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must configure a new Cisco ISE backend server as a RADIUS server to provide AAA for all access requests from the client to the ISE-Frontend server.

Which Cisco ISE configuration must be used?

Options:

A.

Set 10.11.1.2 as a network device in ISE-Frontend. Set port 1700/2083 for RADIUS authentication.

B.

Set 10.11.1.1 as the external RADIUS server in ISE-Frontend. Set ports 1812/1813 for authentication and accounting.

C.

Set 10.11.1.2 as the external RADIUS server in ISE-Frontend. Set ports 1812/1813 for authentication and accounting.

D.

Set 10.11.1.1 as a network device in ISE-Frontend. Set ports 1700/2083 for RADIUS authentication.

Question 45

Which Cisco AMP file disposition valid?

Options:

A.

pristine

B.

malware

C.

dirty

D.

non malicious

Question 46

An engineer is configuring cloud logging on Cisco ASA and needs events to compress. Which component must be configured to accomplish this goal?

Options:

A.

CDO event viewer

B.

SWC service

C.

Cisco analytics

D.

SDC VM

Question 47

A Cisco AMP for Endpoints administrator configures a custom detection policy to add specific MD5 signatures The configuration is created in the simple detection policy section, but it does not work What is the reason for this failure?

Options:

A.

The administrator must upload the file instead of the hash for Cisco AMP to use.

B.

The MD5 hash uploaded to the simple detection policy is in the incorrect format

C.

The APK must be uploaded for the application that the detection is intended

D.

Detections for MD5 signatures must be configured in the advanced custom detection policies

Question 48

A security administrator is designing an email protection solution for an onsite email server and must meet these requirements:

Remove malware from email before it reaches corporate premises

Drop emails with risky links automatically

Block access to newly infected sites with real-time URL analysis

Which solution must be used?

Options:

A.

Cisco Secure Email Cloud

B.

Cisco Security for Office 365

C.

Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud

D.

Cisco Secure Email and Web Manager Cloud

Question 49

An engineer must configure Cisco AMP for Endpoints so that it contains a list of files that should not be executed by users. These files must not be quarantined. Which action meets this configuration requirement?

Options:

A.

Identity the network IPs and place them in a blocked list.

B.

Modify the advanced custom detection list to include these files.

C.

Create an application control blocked applications list.

D.

Add a list for simple custom detection.

Question 50

Drag and drop the security responsibilities from the left onto the corresponding cloud service models on the right.

Options:

Question 51

What is the process of performing automated static and dynamic analysis of files against preloaded

behavioral indicators for threat analysis?

Options:

A.

deep visibility scan

B.

point-in-time checks

C.

advanced sandboxing

D.

advanced scanning

Question 52

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration item makes it possible to have the AAA session on the network?

Options:

A.

aaa authentication login console ise

B.

aaa authentication enable default enable

C.

aaa authorization network default group ise

D.

aaa authorization exec default ise

Question 53

Which API technology with SDN architecture is used to communicate with a controller and network devices such as routers and switches?

Options:

A.

REST APIs

B.

Northbound APIs

C.

Unprotected APIs

D.

Southbound APIs

Question 54

What is the concept of Cl/CD pipelining?

Options:

A.

The project is split into several phases where one phase cannot start before the previous phase finishes successfully.

B.

The project code is centrally maintained and each code change should trigger an automated build and test sequence

C.

The project is split into time-limited cycles and focuses on pair programming for continuous code review

D.

Each project phase is independent from other phases to maintain adaptiveness and continual improvement

Question 55

Which benefit does endpoint security provide the overall security posture of an organization?

Options:

A.

It streamlines the incident response process to automatically perform digital forensics on the endpoint.

B.

It allows the organization to mitigate web-based attacks as long as the user is active in the domain.

C.

It allows the organization to detect and respond to threats at the edge of the network.

D.

It allows the organization to detect and mitigate threats that the perimeter security devices do not detect.

Question 56

Which solution detects threats across a private network, public clouds, and encrypted traffic?

Options:

A.

Cisco Stealthwatch

B.

Cisco CTA

C.

Cisco Encrypted Traffic Analytics

D.

Cisco Umbrella

Question 57

A network administrator is setting up Cisco FMC to send logs to Cisco Security Analytics and Logging (SaaS). The network administrator is anticipating a high volume of logging events from the firewalls and wants lo limit the strain on firewall resources. Which method must the administrator use to send these logs to Cisco Security Analytics and Logging?

Options:

A.

SFTP using the FMCCLI

B.

syslog using the Secure Event Connector

C.

direct connection using SNMP traps

D.

HTTP POST using the Security Analytics FMC plugin

Question 58

An engineer needs to detect and quarantine a file named abc424400664 zip based on the MD5 signature of the file using the Outbreak Control list feature within Cisco Advanced Malware Protection (AMP) for Endpoints The configured detection method must work on files of unknown disposition Which Outbreak Control list must be configured to provide this?

Options:

A.

Blocked Application

B.

Simple Custom Detection

C.

Advanced Custom Detection

D.

Android Custom Detection

Question 59

Which command enables 802.1X globally on a Cisco switch?

Options:

A.

dot1x system-auth-control

B.

dot1x pae authenticator

C.

authentication port-control aut

D.

aaa new-model

Question 60

Refer to the exhibit. What does this Python script accomplish?

Options:

A.

It allows authentication with TLSv1 SSL protocol

B.

It authenticates to a Cisco ISE with an SSH connection.

C.

lt authenticates to a Cisco ISE server using the username of ersad

D.

It lists the LDAP users from the external identity store configured on Cisco ISE

Question 61

Which action controls the amount of URI text that is stored in Cisco WSA logs files?

Options:

A.

Configure the datasecurityconfig command

B.

Configure the advancedproxyconfig command with the HTTPS subcommand

C.

Configure a small log-entry size.

D.

Configure a maximum packet size.

Question 62

An administrator is configuring a DHCP server to better secure their environment. They need to be able to ratelimit the traffic and ensure that legitimate requests are not dropped. How would this be accomplished?

Options:

A.

Set a trusted interface for the DHCP server

B.

Set the DHCP snooping bit to 1

C.

Add entries in the DHCP snooping database

D.

Enable ARP inspection for the required VLAN

Question 63

In which scenario is endpoint-based security the solution?

Options:

A.

inspecting encrypted traffic

B.

device profiling and authorization

C.

performing signature-based application control

D.

inspecting a password-protected archive

Question 64

Which two methods must be used to add switches into the fabric so that administrators can control how switches are added into DCNM for private cloud management? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Cisco Cloud Director

B.

Cisco Prime Infrastructure

C.

PowerOn Auto Provisioning

D.

Seed IP

E.

CDP AutoDiscovery

Question 65

When using Cisco AMP for Networks which feature copies a file to the Cisco AMP cloud for analysis?

Options:

A.

Spero analysis

B.

dynamic analysis

C.

sandbox analysis

D.

malware analysis

Question 66

An engineer needs to configure an access control policy rule to always send traffic for inspection without

using the default action. Which action should be configured for this rule?

Options:

A.

monitor

B.

allow

C.

block

D.

trust

Question 67

What is a benefit of using Cisco Tetration?

Options:

A.

It collects telemetry data from servers and then uses software sensors to analyze flowinformation.

B.

It collects policy compliance data and process details.

C.

It collects enforcement data from servers and collects interpacket variation.

D.

It collects near-real time data from servers and inventories the software packages that exist onservers.

Question 68

Which Talos reputation center allows you to track the reputation of IP addresses for email and web traffic?

Options:

A.

IP Blacklist Center

B.

File Reputation Center

C.

AMP Reputation Center

D.

IP and Domain Reputation Center

Question 69

What is the purpose of a NetFlow version 9 template record?

Options:

A.

It specifies the data format of NetFlow processes.

B.

It provides a standardized set of information about an IP flow.

C.

lt defines the format of data records.

D.

It serves as a unique identification number to distinguish individual data records

Question 70

Which cloud service offering allows customers to access a web application that is being hosted, managed, and maintained by a cloud service provider?

Options:

A.

IaC

B.

SaaS

C.

IaaS

D.

PaaS

Question 71

An organization wants to reduce their attach surface for cloud applications. They want to understand application communications, detect abnormal application Behavior, and detect vulnerabilities within the applications. Which action accomplishes this task?

Options:

A.

Configure Cisco Secure Workload to detect anomalies and vulnerabilities.

B.

Use Cisco ISE to provide application visibility and restrict access to them.

C.

Implement Cisco Umbrella lo control the access each application is granted.

D.

Modify the Cisco Duo configuration to restrict access between applications.

Question 72

Which function is performed by certificate authorities but is a limitation of registration authorities?

Options:

A.

accepts enrollment requests

B.

certificate re-enrollment

C.

verifying user identity

D.

CRL publishing

Question 73

What is the function of the crypto is a kmp key cisc406397954 address 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 command when establishing an IPsec VPN tunnel?

Options:

A.

It defines what data is going to be encrypted via the VPN

B.

lt configures the pre-shared authentication key

C.

It prevents all IP addresses from connecting to the VPN server.

D.

It configures the local address for the VPN server.

Question 74

Which type of attack is social engineering?

Options:

A.

trojan

B.

phishing

C.

malware

D.

MITM

Question 75

What is a feature of container orchestration?

Options:

A.

ability to deploy Amazon ECS clusters by using the Cisco Container Platform data plane

B.

ability to deploy Amazon EKS clusters by using the Cisco Container Platform data plane

C.

ability to deploy Kubernetes clusters in air-gapped sites

D.

automated daily updates

Question 76

When a Cisco WSA checks a web request, what occurs if it is unable to match a user-defined policy?

Options:

A.

It blocks the request.

B.

It applies the global policy.

C.

It applies the next identification profile policy.

D.

It applies the advanced policy.

Question 77

Which product allows Cisco FMC to push security intelligence observable to its sensors from other products?

Options:

A.

Encrypted Traffic Analytics

B.

Threat Intelligence Director

C.

Cognitive Threat Analytics

D.

Cisco Talos Intelligence

Question 78

What is a benefit of using GET VPN over FlexVPN within a VPN deployment?

Options:

A.

GET VPN supports Remote Access VPNs

B.

GET VPN natively supports MPLS and private IP networks

C.

GET VPN uses multiple security associations for connections

D.

GET VPN interoperates with non-Cisco devices

Question 79

Which two capabilities of Integration APIs are utilized with Cisco Catalyst Center? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Create new SSIDs on a wireless LAN controller

B.

Connect to ITSM platforms

C.

Automatically deploy new virtual routers

D.

Upgrade software on switches and routers

E.

Third party reporting

Question 80

A Cisco Secure Email Gateway network administrator has been tasked to use a newly installed service to help create policy based on the reputation verdict. During testing, it is discovered that the Secure Email Gateway is not dropping files that have an undetermined verdict. What is causing this issue?

Options:

A.

The file has a reputation score that is below the threshold.

B.

The file has a reputation score that is above the threshold.

C.

The policy was created to disable file analysis.

D.

The policy was created to send a message to quarantine instead of drop.

Question 81

Which process is used to obtain a certificate from a CA?

Options:

A.

Registration

B.

Enrollment

C.

Signing

D.

Approval

Question 82

What is a feature of an endpoint detection and response solution?

Options:

A.

Preventing attacks by identifying harmful events with machine learning and conduct-based defense

B.

Rapidly and consistently observing and examining data to mitigate threats

C.

Capturing and clarifying data on email, endpoints, and servers to mitigate threats

D.

Ensuring the security of network devices by choosing which devices are allowed to reach the network

Question 83

When a Cisco Secure Web Appliance checks a web request, what occurs if it is unable to match a user-defined policy?

Options:

A.

It applies the next identification profile policy.

B.

It applies the advanced policy.

C.

It applies the global policy.

D.

It blocks the request.

Question 84

An organization is implementing URL blocking using Cisco Umbrella. The users are able to go to some sites but other sites are not accessible due to an error. Why is the error occurring?

Options:

A.

Client computers do not have the Cisco Umbrella Root CA certificate installed.

B.

IP-Layer Enforcement is not configured.

C.

Intelligent proxy and SSL decryption is disabled in the policy.

D.

Client computers do not have an SSL certificate deployed from an internal CA server.

Question 85

What is the primary role of the Cisco Email Security Appliance?

Options:

A.

Mail Submission Agent

B.

Mail Transfer Agent

C.

Mail Delivery Agent

D.

Mail User Agent

Question 86

Which two conditions are prerequisites for stateful failover for IPsec? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Only the IKE configuration that is set up on the active device must be duplicated on the standby device; theIPsec configuration is copied automatically

B.

The active and standby devices can run different versions of the Cisco IOS software but must be the sametype of device.

C.

The IPsec configuration that is set up on the active device must be duplicated on the standby device

D.

Only the IPsec configuration that is set up on the active device must be duplicated on the standby device;the IKE configuration is copied automatically.

E.

The active and standby devices must run the same version of the Cisco IOS software and must be thesame type of device

Question 87

In which situation should an Endpoint Detection and Response solution be chosen versus an Endpoint

Protection Platform?

Options:

A.

when there is a need for traditional anti-malware detection

B.

when there is no need to have the solution centrally managed

C.

when there is no firewall on the network

D.

when there is a need to have more advanced detection capabilities

Question 88

Which Cisco DNA Center Intent API action is used to retrieve the number of devices known to a DNA Center?

Options:

A.

GET https://fqdnOrlPofDnaCenterPlatform/dna/intent/api/v1/network-device/count

B.

GET https://fqdnOrlPofDnaCenterPlatform/dna/intent/api/v1/network-device

C.

GET https://fqdnOrlPofDnaCenterPlatform/dna/intent/api/v1/networkdevice?parameter1=value ¶meter2=value&....

D.

GET https://fqdnOrlPofDnaCenterPlatform/dna/intent/api/v 1/networkdevice/startIndex/recordsToReturn

Question 89

Which two endpoint measures are used to minimize the chances of falling victim to phishing and social

engineering attacks? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Patch for cross-site scripting.

B.

Perform backups to the private cloud.

C.

Protect against input validation and character escapes in the endpoint.

D.

Install a spam and virus email filter.

E.

Protect systems with an up-to-date antimalware program

Question 90

A company identified a phishing vulnerability during a pentest. What are two ways the company can protect employees from the attack? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

using Cisco Umbrella

B.

using Cisco FTD

C.

using Cisco ISE

D.

using Cisco Secure Email Gateway

E.

using an inline IPS/IDS in the network

Question 91

What is a characteristic of Dynamic ARP Inspection?

Options:

A.

DAI determines the validity of an ARP packet based on valid IP to MAC address bindings from the DHCPsnooping binding database.

B.

In a typical network, make all ports as trusted except for the ports connecting to switches, which areuntrusted

C.

DAI associates a trust state with each switch.

D.

DAI intercepts all ARP requests and responses on trusted ports only.

Question 92

Which factor must be considered when choosing the on-premise solution over the cloud-based one?

Options:

A.

With an on-premise solution, the provider is responsible for the installation and maintenance of the product, whereas with a cloud-based solution, the customer is responsible for it

B.

With a cloud-based solution, the provider is responsible for the installation, but the customer is responsible for the maintenance of the product.

C.

With an on-premise solution, the provider is responsible for the installation, but the customer is responsible for the maintenance of the product.

D.

With an on-premise solution, the customer is responsible for the installation and maintenance of theproduct, whereas with a cloud-based solution, the provider is responsible for it.

Question 93

An engineer integrates Cisco FMC and Cisco ISE using pxGrid Which role is assigned for Cisco FMC?

Options:

A.

client

B.

server

C.

controller

D.

publisher

Question 94

Which two deployment model configurations are supported for Cisco FTDv in AWS? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Cisco FTDv configured in routed mode and managed by an FMCv installed in AWS

B.

Cisco FTDv with one management interface and two traffic interfaces configured

C.

Cisco FTDv configured in routed mode and managed by a physical FMC appliance on premises

D.

Cisco FTDv with two management interfaces and one traffic interface configured

E.

Cisco FTDv configured in routed mode and IPv6 configured

Question 95

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the function of the Python script code snippet for the Cisco ASA REST API?

Options:

A.

adds a global rule into policies

B.

changes the hostname of the Cisco ASA

C.

deletes a global rule from policies

D.

obtains the saved configuration of the Cisco ASA firewall

Question 96

What is the term for when an endpoint is associated to a provisioning WLAN that is shared with guest

access, and the same guest portal is used as the BYOD portal?

Options:

A.

single-SSID BYOD

B.

multichannel GUI

C.

dual-SSID BYOD

D.

streamlined access

Question 97

What are the two most commonly used authentication factors in multifactor authentication? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

biometric factor

B.

time factor

C.

confidentiality factor

D.

knowledge factor

E.

encryption factor

Question 98

Which functions of an SDN architecture require southbound APIs to enable communication?

Options:

A.

SDN controller and the network elements

B.

management console and the SDN controller

C.

management console and the cloud

D.

SDN controller and the cloud

Question 99

An administrator needs to configure the Cisco ASA via ASDM such that the network management system

can actively monitor the host using SNMPv3. Which two tasks must be performed for this configuration?

(Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Specify the SNMP manager and UDP port.

B.

Specify an SNMP user group

C.

Specify a community string.

D.

Add an SNMP USM entry

E.

Add an SNMP host access entry

Question 100

How does Cisco AMP for Endpoints provide next-generation protection?

Options:

A.

It encrypts data on user endpoints to protect against ransomware.

B.

It leverages an endpoint protection platform and endpoint detection and response.

C.

It utilizes Cisco pxGrid, which allows Cisco AMP to pull threat feeds from threat intelligence centers.

D.

It integrates with Cisco FTD devices.

Question 101

Drag and drop the deployment models from the left onto the explanations on the right.

Options:

Question 102

What is a difference between GETVPN and IPsec?

Options:

A.

GETVPN reduces latency and provides encryption over MPLS without the use of a central hub

B.

GETVPN provides key management and security association management

C.

GETVPN is based on IKEv2 and does not support IKEv1

D.

GETVPN is used to build a VPN network with multiple sites without having to statically configure all devices

Question 103

An administrator is establishing a new site-to-site VPN connection on a Cisco IOS router. The organization

needs to ensure that the ISAKMP key on the hub is used only for terminating traffic from the IP address of

172.19.20.24. Which command on the hub will allow the administrator to accomplish this?

Options:

A.

crypto ca identity 172.19.20.24

B.

crypto isakmp key Cisco0123456789 172.19.20.24

C.

crypto enrollment peer address 172.19.20.24

D.

crypto isakmp identity address 172.19.20.24

Question 104

Which system performs compliance checks and remote wiping?

Options:

A.

MDM

B.

ISE

C.

AMP

D.

OTP

Question 105

Which PKI enrollment method allows the user to separate authentication and enrollment actions and also

provides an option to specify HTTP/TFTP commands to perform file retrieval from the server?

Options:

A.

url

B.

terminal

C.

profile

D.

selfsigned

Question 106

Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator is adding a new Cisco FTD device to their network and wants to manage it with Cisco FMC.

The Cisco FTD is not behind a NAT device. Which command is needed to enable this on the Cisco FTD?

Options:

A.

configure manager add DONTRESOLVE kregistration key>

B.

configure manager add 16

C.

configure manager add DONTRESOLVE FTD123

D.

configure manager add

Question 107

Which two Cisco ISE components must be configured for BYOD? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

local WebAuth

B.

central WebAuth

C.

null WebAuth

D.

guest

E.

dual

Question 108

Which type of protection encrypts RSA keys when they are exported and imported?

Options:

A.

file

B.

passphrase

C.

NGE

D.

nonexportable

Question 109

A Cisco ISE engineer configures Central Web Authentication (CWA) for wireless guest access and must have the guest endpoints redirect to the guest portal for authentication and authorization. While testing the policy, the engineer notices that the device is not redirected and instead gets full guest access. What must be done for the redirect to work?

Options:

A.

Tag the guest portal in the CWA part of the Common Tasks section of the authorization profile for the authorization policy line that the unauthenticated devices hit.

B.

Use the track movement option within the authorization profile for the authorization policy line that the unauthenticated devices hit.

C.

Create an advanced attribute setting of Cisco:cisco-gateway-id=guest within the authorization profile for the authorization policy line that the unauthenticated devices hit.

D.

Add the DACL name for the Airespace ACL configured on the WLC in the Common Tasks section of the authorization profile for the authorization policy line that the unauthenticated devices hit.

Question 110

On Cisco Firepower Management Center, which policy is used to collect health modules alerts from managed

devices?

Options:

A.

health policy

B.

system policy

C.

correlation policy

D.

access control policy

E.

health awareness policy

Question 111

Which two activities are performed using Cisco Catalyst Center? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

DHCP

B.

Design

C.

Provision

D.

DNS

E.

Accounting

Question 112

What are two rootkit types? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

registry

B.

virtual

C.

bootloader

D.

user mode

E.

buffer mode

Question 113

What is a functional difference between a Cisco ASA and a Cisco IOS router with Zone-based policy firewall?

Options:

A.

The Cisco ASA denies all traffic by default whereas the Cisco IOS router with Zone-Based Policy Firewall starts out by allowing all traffic, even on untrusted interfaces

B.

The Cisco IOS router with Zone-Based Policy Firewall can be configured for high availability, whereas the Cisco ASA cannot

C.

The Cisco IOS router with Zone-Based Policy Firewall denies all traffic by default, whereas the Cisco ASA starts out by allowing all traffic until rules are added

D.

The Cisco ASA can be configured for high availability whereas the Cisco IOS router with Zone-Based Policy Firewall cannot

Question 114

Which role is a default guest type in Cisco ISE?

Options:

A.

Monthly

B.

Yearly

C.

Contractor

D.

Full-Time

Question 115

What is an advantage of using a next-generation firewall compared to a traditional firewall?

Options:

A.

Next-generation firewalls have stateless inspection capabilities, and traditional firewalls use stateful inspection.

B.

Next-generation firewalls use dynamic packet filtering, and traditional firewalls use static packet filtering.

C.

Next-generation firewalls have threat intelligence feeds, and traditional firewalls use signature detection.

D.

Next-generation firewalls use intrusion prevention policies, and traditional firewalls use intrusion detection policies.

Question 116

What Cisco command shows you the status of an 802.1X connection on interface gi0/1?

Options:

A.

show authorization status

B.

show authen sess int gi0/1

C.

show connection status gi0/1

D.

show ver gi0/1

Question 117

What is a feature of NetFlow Secure Event Logging?

Options:

A.

It exports only records that indicate significant events in a flow.

B.

It filters NSEL events based on the traffic and event type through RSVP.

C.

It delivers data records to NSEL collectors through NetFlow over TCP only.

D.

It supports v5 and v8 templates.

Question 118

Which technology must be used to implement secure VPN connectivity among company branches over a

private IP cloud with any-to-any scalable connectivity?

Options:

A.

DMVPN

B.

FlexVPN

C.

IPsec DVTI

D.

GET VPN

Question 119

II

An engineer musí set up 200 new laptops on a network and wants to prevent the users from moving their laptops around to simplify administration Which switch port MAC address security setting must be used?

Options:

A.

sticky

B.

static

C.

aging

D.

maximum

Question 120

With which components does a southbound API within a software-defined network architecture communicate?

Options:

A.

controllers within the network

B.

applications

C.

appliances

D.

devices such as routers and switches

Question 121

Which component of Cisco umbrella architecture increases reliability of the service?

Options:

A.

Anycast IP

B.

AMP Threat grid

C.

Cisco Talos

D.

BGP route reflector

Question 122

Which problem Is solved by deploying a multicontext firewall?

Options:

A.

overlapping IP addressing plan

B.

more secure policy

C.

resilient high availability design

D.

faster inspection

Question 123

A network administrator is configuring SNMPv3 on a new router. The users have already been created;

however, an additional configuration is needed to facilitate access to the SNMP views. What must the

administrator do to accomplish this?

Options:

A.

map SNMPv3 users to SNMP views

B.

set the password to be used for SNMPv3 authentication

C.

define the encryption algorithm to be used by SNMPv3

D.

specify the UDP port used by SNMP

Question 124

A network engineer must configure a Cisco ESA to prompt users to enter two forms of information before gaining access The Cisco ESA must also join a cluster machine using preshared keys What must be configured to meet these requirements?

Options:

A.

Enable two-factor authentication through a RADIUS server and then join the cluster by using the Cisco ESA CLI.

B.

Enable two-factor authentication through a RADIUS server and then join the cluster by using the Cisco ESA GUI

C.

Enable two-factor authentication through a TACACS+ server and then join the cluster by using the Cisco ESA GUI.

D.

Enable two-factor authentication through a TACACS+ server and then join the cluster by using the Cisco ESA CLI

Question 125

Which telemetry data captures variations seen within the flow, such as the packets TTL, IP/TCP flags, and payload length?

Options:

A.

interpacket variation

B.

software package variation

C.

flow insight variation

D.

process details variation

Question 126

How does Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud provide security for cloud environments?

Options:

A.

It delivers visibility and threat detection.

B.

It prevents exfiltration of sensitive data.

C.

It assigns Internet-based DNS protection for clients and servers.

D.

It facilitates secure connectivity between public and private networks.

Question 127

Which group within Cisco writes and publishes a weekly newsletter to help cybersecurity professionals remain

aware of the ongoing and most prevalent threats?

Options:

A.

PSIRT

B.

Talos

C.

CSIRT

D.

DEVNET

Question 128

An administrator configures a Cisco WSA to receive redirected traffic over ports 80 and 443. The organization requires that a network device with specific WSA integration capabilities be configured to send the traffic to the WSA to proxy the requests and increase visibility, while making this invisible to the users. What must be done on the Cisco WSA to support these requirements?

Options:

A.

Configure transparent traffic redirection using WCCP in the Cisco WSA and on the network device

B.

Configure active traffic redirection using WPAD in the Cisco WSA and on the network device

C.

Use the Layer 4 setting in the Cisco WSA to receive explicit forward requests from the network device

D.

Use PAC keys to allow only the required network devices to send the traffic to the Cisco WSA

Question 129

Which security solution protects users leveraging DNS-layer security?

Options:

A.

Cisco ISE

B.

Cisco FTD

C.

Cisco Umbrella

D.

Cisco ASA

Question 130

An organization is using Cisco Firepower and Cisco Meraki MX for network security and needs to centrally

manage cloud policies across these platforms. Which software should be used to accomplish this goal?

Options:

A.

Cisco Defense Orchestrator

B.

Cisco Secureworks

C.

Cisco DNA Center

D.

Cisco Configuration Professional

Question 131

Which algorithm provides encryption and authentication for data plane communication?

Options:

A.

AES-GCM

B.

SHA-96

C.

AES-256

D.

SHA-384

Question 132

Which two parameters are used for device compliance checks? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

endpoint protection software version

B.

Windows registry values

C.

DHCP snooping checks

D.

DNS integrity checks

E.

device operating system version

Question 133

Which term describes when the Cisco Secure Firewall downloads threat intelligence updates from Cisco Tables?

Options:

A.

analysis

B.

sharing

C.

authoring

D.

consumption

Question 134

What are two characteristics of Cisco DNA Center APIs? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Postman is required to utilize Cisco DNA Center API calls.

B.

They do not support Python scripts.

C.

They are Cisco proprietary.

D.

They quickly provision new devices.

E.

They view the overall health of the network

Question 135

Refer to the exhibit.

What does the API key do while working with https://api.amp.cisco.com/v1/computers?

Options:

A.

displays client ID

B.

HTTP authorization

C.

Imports requests

D.

HTTP authentication

Question 136

A company is experiencing exfiltration of credit card numbers that are not being stored on-premise. The

company needs to be able to protect sensitive data throughout the full environment. Which tool should be used

to accomplish this goal?

Options:

A.

Security Manager

B.

Cloudlock

C.

Web Security Appliance

D.

Cisco ISE

Question 137

What are two security benefits of an MDM deployment? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

robust security policy enforcement

B.

privacy control checks

C.

on-device content management

D.

distributed software upgrade

E.

distributed dashboard

Question 138

An engineer is configuring Cisco Secure Endpoint to enhance security by preventing the execution of certain files by users. The engineer needs to ensure that the specific executable file name Cisco_Software_0505446151.exe is blocked from running while never being quarantined. What must the engineer configure to meet the requirement?

Options:

A.

Create advanced custom detection list.

B.

Configure application control blocked applications list.

C.

Implement simple custom detection list.

D.

Enable scheduled scans to detect and block the executable files.

Question 139

An engineer must enable Outbreak Filters globally on an AsyncOS for Cisco Secure Email Gateway to protect the network from large-scale malware attacks. Drag and drop the steps from the left into the sequence on the right to complete the configuration.

Options:

Question 140

A company has 5000 Windows users on its campus. Which two precautions should IT take to prevent WannaCry ransomware from spreading to all clients? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Segment different departments to different IP blocks and enable Dynamic ARp inspection on all VLANs

B.

Ensure that noncompliant endpoints are segmented off to contain any potential damage.

C.

Ensure that a user cannot enter the network of another department.

D.

Perform a posture check to allow only network access to (hose Windows devices that are already patched.

E.

Put all company users in the trusted segment of NGFW and put all servers to the DMZ segment of the Cisco NGFW. ni

Question 141

Which compliance status is shown when a configured posture policy requirement is not met?

Options:

A.

compliant

B.

unknown

C.

authorized

D.

noncompliant

Question 142

An engineer is deploying a Cisco Secure Email Gateway and must ensure it reaches the Cisco update servers to retrieve new rules. The engineer must now manually configure the Outbreak Filter rules on an AsyncOS for Cisco Secure Email Gateway. Only outdated rules must be replaced. Up-to-date rules must be retained. Which action must the engineer take next to complete the configuration?

Options:

A.

Select Outbreak Filters

B.

Perform a backup/restore of the database

C.

Use the outbreakconfig command in CLI

D.

Click Update Rules Now

Question 143

An engineer is configuring Cisco WSA and needs to deploy it in transparent mode. Which configuration component must be used to accomplish this goal?

Options:

A.

MDA on the router

B.

PBR on Cisco WSA

C.

WCCP on switch

D.

DNS resolution on Cisco WSA

Question 144

Which CoA response code is sent if an authorization state is changed successfully on a Cisco IOS device?

Options:

A.

CoA-NCL

B.

CoA-NAK

C.

СоА-МАВ

D.

CoA-ACK

Question 145

What is an advantage of network telemetry over SNMP pulls?

Options:

A.

accuracy

B.

encapsulation

C.

security

D.

scalability

Question 146

When MAB is configured for use within the 802.1X environment, an administrator must create a policy that allows the devices onto the network. Which information is used for the username and password?

Options:

A.

The MAB uses the IP address as username and password.

B.

The MAB uses the call-station-ID as username and password.

C.

Each device must be set manually by the administrator.

D.

The MAB uses the MAC address as username and password.

Question 147

Which form of attack is launched using botnets?

Options:

A.

EIDDOS

B.

virus

C.

DDOS

D.

TCP flood

Question 148

Which Cisco product provides proactive endpoint protection and allows administrators to centrally manage the

deployment?

Options:

A.

NGFW

B.

AMP

C.

WSA

D.

ESA

Question 149

Which policy represents a shared set of features or parameters that define the aspects of a managed device that are likely to be similar to other managed devices in a deployment?

Options:

A.

Group Policy

B.

Access Control Policy

C.

Device Management Policy

D.

Platform Service Policy

Question 150

Which two protocols must be configured to authenticate end users to the Cisco WSA? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

TACACS+

B.

CHAP

C.

NTLMSSP

D.

RADIUS

E.

Kerberos

Question 151

Which benefit does DMVPN provide over GETVPN?

Options:

A.

DMVPN supports QoS, multicast, and routing, and GETVPN supports only QoS.

B.

DMVPN is a tunnel-less VPN, and GETVPN is tunnel-based.

C.

DMVPN supports non-IP protocols, and GETVPN supports only IP protocols.

D.

DMVPN can be used over the public Internet, and GETVPN requires a private network.

Question 152

Which technology is used to improve web traffic performance by proxy caching?

Options:

A.

WSA

B.

Firepower

C.

FireSIGHT

D.

ASA

Question 153

An organization has noticed an increase in malicious content downloads and wants to use Cisco Umbrella to prevent this activity for suspicious domains while allowing normal web traffic. Which action will accomplish this task?

Options:

A.

Set content settings to High

B.

Configure the intelligent proxy.

C.

Use destination block lists.

D.

Configure application block lists.

Question 154

Which posture assessment requirement provides options to the client for remediation and requires the

remediation within a certain timeframe?

Options:

A.

Audit

B.

Mandatory

C.

Optional

D.

Visibility

Question 155

Which type of dashboard does Cisco DNA Center provide for complete control of the network?

Options:

A.

service management

B.

centralized management

C.

application management

D.

distributed management

Question 156

Which Cisco platform onboards the endpoint and can issue a CA signed certificate while also automatically configuring endpoint network settings to use the signed endpoint certificate, allowing the endpoint to gain network access?

Options:

A.

Cisco ISE

B.

Cisco NAC

C.

Cisco TACACS+

D.

Cisco WSA

Question 157

Refer to the exhibit. What is the result of the Python script?

Options:

A.

It uses the POST HTTP method to obtain a username and password to be used for authentication.

B.

It uses the POST HTTP method to obtain a token to be used for authentication.

C.

It uses the GET HTTP method to obtain a token to be used for authentication.

D.

It uses the GET HTTP method to obtain a username and password to be used for authentication

Question 158

Drag and drop the VPN functions from the left onto the descriptions on the right.

Options:

Question 159

In which type of attack does the attacker insert their machine between two hosts that are communicating with each other?

Options:

A.

LDAP injection

B.

man-in-the-middle

C.

cross-site scripting

D.

insecure API

Question 160

What is a benefit of using a multifactor authentication strategy?

Options:

A.

It provides visibility into devices to establish device trust.

B.

It provides secure remote access for applications.

C.

It provides an easy, single sign-on experience against multiple applications

D.

lt protects data by enabling the use of a second validation of identity.

Question 161

Which two actions does the Cisco identity Services Engine posture module provide that ensures endpoint security?(Choose two.)

Options:

A.

The latest antivirus updates are applied before access is allowed.

B.

Assignments to endpoint groups are made dynamically, based on endpoint attributes.

C.

Patch management remediation is performed.

D.

A centralized management solution is deployed.

E.

Endpoint supplicant configuration is deployed.

Question 162

Which two configurations must be made on Cisco ISE and on Cisco TrustSec devices to force a session to be adjusted after a policy change is made? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

posture assessment

B.

aaa authorization exec default local

C.

tacacs-server host 10.1.1.250 key password

D.

aaa server radius dynamic-author

E.

CoA

Question 163

Which security solution uses NetFlow to provide visibility across the network, data center, branch

offices, and cloud?

Options:

A.

Cisco CTA

B.

Cisco Stealthwatch

C.

Cisco Encrypted Traffic Analytics

D.

Cisco Umbrella

Question 164

Which two activities can be done using Cisco DNA Center? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

DHCP

B.

Design

C.

Accounting

D.

DNS

E.

Provision

Question 165

Which two protocols must be configured to authenticate end users to the Web Security Appliance? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

NTLMSSP

B.

Kerberos

C.

CHAP

D.

TACACS+

E.

RADIUS

Question 166

Which open standard creates a framework for sharing threat intelligence in a machine-digestible format?

Options:

A.

OpenC2

B.

OpenlOC

C.

CybOX

D.

STIX

Question 167

A network engineer must migrate a Cisco WSA virtual appliance from one physical host to another physical host by using VMware vMotion. What is a requirement for both physical hosts?

Options:

A.

The hosts must run Cisco AsyncOS 10.0 or greater.

B.

The hosts must run different versions of Cisco AsyncOS.

C.

The hosts must have access to the same defined network.

D.

The hosts must use a different datastore than the virtual appliance.

Question 168

An engineer recently completed the system setup on a Cisco WSA Which URL information does the system send to SensorBase Network servers?

Options:

A.

Summarized server-name information and MD5-hashed path information

B.

complete URL,without obfuscating the path segments

C.

URL information collected from clients that connect to the Cisco WSA using Cisco AnyConnect

D.

none because SensorBase Network Participation is disabled by default

Question 169

Which two prevention techniques are used to mitigate SQL injection attacks? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Check integer, float, or Boolean string parameters to ensure accurate values.

B.

Use prepared statements and parameterized queries.

C.

Secure the connection between the web and the app tier.

D.

Write SQL code instead of using object-relational mapping libraries.

E.

Block SQL code execution in the web application database login.

Question 170

Which two methods are available in Cisco Secure Web Appliance to process client requests when configured in Transparent mode? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

WCCP

B.

Browser settings

C.

WPAD

D.

PAC files

E.

PBR

Question 171

Which public cloud provider supports the Cisco Next Generation Firewall Virtual?

Options:

A.

Google Cloud Platform

B.

Red Hat Enterprise Visualization

C.

VMware ESXi

D.

Amazon Web Services

Question 172

Which function is the primary function of Cisco AMP threat Grid?

Options:

A.

automated email encryption

B.

applying a real-time URI blacklist

C.

automated malware analysis

D.

monitoring network traffic

Question 173

A network administrator has configured TACACS on a network device using the key Cisc0467380030 tor authentication purposes. However, users are unable to authenticate. TACACS server is reachable, but authentication is tailing. Which configuration step must the administrator complete?

Options:

A.

Implement synchronized system clock on TACACS server that matches the network device.

B.

Install a compatible operating system version on the TACACS server.

C.

Configure the TACACS key on the server to match with the network device.

D.

Apply an access control list on TACACS server to allow communication with the network device.

Question 174

Which solution is more secure than the traditional use of a username and password and encompasses at least two of the methods of authentication?

Options:

A.

single-sign on

B.

RADIUS/LDAP authentication

C.

Kerberos security solution

D.

multifactor authentication

Question 175

Why would a user choose an on-premises ESA versus the CES solution?

Options:

A.

Sensitive data must remain onsite.

B.

Demand is unpredictable.

C.

The server team wants to outsource this service.

D.

ESA is deployed inline.

Question 176

Which threat intelligence standard contains malware hashes?

Options:

A.

advanced persistent threat

B.

open command and control

C.

structured threat information expression

D.

trusted automated exchange of indicator information

Question 177

Which capability is exclusive to a Cisco AMP public cloud instance as compared to a private cloud instance?

Options:

A.

RBAC

B.

ETHOS detection engine

C.

SPERO detection engine

D.

TETRA detection engine

Question 178

An organization wants to use Cisco FTD or Cisco ASA devices. Specific URLs must be blocked from being

accessed via the firewall which requires that the administrator input the bad URL categories that the

organization wants blocked into the access policy. Which solution should be used to meet this requirement?

Options:

A.

Cisco ASA because it enables URL filtering and blocks malicious URLs by default, whereas Cisco FTDdoes not

B.

Cisco ASA because it includes URL filtering in the access control policy capabilities, whereas Cisco FTD does not

C.

Cisco FTD because it includes URL filtering in the access control policy capabilities, whereas Cisco ASA does not

D.

Cisco FTD because it enables URL filtering and blocks malicious URLs by default, whereas Cisco ASA does not

Question 179

What are the components of endpoint protection against social engineering attacks?

Options:

A.

IPsec

B.

IDS

C.

Firewall

D.

Cisco Secure Email Gateway

Question 180

Email security has become a high-priority task for a security engineer at a large multi-national organization due to ongoing phishing campaigns. To help control this, the engineer has deployed an Incoming Content Filter with a URL reputation of (-10.00 to -6.00) on the Cisco Secure Email Gateway. Which action will the system perform to disable any links in messages that match the filter?

Options:

A.

FilterAction

B.

ScreenAction

C.

Quarantine

D.

Defang

Question 181

Which two aspects of the cloud PaaS model are managed by the customer but not the provider? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

virtualization

B.

middleware

C.

operating systems

D.

applications

E.

data

Question 182

Which Cisco ISE feature helps to detect missing patches and helps with remediation?

Options:

A.

posture assessment

B.

profiling policy

C.

authentication policy

D.

enabling probes

Question 183

Which encryption algorithm provides highly secure VPN communications?

Options:

A.

3DES

B.

AES 256

C.

AES 128

D.

DES

Question 184

Which statement about the configuration of Cisco ASA NetFlow v9 Secure Event Logging is true?

Options:

A.

To view bandwidth usage for NetFlow records, the QoS feature must be enabled.

B.

A sysopt command can be used to enable NSEL on a specific interface.

C.

NSEL can be used without a collector configured.

D.

A flow-export event type must be defined under a policy

Question 185

Refer to the exhibit.

What does the number 15 represent in this configuration?

Options:

A.

privilege level for an authorized user to this router

B.

access list that identifies the SNMP devices that can access the router

C.

interval in seconds between SNMPv3 authentication attempts

D.

number of possible failed attempts until the SNMPv3 user is locked out

Question 186

An organization is trying to implement micro-segmentation on the network and wants to be able to gain visibility on the applications within the network. The solution must be able to maintain and force compliance. Which product should be used to meet these requirements?

Options:

A.

Cisco Umbrella

B.

Cisco AMP

C.

Cisco Stealthwatch

D.

Cisco Tetration

Question 187

An engineer has enabled LDAP accept queries on a listener. Malicious actors must be prevented from quickly

identifying all valid recipients. What must be done on the Cisco ESA to accomplish this goal?

Options:

A.

Configure incoming content filters

B.

Use Bounce Verification

C.

Configure Directory Harvest Attack Prevention

D.

Bypass LDAP access queries in the recipient access table

Question 188

Which two capabilities of Integration APIs are utilized with Cisco DNA center? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Upgrade software on switches and routers

B.

Third party reporting

C.

Connect to ITSM platforms

D.

Create new SSIDs on a wireless LAN controller

E.

Automatically deploy new virtual routers

Question 189

Which two criteria must a certificate meet before the WSA uses it to decrypt application traffic? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

It must include the current date.

B.

It must reside in the trusted store of the WSA.

C.

It must reside in the trusted store of the endpoint.

D.

It must have been signed by an internal CA.

E.

it must contain a SAN.

Question 190

How does Cisco Workload Optimization portion of the network do EPP solutions solely performance issues?

Options:

A.

It deploys an AWS Lambda system

B.

It automates resource resizing

C.

It optimizes a flow path

D.

It sets up a workload forensic score

Question 191

Which IPS engine detects ARP spoofing?

Options:

A.

Atomic ARP Engine

B.

Service Generic Engine

C.

ARP Inspection Engine

D.

AIC Engine

Question 192

What are two functions of TAXII in threat intelligence sharing? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

determines the "what" of threat intelligence

B.

Supports STIX information

C.

allows users to describe threat motivations and abilities

D.

exchanges trusted anomaly intelligence information

E.

determines how threat intelligence information is relayed

Question 193

Which IETF attribute is supported for the RADIUS CoA feature?

Options:

A.

24 State

B.

30 Calling-Station-ID

C.

42 Acct-Session-ID

D.

81 Message-Authenticator

Question 194

Which Cisco ASA Platform mode disables the threat detection features except for Advanced Threat Statistics?

Options:

A.

cluster

B.

transparent

C.

routed

D.

multiple context

Question 195

A small organization needs to reduce the VPN bandwidth load on their headend Cisco ASA in order to

ensure that bandwidth is available for VPN users needing access to corporate resources on the10.0.0.0/24 local HQ network. How is this accomplished without adding additional devices to the

network?

Options:

A.

Use split tunneling to tunnel traffic for the 10.0.0.0/24 network only.

B.

Configure VPN load balancing to distribute traffic for the 10.0.0.0/24 network,

C.

Configure VPN load balancing to send non-corporate traffic straight to the internet.

D.

Use split tunneling to tunnel all traffic except for the 10.0.0.0/24 network.

Question 196

An organization must add new firewalls to its infrastructure and wants to use Cisco ASA or Cisco FTD.

The chosen firewalls must provide methods of blocking traffic that include offering the user the option to bypass the block for certain sites after displaying a warning page and to reset the connection. Which solution should the organization choose?

Options:

A.

Cisco FTD because it supports system rate level traffic blocking, whereas Cisco ASA does not

B.

Cisco ASA because it allows for interactive blocking and blocking with reset to be configured via the GUI, whereas Cisco FTD does not.

C.

Cisco FTD because it enables interactive blocking and blocking with reset natively, whereas Cisco ASA does not

D.

Cisco ASA because it has an additional module that can be installed to provide multiple blocking capabilities, whereas Cisco FTD does not.

Question 197

An engineer must modify a policy to block specific addresses using Cisco Umbrella. The policy is created already and is actively used by devices, using many of the default policy elements.

What else must be done to accomplish this task?

Options:

A.

Modify the application settings to allow only applications to connect to required addresses.

B.

Create a destination list for addresses to be allowed or blocked.

C.

Add the specified addresses to the identities list and create a block action.

D.

Use content categories to block or allow specific addresses.

Question 198

What is the function of Cisco Cloudlock for data security?

Options:

A.

data loss prevention

B.

controls malicious cloud apps

C.

detects anomalies

D.

user and entity behavior analytics

Question 199

What is a benefit of using Cisco FMC over Cisco ASDM?

Options:

A.

Cisco FMC uses Java while Cisco ASDM uses HTML5.

B.

Cisco FMC provides centralized management while Cisco ASDM does not.

C.

Cisco FMC supports pushing configurations to devices while Cisco ASDM does not.

D.

Cisco FMC supports all firewall products whereas Cisco ASDM only supports Cisco ASA devices

Question 200

Which license is required for Cisco Security Intelligence to work on the Cisco Next Generation Intrusion

Prevention System?

Options:

A.

control

B.

malware

C.

URL filtering

D.

protect

Question 201

Which characteristic is unique to a Cisco WSAv as compared to a physical appliance?

Options:

A.

supports VMware vMotion on VMware ESXi

B.

requires an additional license

C.

performs transparent redirection

D.

supports SSL decryption

Question 202

Which Cisco network security device supports contextual awareness?

Options:

A.

Firepower

B.

CISCO ASA

C.

Cisco IOS

D.

ISE

Question 203

A network engineer is deciding whether to use stateful or stateless failover when configuring two Cisco ASAs for high availability. What is the connection status in both cases?

Options:

A.

Need to be reestablished with both stateful and stateless failover

B.

Need to be reestablished with stateful failover and preserved with stateless failover

C.

Preserved with both stateful and stateless failover

D.

Preserved with stateful failover and need to be reestablished with stateless failover

Question 204

An engineer is configuring Dropbox integration with Cisco Cloudlock. Which action must be taken before granting API access in the Dropbox admin console?

Options:

A.

Authorize Dropbox within the Platform settings in the Cisco Cloudlock portal.

B.

Add Dropbox to the Cisco Cloudlock Authentication and API section in the Cisco Cloudlock portal.

C.

Send an API request to Cisco Cloudlock from Dropbox admin portal.

D.

Add Cisco Cloudlock to the Dropbox admin portal.

Question 205

Which two features are used to configure Cisco ESA with a multilayer approach to fight viruses and malware?

(Choose two)

Options:

A.

Sophos engine

B.

white list

C.

RAT

D.

outbreak filters

E.

DLP

Question 206

The Cisco ASA must support TLS proxy for encrypted Cisco Unified Communications traffic. Where must the

ASA be added on the Cisco UC Manager platform?

Options:

A.

Certificate Trust List

B.

Endpoint Trust List

C.

Enterprise Proxy Service

D.

Secured Collaboration Proxy

Question 207

An engineer needs to configure a Cisco Secure Email Gateway (SEG) to prompt users to enter multiple forms of identification before gaining access to the SEG. The SEG must also join a cluster using the preshared key of cisc421555367. What steps must be taken to support this?

Options:

A.

Enable two-factor authentication through a RADIUS server, and then join the cluster via the SEG GUI.

B.

Enable two-factor authentication through a TACACS+ server, and then join the cluster via the SEG CLI.

C.

Enable two-factor authentication through a RADIUS server, and then join the cluster via the SEG CLI

D.

Enable two-factor authentication through a TACACS+ server, and then join the cluster via the SEG GUI.

Question 208

A network administrator needs a solution to match traffic and allow or deny the traffic based on the type of application, not just the source or destination address and port used. Which kind of security product must the network administrator implement to meet this requirement?

Options:

A.

Next-generation Intrusion Prevention System

B.

Next-generation Firewall

C.

Web Application Firewall

D.

Intrusion Detection System

Question 209

An engineer must implement a file transfer solution between a company's data center and branches. The company has numerous servers hosted in a hybrid cloud implementation. The file transfer protocol must support authentication, protect the data against unauthorized access, and ensure that users cannot list directories or remove files remotely. Which protocol must be used?

Options:

A.

SCP

B.

SSH

C.

FTPS

D.

SFTP

Question 210

A network engineer must monitor user and device behavior within the on-premises network. This data must be sent to the Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud analytics platform for analysis. What must be done to meet this

requirement using the Ubuntu-based VM appliance deployed in a VMware-based hypervisor?

Options:

A.

Configure a Cisco FMC to send syslogs to Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud

B.

Deploy the Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud PNM sensor that sends data to Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud

C.

Deploy a Cisco FTD sensor to send network events to Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud

D.

Configure a Cisco FMC to send NetFlow to Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud

Question 211

What is a benefit of an endpoint patch management strategy?

Options:

A.

Patches are deployed without a testing phase.

B.

Fewer staff is needed to manage the endpoints.

C.

Endpoints are resistant to vulnerabilities.

D.

Ensures adherence to regulatory and compliance standards.

Question 212

Which threat intelligence standard contains malware hashes?

Options:

A.

structured threat information expression

B.

advanced persistent threat

C.

trusted automated exchange or indicator information

D.

open command and control

Question 213

Which two solutions help combat social engineering and phishing at the endpoint level? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Cisco Umbrella

B.

Cisco ISE

C.

Cisco DNA Center

D.

Cisco TrustSec

E.

Cisco Duo Security

Question 214

Which system facilitates deploying microsegmentation and multi-tenancy services with a policy-based container?

Options:

A.

SDLC

B.

Docker

C.

Lambda

D.

Contiv

Question 215

Which network monitoring solution uses streams and pushes operational data to provide a near real-time view

of activity?

Options:

A.

SNMP

B.

SMTP

C.

syslog

D.

model-driven telemetry

Question 216

Which feature is leveraged by advanced antimalware capabilities to be an effective endpomt protection platform?

Options:

A.

big data

B.

storm centers

C.

sandboxing

D.

blocklisting

Question 217

An engineer must force an endpoint to re-authenticate an already authenticated session without disrupting the

endpoint to apply a new or updated policy from ISE. Which CoA type achieves this goal?

Options:

A.

Port Bounce

B.

CoA Terminate

C.

CoA Reauth

D.

CoA Session Query

Demo: 217 questions
Total 726 questions