Isaca CISA Certified Information Systems Auditor Exam Practice Test

The best way to foster continuous improvement of IS audit processes and practices is to establish and embed quality assurance (QA) within the IS audit function, as this will ensure that the IS audit activities are aligned with the standards, expectations, and objectives of the organization and the stakeholders12. QA involves periodic internal and external assessments, benchmarking, feedback, and root cause analysis to identify and address gaps, issues, and opportunities for improvement34.

References

1: The Basics and Principles of Continuous Improvement4 2: ISO 9001 Auditing Practices Group Guidance on5 3: INSIGHTS TO QUALITY3 4: Continuous Auditing: Coordinating Continuous Auditing and Monitoring to Provide Continuous Assurance2

A single point of failure is a component or system that, if it fails, will cause the entire system to stop functioning. In virtual environments, the hypervisor is the software layer that enables multiple virtual machines to run on a single physical host. If the hypervisor is compromised, corrupted, or unavailable, all the virtual machines running on that host will be affected. This can result in data loss, downtime, or security breaches.

References

ISACA CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 254

Virtualization: What are the security risks?

What Is a Hypervisor? (Definition, Types, Risks)

The most important consideration when planning the next audit after many findings is to follow up on the status of all recommendations, as this will ensure that the audit findings are addressed in a timely and effective manner, and that the root causes of the issues are resolved12. Following up on the status of all recommendations will also help to assess the progress and performance of the IT department, and to identify any new or emerging risks or challenges34.

References

1: What to consider when resolving internal audit findings3 2: A brief guide to follow up4 3: Guidance on auditing planning for Internal Audit2 4: Corrective Action Plan (CAP): How to Manage Audit Findings1

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

Theprimary concernwhen auditing an AI-powered chatbot is ensuring thesafeguarding of personal datato comply with privacy regulations such asGDPR, CCPA, and ISO 27701. AI chatbots process customer inquiries, often handling sensitive personal data.

Safeguarding of Personal Data (Correct Answer – A)

Ensures compliance with data protection laws.

Reduces the risk of unauthorized access or data leakage.

Example:An AI chatbot collecting customer financial information must follow encryption and access control policies.

Compliance with Industry Standards (Incorrect – B)

Important, but protecting customer data takes priority over general compliance.

Speed and Accuracy of Chatbot Responses (Incorrect – C)

A performance metric, but not a primary audit focus.

AI’s Ability to Handle Multiple Queries (Incorrect – D)

Efficiency metric, but does not address security risks.

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

Thoroughsystem testingbefore deployment helps identify potentialbugs, vulnerabilities, and performance issuesto prevent system failures.

System Testing (Correct Answer – B)

Detects defects that could lead to system crashes.

Ensures compatibility and performance stability.

Example:Stress testing an e-commerce application to prevent crashes on Black Friday.

System Recovery Plan (Incorrect – A)

Focuses on recovery after failure rather than prevention.

Business Continuity Plan (Incorrect – C)

Addresses overall business resilience, not application stability.

Transaction Monitoring (Incorrect – D)

Detects fraud and anomalies but does not prevent failures.

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

To efficiently detectduplicate payments,data analyticsand automated checks are required due to thehigh volume of transactions.

Option A (Correct):Computer-Assisted Audit Techniques (CAATs)allow auditors toautomatically scan large datasetsfor duplicate payments based oninvoice numbers, vendor names, and payment amounts.

Option B (Incorrect):Stratified samplinggroups data into categories, which helps in analysis but doesnot directly detect duplicates.

Option C (Incorrect):Statistical samplingis useful forextrapolating results, but it doesnot systematically findduplicate transactions.

Option D (Incorrect):Process walk-throughsreview procedures but donot analyze transactions at scale.

A continuous integration/continuous development (CI/CD) process helps to reduce software failure risk by enabling smaller incremental changes to the software code, rather than large and infrequent updates12. Smaller incremental changes allow developers to detect and fix errors, bugs, or vulnerabilities more quickly and easily, and to ensure that the software is always in a working state34. Smaller incremental changes also reduce the complexity and uncertainty of the software development process, and improve the quality and reliability of the software product5.

References

1: What is CI/CD? Continuous integration and continuous delivery explained1 2: 5 CI/CD challenges—and how to solve them | TechBeacon4 3: Continuous Integration vs Continuous Delivery vs Continuous Deployment2 4: 7 CI/CD Challenges & their Must-Know Solutions | BrowserStack3 5: 5 common pitfalls of CI/CD—and how to avoid them | InfoWorld5

Internal firewalls are highly effective for isolating Internet of Things (IoT) devices from corporate network traffic. By segmenting the network and restricting communication between devices and the main corporate infrastructure, internal firewalls help mitigate the risk of lateral movement and data breaches caused by compromised IoT devices.

Blockchain Technology (Option B):This is useful for ensuring data integrity but not for network isolation.

Content Filtering Proxy (Option C):This is designed to manage web traffic and does not provide network segmentation.

Zero Trust Architecture (Option D):While Zero Trust provides robust access controls, internal firewalls are more directly suited for traffic isolation.

Operational log management primarily enhances security by enabling real-time monitoring and detection of anomalies within network data. Logs provide valuable information for identifying threats, investigating incidents, and ensuring compliance with security policies.

Predictive Analysis for User Experience (Option A):While logs may support analytics, this is not the primary benefit.

Performance Issue Identification (Option C):Logs can help identify performance issues, but the focus of operational log management is security.

Data Aggregation Using Unified Storage (Option D):This supports management but is secondary to the security benefits.

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

Thedata owneris the individual or entity responsible for classifying, protecting, and defining access permissions to data. They ensure that only authorized personnel can access, modify, or distribute data based on business needs and regulatory requirements.

Data Owner (Correct Answer – B)

The data owner is responsible forsetting user permissionsbased on job roles and business requirements.

According toISACA’s CISA Review Manual and COBIT 2019, the data owner determines access levels while IT personnel enforce them.

Example:A finance department head (data owner) determines that only certain accountants should access sensitive payroll data.

IT Operations Manager (Incorrect – A)

Oversees IT infrastructure but does not define data access controls.

Database Administrator (DBA) (Incorrect – C)

Implements and enforces security settings but follows rules set by the data owner.

Information Security Manager (Incorrect – D)

Provides security guidance but does not decide specific access permissions.

Regression testing is crucial to ensure that new changes do not negatively impact existing functionalities. The IS auditor should recommend that regression testing be conducted to confirm that the system operates correctly after changes are made.

References

ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition, Page 256-257 (Testing Strategies)

The programmer having access to the production programs is the most likely control weakness that would have contributed to the unauthorized changes to the payroll system report. This is because the programmer could modify the production code without proper authorization, documentation, or testing, and bypass the change management process. This could result in errors, fraud, or data integrity issues in the payroll system. The programmer should only have access to the development or test environment, and the production programs should be under the control of a librarian or a change manager.

References

ISACA CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 254

4 Types of Internal Control Weaknesses

ACCT 4631 - Internal Auditing: CIA Quiz Topic 6 Flashcards

Unauthorized modifications to scripts (D) pose the greatest risk because they can lead to unintended processing errors, security vulnerabilities, or fraudulent activities. Change management controls should be in place to prevent unauthorized script changes.

Other options:

Minor overrides not authorized (A) is a concern but does not pose as much risk as unauthorized script changes.

Bots incapable of learning (B) is a limitation but not a security risk.

Recording user interactions (C) raises privacy concerns but is not as critical as unauthorized script modifications.

Maximum Tolerable Outage (MTO) (A) defines the longest time an organization can tolerate an IT service being unavailable before significant business impact occurs. It determines business continuity planning and disaster recovery strategies.

Other options:

RPO (B) defines acceptable data loss but does not determine the total outage limit.

SDO (C) is related to service agreements but does not set the risk threshold.

AIW (D) is similar to MTO but is not as commonly used in disaster recovery planning.

Threat modeling is an approach that enables IS auditors to identify, analyze, and mitigate potential security vulnerabilities within an application by understanding the threats, attacks, vulnerabilities, and countermeasures. This proactive technique helps in designing secure applications.

References

ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition, Page 276-277 (Threat Modeling)

A certificate authority (CA) is critical in a public key cryptographic system for mitigating man-in-the-middle (MITM) attacks. It ensures that public keys are authentic by issuing digital certificates, which bind a public key to an entity. The CA’s role in verifying identities and providing trust anchors prevents attackers from spoofing keys.

Strong Encryption Algorithms (Option A):Encryption ensures confidentiality but does not address spoofing risks.

Kerberos Authentication (Option B):Useful for mutual authentication but not central to public key infrastructure (PKI).

Registration Authority (Option C):Supports the CA but does not directly prevent MITM attacks.

This directly addresses the gap for new hires, creates a consistent expectation regardless of hiring date, and formalizes the process within organizational policy.

References

ISACA CISA Review Manual (Current Edition) - Chapters on Information Security Policies, Training and Awareness

Industry Best Practices for Security Awareness - Emphasize the importance of timely and comprehensive training for new employees.

The most important consideration when developing tabletop exercises within a cybersecurity incident response plan is to identify the scope and scenarios that are relevant to current threats faced by the organization, as this will ensure that the exercises are realistic, meaningful, and effective in testing and improving the incident response capabilities12. The scope and scenarios should reflect the organization’s risk profile, business objectives, and operational environment, and should cover a variety of potential incidents that could impact the organization’s assets, operations, and reputation34.

References

1: Cybersecurity Incident Response Exercise Guidance - ISACA 2: Cybersecurity Tabletop Exercises: Everything You Ever Wanted to Know 3: CISA Tabletop Exercise Package 4: Boost Your Incident Response Plan with Tabletop Exercises

A Disaster Recovery as a Service (DRaaS) provider is responsible for system recovery procedures, including restoring systems and services in a disaster scenario. This is the core functionality of DRaaS.

Stakeholder Communications (Option B):This is typically managed internally by the organization to ensure alignment with its crisis management plan.

Validation of Recovered Data (Option C):The organization must verify data integrity to meet business requirements.

Maintaining Currency of Data (Option D):While DRaaS may handle data backups, the organization retains responsibility for ensuring the relevance of the data being backed up.

The best way to enable the organization to work toward improvement in its security threat and vulnerability management program is to use a capability maturity model to identify a path to an optimized program. A capability maturity model is a framework that helps organizations assess their current level of performance and maturity in a specific domain, and provides guidance and best practices to achieve higher levels of excellence12. A capability maturity model for vulnerability management can help the organization to evaluate its current practices, identify gaps and weaknesses, and implement improvement actions based on the defined criteria and objectives34.

References

1: What is a Capability Maturity Model?1 2: Capability Maturity Model - Wikipedia2 3: Vulnerability Management Maturity Model - SANS Institute4 4: 5 Stages Of Vulnerability Management Maturity Model - SecPod Blog3

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

To ensure that theBCP aligns with business strategy, aBusiness Impact Analysis (BIA)is the most valuable resource.

Option A (Incorrect):DRP testing resultsshow how wellsystems recover, but they do notestablish strategic alignmentwith business priorities.

Option B (Correct):ABIA identifies critical processes, financial impact, and business priorities, ensuring that theBCP is alignedwith strategic goals.

Option C (Incorrect):Thecorporate risk management policyis broader and does not focus onbusiness continuity priorities.

Option D (Incorrect):KPIs measure performance, but they do notdefine business continuity needs.

An organization's IT risk appetite should be primarily driven by its strategic objectives. The risk appetite defines the amount and type of risk the organization is willing to pursue or retain to achieve its goals. Aligning risk appetite with strategic objectives ensures that risk-taking is consistent with the organization's mission and vision. While ROI, cost of controls, and the likelihood of risk events are important considerations in risk management, they are factors evaluated within the context of the overarching strategic objectives.

The best way to mitigate risk to an organization’s network associated with devices permitted under a BYOD policy is to implement a network access control system, as this will allow the organization to monitor, authenticate, and authorize the devices that connect to the network, and to enforce security policies and compliance requirements12. A network access control system can help to prevent unauthorized or compromised devices from accessing sensitive data or resources, and to detect and isolate any potential threats or vulnerabilities34.

References

1: Network Access Control (NAC) - ISACA 2: Network Access Control (NAC) - Cisco 3: BYOD Security Risks: 6 Ways to Protect Your Organization - ReliaQuest5 4: How to Mitigate BYOD Risks and Challenges - CIOReview6

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

Monitoringcapacity utilizationsupportsavailabilityby ensuring thatresources remain functional and do not exceed operational limits.

Option A (Incorrect):Integrityensures that data isaccurate and unaltered, but monitoring capacity thresholds primarily relates tosystem availability.

Option B (Correct):Availabilityensures that systems remainaccessible and functional, and monitoring capacity utilization helpsprevent downtimeandservice disruptions.

Option C (Incorrect):Confidentialityensures that data isprotected from unauthorized access, which is unrelated to capacity monitoring.

Option D (Incorrect):Nonrepudiationensures that actions can betraced to specific individuals, but it does not relate tocapacity monitoring.

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

DLP (Data Loss Prevention) toolsare designed toprevent unauthorized access, transfer, or leakage of sensitive data, especially byinsider threatsorunauthorized downloads.

Preventing Unauthorized Downloads (Correct Answer – C)

DLP solutionsblock or log attemptsto transfer sensitive files.

Example:A DLP tool detects andblocks an employee from copying confidential data to a USB drive.

Preventing Malware Installation (Incorrect – A, B)

Antivirus and endpoint protection tools, not DLP, handle malware threats.

Preventing Corrupt Data Transmission (Incorrect – D)

DLP focuses ondata protection, not detecting corrupt files.

Materiality is the primary consideration when determining which issues to include in an audit report, as it reflects the significance or importance of the issues to the users of the report. Materiality is a relative concept that depends on the nature, context, and amount of the issues, as well as the expectations and needs of the users. Materiality helps the auditor to prioritize the issues and communicate them clearly and concisely.

References

ISACA CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 256

Materiality in Auditing - AICPA

Materiality in Planning and Performing an Audit - IAASB

Data analytics is the process of analyzing large and complex data sets to discover patterns, trends, and insights that can support decision making and problem solving. Data analytics can enable an IS auditor to combine and compare access control lists from various applications and devices by using techniques such as data extraction, transformation, loading, cleansing, integration, aggregation, visualization, and reporting. Data analytics can help an IS auditor to identify and assess the risks and controls related to access management, such as unauthorized or excessive access, segregation of duties violations, access policy compliance, access activity monitoring, and access review and remediation.

The other options are not as effective or relevant as data analytics for combining and comparing access control lists from various applications and devices. Integrated test facility (ITF) is a technique for testing the validity and accuracy of application processing by inserting fictitious transactions into the system and verifying the results. ITF does not directly involve the analysis of access control lists. Snapshots are records of selected information at a specific point in time that can be used to monitor system activity or performance. Snapshots can provide some information about access control lists, but they are not sufficient to combine and compare them across different sources. Audit hooks are software routines embedded in an application that can trigger an alert or a report when certain conditions are met. Audit hooks can help to detect anomalies or exceptions in access control lists, but they do not provide a comprehensive or integrated view of them.

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

When outsourcingIS functions,independent audit provisionsensure thatcontractors meet security, compliance, and operational standards.

Option A (Incorrect):Security procedures should be included but are subject tochangeandmay not be detailedin the contract.

Option B (Correct):Independent audit rightsallow the organization toverifythat the vendor complies with security, operational, and regulatory requirements.

Option C (Incorrect):Naming specific staff isimpracticaland not acore contractual requirement.

Option D (Incorrect):Data transfer protocols are important, but they are atechnical detailrather than aprimary contract requirement.

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

Risk acceptancemeanschoosing not to take immediate actionto mitigate the risk, making it thelowest-costapproach in the short term.

Risk Acceptance (Correct Answer – B)

The organizationacknowledges the riskand decides toaccept itwithout implementing additional controls.

Example:A small companyaccepts the riskof not segregating financial duties due to limited staff.

Risk Mitigation (Incorrect – A)

Requiresimplementing controls, whichincur costs.

Risk Transference (Incorrect – C)

Involvesoutsourcing risk(e.g., buying insurance), which hasfinancial costs.

Risk Reduction (Incorrect – D)

Involvesapplying security controls, leading to additional costs.

The primary responsibility of a project steering committee is to provide regular project updates and oversight. A project steering committee is an advisory group that consists of senior stakeholders and experts who offer guidance and support to a project manager and their team. The steering committee is mainly concerned with the direction, scope, budget, timeline, and methods used to realize a given project1.

One of the key roles of a steering committee is to monitor the progress and performance of the project and ensure that it aligns with the business objectives and stakeholder expectations. The steering committee also provides feedback, advice, and recommendations to the project manager and helps them resolve any issues or challenges that may arise during the project lifecycle. The steering committee communicates regularly with the project manager and other stakeholders through meetings, reports, and presentations23.

Therefore, providing regular project updates and oversight is the primary responsibility of a project steering committee.

The correct answer is C. Software escrow agreement. A software escrow agreement is a legal arrangement between three parties: the software developer (licensor), the end-user (licensee), and an escrow agent. The agreement ensures that the software’s source code and other relevant assets are securely stored with the escrow agent, and can be released to the licensee under certain conditions, such as the licensor’s bankruptcy, insolvency, or failure to provide support or maintenance1. A software escrow agreement can provide the licensee with assurance and continuity for the software they depend on, and protect them from losing access or functionality in case of any unforeseen events or disputes with the licensor1.

The most important thing to include in security awareness training is how to respond to various types of suspicious activity. Security awareness training is a program that educates employees about the importance of security and how to avoid common threats and risks. One of the main objectives of security awareness training is to enable employees to recognize and report any signs of malicious or unauthorized activity, such as phishing emails, malware infections, data breaches, or social engineering attempts. By teaching employees how to respond to various types of suspicious activity, security awareness training can help to prevent or mitigate the impact of security incidents, protect the organization’s assets and reputation, and comply with legal and regulatory requirements.

The other options are not as important as option A. The importance of complex passwords is a useful topic, but not the most important thing to include in security awareness training. Complex passwords are passwords that are hard to guess or crack by using a combination of letters, numbers, symbols, and cases. Complex passwords can help to protect user accounts and data from unauthorized access, but they are not sufficient to prevent all types of security incidents. Moreover, complex passwords may be difficult to remember or manage by users, and may require additional measures such as password managers or multi-factor authentication. Descriptions of the organization’s security infrastructure is a technical topic, but not the most important thing to include in security awareness training. Security infrastructure is the set of hardware, software, policies, and procedures that provide the foundation for the organization’s security posture and capabilities. Security infrastructure may include firewalls, antivirus software, encryption tools, access control systems, backup systems, etc. Descriptions of the organization’s security infrastructure may be relevant for some employees who are involved in security operations or administration, but they may not be necessary or understandable for all employees who need security awareness training. Contact information for the organization’s security team is a practical detail, but not the most important thing to include in security awareness training. Security team is the group of people who are responsible for planning, implementing, monitoring, and improving the organization’s security strategy and activities. Contact information for the organization’s security team may be useful for employees who need to report or escalate a security issue or request a security service or support. However, contact information for the organization’s security team is not enough to ensure that employees know how to respond to various types of suspicious activity. References: Security Awareness Training | SANS Security Awareness, Security AwarenessTraining | KnowBe4, SecurityAwareness Training Course (ISC)² | Coursera

While all the options can help reduce the risk of data leakage, providing education and guidelines to employees on the use of social networking sites would be the most effective. This is because it directly addresses the issue at hand - the use of social networking sites for business purposes1. Education and guidelines can help employees understand the risks associated withsocial media use and teach them how to safely and responsibly use these platforms for business purposes1. This includes understanding privacy settings, recognizing phishing attempts, and knowing what information should not be shared on these platforms1.

The best way to provide assurance that a project is adhering to the project plan is to conduct compliance audits at major system milestones. A compliance audit is a systematic and independent examination of the project’s activities, documents, and deliverables to determine whether they conform to the project plan and its specifications, standards, and requirements1. A major system milestone is a significant point or event in the project’s life cycle that marks the completion of a phase, stage, or deliverable2.

By conducting compliance audits at major system milestones, the auditor can provide assurance that the project is adhering to the project plan by:

Verifying that the project’s scope, schedule, budget, quality, and risks are aligned with the project plan and its objectives1

Identifying any deviations, discrepancies, or non-compliances that may affect the project’s performance or outcome1

Recommending and monitoring corrective and preventive actions to address the identified issues and improve the project’s compliance1

Reporting and communicating the audit findings, conclusions, and recommendations to the relevant stakeholders1

The other options are not as effective as conducting compliance audits at major system milestones for providing assurance that the project is adhering to the project plan. Requiring design reviews at appropriate points in the life cycle is a useful technique for ensuring that the project’s design meets the user and business requirements and follows the design standards and best practices3. However, design reviews are not sufficient for providing assurance that the project is adhering to the project plan, as they do not cover other aspects of the project such as schedule, budget, quality, or risks. Having an IS auditor participate on the steering committee is a possible way for providing assurance that the project is adhering to the project plan, as the auditor can provide independent advice and oversight to the steering committee on quality management issues and remediation efforts4. However, this may not be feasible or appropriate for every project, as it may create a conflict of interest or compromise the auditor’s objectivity and independence. Having an IS auditor participate on the quality assurance (QA) team is another possible way for providing assurance that the project is adhering to the project plan, as the auditor can assist the QA team in implementing procedures to facilitate adoption of quality management best practices5. However, this may also not be feasible or appropriate for every project, as it may create a conflict of interest or compromise the auditor’s objectivity and independence. Therefore, option D is the correct answer.

Discovery sampling is a type of statistical sampling that’s used when the expected error rate in the population is very low1. This method is designed to discover at least one instance of an attribute or condition in a population1. It’s often used in auditing to uncover fraud or noncompliance with rules and regulations1.

The first thing that an IS auditor should evaluate when reviewing an organization’s response to new privacy legislation is the analysis of systems that contain privacy components. Privacy components are elements of a system that collect, process, store, or transmit personal information that is subject to privacy legislation. An analysis of systems that contain privacy components should identify what types of personal information are involved, where they are located, how they are used, who has access to them, and what risks or threats they face. An analysis of systems that contain privacy components is essential for determining the scope and impact of the new privacy legislation on the organization’s systems and processes.

The other options are not as important as option D. An implementation plan for restricting the collection of personal information is a possible action, but not the first thing to evaluate, when reviewing an organization’s response to new privacy legislation. An implementation plan for restricting the collection of personal information is a document that outlines how an organization will comply with the principle of data minimization, which states that personal information should be collected only for specific and legitimate purposes and only to the extent necessary for those purposes. An implementation plan for restricting the collection of personal information should be based on an analysis of systems that contain privacy components. Privacy legislation in other countries that may contain similar requirements is a possible source of reference, but not the first thing to evaluate, when reviewing an organization’s response to new privacy legislation. Privacy legislation in other countries that may contain similar requirements is a set of laws or regulations that governs the protection of personal information in other jurisdictions that may have comparable or compatible standards or expectations as the new privacy legislation. Privacy legislation in other countries that may contain similar requirements may provide guidance or best practices for complying with the new privacy legislation. However, privacy legislation in other countries that may contain similar requirements should not be used as a substitute foran analysis of systems that contain privacy components. An operational plan for achieving compliance with the legislation is a possible deliverable, but not the first thing to evaluate, when reviewing an organization’s response to new privacy legislation. An operational plan for achieving compliance with the legislation is a document that describes how an organization will implement and maintain the necessary policies, procedures, controls, and measures to comply with the new privacy legislation. An operational plan for achieving compliance with the legislation should be derived from an analysis of systems that contain privacy components. References: Privacy law - Wikipedia, Data Protection and Privacy Legislation Worldwide | UNCTAD, Data minimization - Wikipedia

According to the CISA - Certified Information Systems Auditor Study Guide1, the correct answer to your question is A. Encrypt the disk drive. This is because encryption is a logical security measure that can protect data even if the physical device is stolen or lost. Encryption makes thedata unreadable and inaccessible without the proper key or password. The other options are not as effective as encryption in this scenario. Two-factor authentication is a user authentication method that requires two pieces of evidence to verify the user’s identity, such as a password and a code sent to a phone. However, this does not prevent unauthorized access to the data if the laptop is already logged in or if the attacker can bypass the authentication. Enhancing physical security is a preventive measure that can reduce the risk of theft, but it does not guarantee that theft will not occur or that the data will be safe if it does. Requiring the use of cable locks is another preventive measure that can deter thieves, but it can also be easily cut or removed by a determined attacker.

The primary basis on which audit objectives are established is the consideration of risks12. This involves identifying and assessing the risks that could prevent the organization from achieving its objectives12. The audit objectives are then designed to address these risks and provide assurance that the organization’s controls are effective in managing them12. While audit risk, assessment of prior audits, and business strategy are important factors in the audit process, they are secondary to the fundamental requirement of considering risks12.

Outsourcing the audit to independent and qualified resources is the best course of action for the IS audit manager who was temporarily tasked with supervising a project manager assigned to the organization’s payroll application upgrade. This is because the IS audit manager has a potential conflict of interest and a threat to objectivity and independence, which are essential principles and standards for IS auditors.

According to the ISACA Code of Professional Ethics, IS auditors should maintain objectivity and independence in their professional judgment and avoid any situations that may impair or be presumed to impair their objectivity or independence1. Objectivity is the mental attitude of an IS auditor that allows them to perform their work honestly, impartially, and with integrity, while independence is the freedom from conditions that threaten the ability of an IS auditor to carry out their work in an unbiased manner2.

The IS audit manager who was involved in supervising the payroll application upgrade project may have a self-review threat, which is the risk that an IS auditor will not appropriately evaluate the results of a previous judgment made or service performed by them or their subordinates3. The IS audit manager may also have a familiarity threat, which is the risk that an IS auditor will be influenced by a close relationship with someone involved in the project or by their own personal interests4. These threats may compromise the IS audit manager’s objectivity and independence and affect the quality and credibility of the audit.

Therefore, the IS audit manager should disclose their involvement in the project to their senior management and the audit committee and decline to perform or manage the audit. The IS audit manager should also recommend outsourcing the audit to independent and qualified resources who have no connection or interest in the project and who have the necessary skills and experience to conduct a reliable and effective audit.

The other options are not the best course of action for the IS audit manager.

Transferring the assignment to a different audit manager despite lack of IT project management experience is not the best course of action because it may result in a low-quality audit that does not meet the expectations and standards of the stakeholders. IT project management experience is essential for auditing an IT project, as it requires knowledge of project management methodologies, tools, techniques, risks, and best practices. An audit manager who lacks IT project management experience may not be able to plan, execute, report, and follow up on the audit effectively and efficiently.

Managing the audit since there is no one else with the appropriate experience is not the best course of action because it violates the ethical principles and standards of objectivity and independence for IS auditors. Managing the audit would create a conflict of interest and a threat to objectivity and independence for the IS audit manager, as they would be reviewing their own work or that of their subordinate. Managing the audit would also undermine the credibility and reliability of the audit results and recommendations, as they may be biased or influenced by personal or professional relationships or interests.

Having a senior IS auditor manage the project with the IS audit manager performing final review is not the best course of action because it still involves the IS audit manager in the audit process, which poses a conflict of interest and a threat to objectivity and independence. Performing final review would require the IS audit manager to evaluate and approve the work done by the senior IS auditor, which may be affected by their previous involvement in or knowledge of the project. Performing final review would also expose theIS audit manager to undue pressure or influence from management or other stakeholders who may have expectations or preferences regarding the audit outcome.

A load balancer is a tool or application that distributes incoming network traffic among multiple servers in a server farm, so that no server is overwhelmed and the performance of the system is optimized1. A load balancer can help the agency to handle the large influx of traffic to a regional office by balancing the workload among the available servers and preventing service disruptions. A load balancer can also provide high availability and fault tolerance by rerouting traffic to online servers if a server becomes unavailable2.

A virtual firewall is a software-based firewall that protects a virtual network or environment from unauthorized access and malicious attacks. A virtualfirewall can enhance the security of the agency’s network, but it does not improve the performance of its servers.

A proxy server is an intermediary server that acts as a gateway between the client and the destination server, hiding the client’s IP address and providing caching and filtering functions. A proxy server can improve the security and privacy of the agency’s network, but it does not improve the performance of its servers.

A virtual private network (VPN) is a secure connection between two or more devices over a public network, such as the internet. A VPN can encrypt and protect the data transmitted over the network, but it does not improve the performance of the agency’s servers.

 A preventive control is a control that aims to deter or prevent undesirable events from occurring. A fingerprint-based access control system for the building is an example of a preventive control for physical access, as it restricts unauthorized persons from entering the premises. Keeping log entries for all visitors to the building, installing CCTV cameras for all ingress and egress points, and implementing a centralized logging server to record instances of staff logging into workstations are examples of detective controls, which are controls that aim to discover or detect undesirable events that have already occurred.

Data classification is the process of tagging data according to its type, sensitivity, and value to the organization. Data transformation is the process of changing the structure and format of data to make it usable for analysis and visualization. Both processes are important for data security and compliance, but they also pose some challenges.

One of the challenges is to ensure that the organization’s data classification policies are preserved during the process of data transformation. This means that the data should retain its original classification level and labels after it is transformed, and that the appropriate controls and protections are applied to the transformed data.

The best way to ensure this is to implement classification labels in metadata during data creation (D). Metadata is data that describes other data, such as its source, format, content, and context. By adding classification labels to metadata, the data can be easily identified and tracked throughout its lifecycle, including during data transformation. The labels can also help enforce the proper access rights and encryption standards for the data, regardless of its state or location.

Quality control reviews are the best way to demonstrate to senior management and the board that an audit function is compliant with standards and the code of ethics. Thesereviews assess the efficiency and effectiveness of the audit function, ensure compliance with audit standards and ethics, and identify areasfor improvement12. While audit staff interviews, control self-assessments (CSAs), and corrective action plans can provide valuable insights, they do not offer the same level of assurance as a comprehensive quality control review12.

The scanning will not degrade system performance. This is the most important consideration when establishing vulnerability scanning on critical IT infrastructure, because any degradation of system performance could affect the availability, reliability, and functionality of the IT services that depend on the infrastructure. Scanning during non-peak hours (A) could reduce the impact of scanning on system performance, but it does not guarantee that the scanning will not cause any degradation. Scanning followed by penetration testing (B) could provide more in-depth information about the vulnerabilities and their exploitability, but it does not address the potential impact of scanning on system performance. Scanning cost-effectiveness © is a relevant factor for choosing a scanning service or tool, but it is not as important as ensuring that the scanning will not compromise the system performance.

The best course of action for a security administrator who is called in the middle of the night by the on-call programmer who needs access to the live system is to give the programmer an emergency ID for temporary access and review the activity. This is because:

Requiring that a change request be completed and approved may delay the resolution of the problem and cause further damage or disruption to the system or business operations. A change request is a formal document that describes the proposed change, its rationale, impact, benefits, risks, costs, and approval process. A change request is usually required for planned or scheduled changes, not for emergency or urgent changes.

Giving the programmer read-only access to investigate the problem may not be sufficient or effective, as the programmer may need to perform actions or tests that require write or execute permissions. Read-only access means that the user can only view or copy data or files, but cannot modify or delete them.

Reviewing activity logs the following day and investigating any suspicious activity may not prevent or detect any unauthorized or malicious actions by the programmer in real time. Activity logs are records of events and actions that occur within a system or network. Activity logs can provide evidence and accountability for system activities, but they are not proactive or preventive controls.

Therefore, giving the programmer an emergency ID for temporary access and reviewing the activity is the best course of action, as it allows the programmer to access the live system and resolve the problem quickly, while also ensuring that the security administrator can monitor and verify the programmer’s activity and revoke the access when it is no longer needed. An emergency ID is a temporary account that grants a user elevated privileges or access to a system or resource for a specific purpose and duration. An emergency ID should be:

Created and authorized by a security administrator or manager

Assigned to a specific user and purpose

Limited in scope and time

Logged and audited

Revoked and deleted after use

Some of the best practices for emergency access to live systems are12:

Establish clear policies and procedures for requesting, approving, granting, monitoring, reviewing, and revoking emergency access

Define criteria and scenarios for emergency access, such as severity, impact, urgency, and risk

Implement controls to prevent unauthorized or unnecessary use of emergency access, such as multifactor authentication, approval workflows, alerts, notifications, and time restrictions

Implement controls to track and audit emergency access activities, such as logging, reporting, analysis, and investigation

Implement controls to ensure accountability and responsibility for emergency access users, such as attestation, justification, documentation, and feedback

An organization relies on an external vendor that uses a cloud-based Software as a Service (SaaS) model to back up its data. SaaS is a model in which the software is centrally hosted and accessed by the user via a web browser using the internet1. The vendor owns and maintains the software and the data, and the organization pays for the use of the service on a subscription or usage basis1. The greatest risk to the organization related to data backup and retrieval is that the vendor may be unable to restore critical data.

Data backup and retrieval are essential processes for ensuring the availability, integrity, and security of data in case of loss, corruption, or damage2. Data backup is the process of creating and storing copies of data in a separate location from the original data2. Data retrieval is the process of accessing and restoring the backed-up data when needed2. Critical data are data that are vital for the operation, continuity, and recovery of the organization3.

If the vendor is unable to restore critical data, the organization may face severe consequences, such as:

Business disruption: The organization may not be able to perform its core functions, deliver its products or services, or meet its customer or stakeholder expectations3.

Revenue loss: The organization may lose income, market share, or competitive advantage due to reduced sales, customer dissatisfaction, or reputation damage3.

Legal liability: The organization may face lawsuits, fines, or penalties for breaching contractual, regulatory, or statutory obligations related to data protection, privacy, or security3.

Recovery cost: The organization may incur additional expenses for repairing or replacing the lost or corrupted data, restoring the system functionality, or compensating the affected parties3.

The other options are not as great as the vendor’s inability to restore critical data. The organization may be locked into an unfavorable contract with the vendor, which may limit its flexibility, control, or choice over the service quality, cost, or duration4. However, this risk can be mitigated by negotiating better terms and conditions, reviewing the contract periodically, or switching to another vendor if possible4. The vendor may be unable to restore data by recovery time objective (RTO) requirements, which are the maximum acceptable time frames for restoring data after a disruption5. However, this risk can be reduced by setting realistic and achievable RTOs, monitoring the vendor’s performance, or implementing alternative recovery strategies if needed5. The organization may not be allowed to inspect the vendor’s data center, which may limit its visibility, transparency, or assurance over the service provider’s infrastructure, security, or compliance. However, this risk can be overcome by requesting third-party audits, certifications, or reports from the vendor that demonstrate their adherence to industry standards and best practices. Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

Data caching is the most likely cause of poor performance, data inconsistency and integrity issues in an IT application, because it involves storing frequently accessed data in a temporary memory location (cache) to reduce the latency and bandwidth consumption of retrieving data from the original source. However, data caching can also introduce problems such as stale data (when the cache is not updated with changes made to the original source), cache coherence (when multiple caches store copies of the same data and need to be synchronized), and cache corruption (when the cache is damaged or tampered with).

Database clustering is not a likely cause of poor performance, data inconsistency and integrity issues, because it involves distributing data across multiple servers or nodes to improve availability, scalability and load balancing of database operations. Database clustering can also enhance data consistency and integrity by using replication and synchronization mechanisms to ensure that all nodes have the same view of the data.

Reindexing of the database table is not a likely cause of poor performance, data inconsistency and integrity issues, because it involves rebuilding or reorganizing indexes on tables or views to improve query performance and reduce fragmentation of index pages. Reindexing can also improve data consistency and integrity by ensuring that indexes reflect the current state of the data in the tables or views.

Load balancing is not a likely cause of poor performance, data inconsistency and integrity issues, because it involves distributing workloads across multiple servers or resources to optimize resource utilization, throughput and response time of applications. Load balancing can also enhance data consistency and integrity by using algorithms and protocols to route requests to the most appropriate server or resource based on availability, capacity and performance.

When an IS auditor discovers a security weakness in the database configuration, the next course of action should be to identify existing mitigating controls. This involves assessing whether any controls are already in place to address the weakness and mitigate the risk. Understanding the current state of controls helps the auditor determine the severity of the issue and whether additional corrective actions are necessary1. References: 1(https://www.isaca.org/resources/insights-and-expertise/audit-programs-and-tools)

Capability maturity models (CMMs) are frameworks that help organizations assess and improve their processes in various domains, such as software development, project management, service delivery, and cybersecurity1. CMMs define different levels of process maturity, from initial to optimized, and describe the characteristics and best practices of each level. By using CMMs, organizations can benchmark their current processes against a common standard, identify gaps and weaknesses, and implement improvement actions to achieve higher levels of process maturity2. CMMs can also help organizations align their processes with their strategic goals, measure their performance, and increase their efficiency, quality, and customer satisfaction3.

Therefore, the use of CMMs would best enhance a process improvement program, as they provide a systematic and structured approach to evaluate and improve processes based on proven principles and practices. Option C is the correct answer.

Option A is not correct because model-based design notations are graphical or textual languages that help designers specify, visualize, and document the structure and behavior of systems4. While they can be useful for designing and communicating complex systems, they do not directly address the process improvement aspect of a program.

Option B is not correct because balanced scorecard is a strategic management tool that helps organizations translate their vision and mission into measurable objectives and indicators. While it can be useful for monitoring and evaluating the performance of a program, it does not provide specific guidance on how to improve processes.

Option D is not correct because project management methodologies are sets of principles and practices that help organizations plan, execute, and control projects. While they can be useful for managing the scope, schedule, cost, quality, and risk of a program, they do not focus on the process improvement aspect of a program.

 The greatest concern to an IS auditor reviewing an organization’s method to transport sensitive data between offices is that the method relies exclusively on the use of asymmetric encryption algorithms. Asymmetric encryption algorithms, also known as public key encryption, use two different keys for encryption and decryption: a public key that is shared with anyone who wants to communicate with the sender, and a private key that is kept secret by the sender. Asymmetric encryption algorithms are more secure than symmetric encryption algorithms, which use the same key for both encryption and decryption, but they are also slower and more computationally intensive. Therefore, relying exclusively on asymmetric encryption algorithms may not be efficient or practical for transporting large amounts of sensitive data between offices. A better method would be to use a combination of symmetric and asymmetric encryption algorithms, such as using asymmetric encryption to exchange a symmetric key and then using symmetric encryption to encrypt and decrypt the data.

The other options are not as concerning as option C. The method relying exclusively on the use of public key infrastructure (PKI) is not a concern, because PKI is a system that provides the services and mechanisms for creating, managing, distributing, using, storing, and revoking digital certificates that are based on asymmetric encryption algorithms. PKI enables secure and authenticated communication between parties who do not have a prior trust relationship. The method relying exclusively on the use of digital signatures is not a concern, because digital signatures are a way of verifying the authenticity and integrity of a message or document by using asymmetric encryption algorithms. Digital signatures ensure that the sender cannot deny sending the message or document, and that the receiver can detect any tampering or alteration of the message or document. The method relying exclusively on the use of 128-bit encryption is not a concern, because 128-bit encryption is a level of encryption that uses a 128-bit key to encrypt and decrypt data. 128-bit encryption is considered to be strong enough to resist brute-force attacks by modern computers. References: Asymmetric vs Symmetric Encryption: What are differences?, Public Key Infrastructure (PKI), Digital Signature, What is 128-bit Encryption?

 The best recommendation to address the situation of inconsistencies in privacy requirements across third-party service provider contracts is to prioritize contract amendments for third-party providers. This is because:

Privacy requirements are essential to ensure the protection of personal information and compliance with relevant laws and regulations, such as the GDPR and the CCPA123.

Inconsistencies in privacy requirements can create risks of data breaches, legal liabilities, reputational damage, and consumer distrust for the organization that outsources its data processing to third-party providers123.

Suspending contracts with third-party providers that handle sensitive data (option A) is not a feasible or effective solution, as it may disrupt the business operations and cause contractual penalties or disputes4.

Reviewing privacy requirements when contracts come up for renewal (option C) is not a proactive or timely approach, as it may leave the organization exposed to privacy risks for a long period of time until the contracts expire4.

Requiring third-party providers to sign nondisclosure agreements (NDAs) (option D) is not a sufficient measure, as NDAs only cover the confidentiality of information, but not other aspects of privacy, such as data minimization, retention, access, deletion, and security4.

Therefore, the best recommendation is to prioritize contract amendments for third-party providers (option B), as this would allow the organization to align the privacy requirements with its own policies and standards, as well as with the applicable laws and regulations. This would also enable the organization to monitor and audit the compliance of third-party providers with the privacy requirements and enforce appropriate remedies or sanctions in case of noncompliance45.

The primary reason for an organization to classify the data stored on its internal networks is to implement data protection requirements1234. Data classification helps organizations understand what data they have, its characteristics, and what security and privacy requirements it needs to meet so that the necessary protections can be achieved3. While determining data retention policy56, complying with the organization’s data policies27, and following industry best practices891011 are important aspects of data classification, they are secondary to the fundamental requirement of implementing data protection requirements.

In the event of a disaster where the data center is no longer available, the first step should be to activate the call tree1. A call tree is a layered hierarchical communication model used to notify specific individuals of an event and coordinate recovery efforts1. This ensures that all relevant parties are informed about the situation and can begin executing their parts of the disaster recovery plan1.

Substantive testing © provides the best evidence of the validity and integrity of logs in an organization’s security information and event management (SIEM) system, because it is a type of audit testing that directly examines the accuracy, completeness, and reliability of the data and transactions recorded in the logs. Substantive testing can involve various methods, such as re-performance, inspection, observation, inquiry, or computer-assisted audit techniques (CAATs), to verify the existence, occurrence, valuation, ownership, presentation, and disclosure of the log data1. Substantive testing canalso detect any errors, omissions, alterations, or manipulations of the log data that may indicate fraud or misstatement2.

Compliance testing (A) is not the best evidence of the validity and integrity of logs in an organization’s SIEM system, because it is a type of audit testing that evaluates the design and effectiveness of the internal controls that are implemented to ensure compliance with laws, regulations, policies, and procedures. Compliance testing can involve various methods, such as walkthroughs, questionnaires, checklists, or flowcharts, to assess the adequacy, consistency, and operation of the internal controls1. Compliance testing can provide assurance that the log data are generated and processed in accordance with the established rules and standards, but it does not directly verify the accuracy and reliability of the log data itself2.

Stop-or-go sampling (B) is not a type of audit testing, but a type of sampling technique that auditors use to select a sample from a population for testing. Stop-or-go sampling is a sequential sampling technique that allows auditors to stop testing before reaching the predetermined sample size if the results are satisfactory or conclusive. Stop-or-go sampling can reduce the audit cost and time by avoiding unnecessary testing, but it can also increase the sampling risk and uncertainty by relying on a smaller sample3. Stop-or-go sampling does not provide any evidence of the validity and integrity of logs in an organization’s SIEM system by itself; it depends on the type and quality of the audit tests performed on the selected sample.

Variable sampling (D) is not a type of audit testing, but a type of sampling technique that auditors use to estimate a numerical characteristic of a population for testing. Variable sampling is a statistical sampling technique that allows auditors to measure the amount or rate of error or deviation in a population by using quantitative methods. Variable sampling can provide precise and objective results by using mathematical formulas and confidence intervals4. Variable sampling does not provide any evidence of the validity and integrity of logs in an organization’s SIEM system by itself; it depends on the type and quality of the audit tests performed on the selected sample.

The percent of issues resolved by the first contact, also known as the first contact resolution (FCR) rate, is a metric that measures the effectiveness and efficiency of the IT help desk services. It indicates how many customer support issues are resolved on the first interaction with the IT help desk, without requiring any follow-up calls, emails, chats, or escalations. The FCR rate is calculated by dividing the number of issues resolved on the first contact by the total number of customer support issues, and multiplying by 100%1.

The FCR rate is the best indicator of service quality among the four monthly performance metrics, because it reflects the following aspects of the IT help desk services:

Customer satisfaction: Customers are more likely to be satisfied with the IT help desk services if their issues are resolved quickly and effectively on the first contact, without having to wait for a response or repeat their problem to multiple agents. A high FCR rate can improve customer loyalty, retention, and advocacy2.

Cost efficiency: Resolving issues on the first contact can reduce the operational costs of the IT help desk services, such as labor costs, phone costs, or overhead costs. A high FCR rate can also increase the productivity and utilization of the IT help desk agents, as they can handle more issues in less time3.

Service level: Resolving issues on the first contact can improve the service level of the IT help desk services, such as reducing the average handle time (AHT), increasing the service level agreement (SLA) compliance, or decreasing the backlog of unresolved issues. A high FCR rate can also enhance the reputation and credibility of the IT help desk services4.

Therefore, an IS auditor should review the FCR rate as a key performance indicator (KPI) of the IT help desk services, and compare it with the industry standards and benchmarks. According to MetricNet’s benchmarking database, the FCR industry standard is 74 percent. This number varies widely, however, froma low of about 41 percent to a high of 94 percent5. An IS auditor should also recommend ways to improve the FCR rate, such as:

Training and empowering the IT help desk agents to handle a wide range of issues and provide accurate and consistent solutions

Implementing a knowledge base or a self-service portal that provides relevant and updated information and guidance for common or simple issues

Improving communication and collaboration between different departments or teams that may be involved in resolving complex or escalated issues

Using feedback and analytics tools to monitor and measure customer satisfaction and identify areas for improvement

Given the large volume of data transactions, continuous monitoring is the best testing strategy for auditing the inventory control process. Continuous monitoring involves the automated review of operational and financial data to identify anomalies or areas of concern12. This approach allows for real-time identification and resolution of issues, making it particularly effective for large organizations with high transaction volumes12.

A three-way match is a process of verifying that a purchase order, a goods receipt and an invoice are consistent before making a payment1. A three-way match ensures that the organization only pays for the goods or services that it ordered and received, and that the prices and quantities are accurate. A three-way match can prevent errors, fraud and overpayments in the accounts payable process.

An IS auditor should use a purchase order when verifying a three-way match has occurred in an enterprise resource planning (ERP) system. A purchase order is a document that authorizes a purchase transaction and specifies the items, quantities, prices and terms of the order2. A purchase order is the first document in the three-way match process, and it serves as the basis for comparing the goods receipt and the invoice. An IS auditor can use a purchase order to check if the ERP system has correctly recorded, matched and approved the three documents before making a payment.

The other options are not as useful for verifying a three-way match. A bank confirmation is a document that verifies the balance and activity of a bank account3. A bank confirmation can be used to confirm that a payment has been made or received, but it does not provide information about the details of the purchase transaction or the three-way match process. A goods delivery notification is a document that informs the buyer that the goods have been shipped or delivered by the seller4. A goods delivery notification can be used to track the status of the delivery, but it does not provide information about the quantity or quality of the goods or the invoice amount. A purchase requisition is a document that requests authorization to purchase goods or services from a specific supplier2. A purchase requisition can be used to initiate the purchasing process, but it does not provide information about the actual purchase order, goods receipt or invoice.

The first step when creating a data classification program is to develop a policy (D). A data classification policy is a document that defines the purpose, scope, objectives, roles, responsibilities, and procedures of the data classification program. A data classification policy is essential for establishing the governance framework, standards, and guidelines for the data classification process. A data classification policy also helps to communicate the expectations and benefits of the data classification program to the stakeholders, such as data owners, users, custodians, and auditors12.

Categorizing and prioritizing data (A) is not the first step when creating a data classification program, but the third step. Categorizing and prioritizing data involves defining and applying the criteria and labels for classifying data based on its sensitivity, value, and risk. For example, data can be categorized into public, internal, confidential, or restricted levels. Categorizing and prioritizing data helps to identify and protect the most critical and sensitive data assets of the organization12.

Developing data process maps (B) is not the first step when creating a data classification program, but the fourth step. Developing data process maps involves documenting and analyzing the flow and lifecycle of data within the organization. Data process maps show how data is created, collected, stored, processed, transmitted, used, shared, archived, and disposed of. Developing data process maps helps to understand the context and dependencies of data, as well as to identify and mitigate any potential risks or issues related to data quality, security, or compliance12.

Categorizing information by owner © is not the first step when creating a data classification program, but the second step. Categorizing information by owner involves assigning roles and responsibilities for each type of data based on its ownership and stewardship. Data owners are the individuals or entities that have the authority and accountability for the data. Data stewards are the individuals or entities that have the operational responsibility for managing and maintaining the data. Data custodians are the individuals or entities that have the technical responsibility for implementing and enforcing the security and access controls for the data12.

Effective governance over IT infrastructure is indicated by the ability to deliver continuous, reliable performance12. This is because good governance ensures that IT investments support business objectives and produce measurable results towards achieving their strategies2. It involves implementing management and internal controls, strengthening security, financial controls, risk mitigation, and inspection and compliance obligations3. While security awareness programs, the number of servers, and the number of security incidents can be aspects of IT governance, they are not the best indicators of its effectiveness.

The greatest segregation of duties conflict would occur if the individual who performs the related tasks also has approval authority for purchase requisitions and purchase orders. This is because these two tasks are directly related to each other and involve financial transactions. If the same person is responsible for both tasks, it could lead to potential fraud or error12. For instance, the individual could approve a purchase order for a personal need and then also approve the payment for it, leading to misuse of company funds12.

A project deliverable is a tangible or intangible product or service that is produced as a result of a project and delivered to the customer or stakeholder. A project deliverable can be either an intermediate deliverable that is part of the project process or a final deliverable that is the outcome of the project.

An agile software development methodology is a project management approach that involves breaking the project into phases and emphasizes continuous collaboration and improvement. Teams follow a cycle of planning, executing, and evaluating. Agile software development methodologies value working software over comprehensive documentation and respond to change over following a plan.

Rapidly created working prototypes are most likely to be a project deliverable of an agile software development methodology because they:

Provide early and frequent feedback from customers and stakeholders on the functionality and usability of the software product

Allow for rapid validation and verification of the software requirements and design

Enable continuous improvement and adaptation of the software product based on changing customer needs and expectations

Reduce the risk of delivering a software product that does not meet customer needs or expectations

Increase customer satisfaction and trust by delivering working software products frequently and consistently

Some examples of agile software development methodologies that use rapidly created working prototypes as project deliverables are:

Scrum - a framework that organizes the work into fixed-length sprints (usually 2-4 weeks) and delivers potentially shippable increments of the software product at the end of each sprint1

Extreme Programming (XP) - a methodology that focuses on delivering high-quality software products through practices such as test-driven development, pair programming, continuous integration, and frequent releases2

Rapid Application Development (RAD) - a methodology that emphasizes rapid prototyping and user involvement throughout the software development process3

The other options are not likely to be project deliverables of an agile software development methodology.

Strictly managed software requirements baselines are not likely to be project deliverables of an agile software development methodology. A software requirements baseline is a set of agreed-upon and approved software requirements that serve as the basis for the software design, development, testing, and delivery. A strictly managed software requirements baseline is a software requirements baseline that is controlled and changed only through a formalchange management process. Strictly managed software requirements baselines are more suitable for traditional or waterfall software development methodologies that follow a linear and sequential process of defining, designing, developing, testing, and delivering software products. Strictly managed software requirements baselines are not compatible with agile software development methodologies that embrace change and flexibility in the software requirements based on customer feedback and evolving needs.

Extensive project documentation is not likely to be project deliverables of an agile software development methodology. Project documentation is any written or electronic information that describes or records the activities, processes, results, or decisions of a project. Extensive project documentation is project documentation that covers every aspect of the project in detail and requires significant time and effort to produce and maintain. Extensive project documentation is more suitable for traditional or waterfall software development methodologies that rely on comprehensive documentation to communicate and document the project scope, requirements, design, testing, and delivery. Extensive project documentation is not compatible with agile software development methodologies that value working software over comprehensive documentation and use minimal documentation to support the communication and collaboration among the project team members.

Automated software programming routines are not likely to be project deliverables of an agile software development methodology. Automated software programming routines are programs or scripts that perform repetitive or complex tasks in the software development process without human intervention. Automated software programming routines can improve the efficiency, quality, and consistency of the software development process by reducing human errors, saving time, and enforcing standards. Automated software programming routines can be used in any software development methodology, but they are not specific to agile software development methodologies. Automated software programming routines are not considered as project deliverables because they are not part of the final product that is delivered to the customer.

Hashing is a technique that transforms data into a fixed-length value, called a hash or a digest, that uniquely represents the original data. Hashing can be used to validate the integrity of data communicated between production databases and a big data analytics system by comparing the hash values of the data before and after the communication. If the hash values match, the data has not been altered; if they differ, the data has been tampered with or corrupted. Hashing is a better security control than encrypting, running and comparing the count function, or hosting a digital certificate for this purpose because:

Encrypting in-scope data sets can protect the confidentiality of the data, but not necessarily the integrity. Encryption algorithms can be broken or bypassed by malicious actors, or encryption keys can be compromised or lost. Moreover, encryption adds overhead to the communication process and may affect the performance of the big data analytics system.

Running and comparing the count function within the in-scope data sets can only verify the number of records or elements in the data sets, but not the content or quality of the data. The count function cannot detect any changes or errors in the data values, such as missing, duplicated, corrupted, or manipulated data.

Hosting a digital certificate for in-scope data sets can provide authentication and non-repudiation for the data sources, but not integrity for the data itself. A digital certificate is a document that contains information about the identity and public key of an entity, such as a person, organization, or device. A digital certificate does not contain or verify the actual data that is communicated between production databases and a big data analytics system.

 IT governance should be driven by organizational strategies. It provides a formal structure for organizations to produce measurable results toward achieving their strategies and ensures that IT investments support business objectives12. While business unit initiatives, balanced scorecards, and policies and standards can play a role in IT governance, they are tools or methods that support the implementation of the organizational strategies.

A mirror backup is a type of backup that creates an exact copy of the source data to the destination, without using any compression or encryption. A mirror backup is the best backup scheme to recommend given the need for a shorter restoration time in the event of a disruption, because it allows for the fastest and easiest recovery of data. A mirror backup does not store any previous versions of the files, so it only reflects the current state of the source data. Therefore, a mirror backup requires less storage space than a full backup, but more than an incremental or differential backup.

A differential backup is a type of backup that stores the changes made to the source data since the last full backup. A differential backup requires less storage space and time than a full backup, but more than an incremental backup. However, a differential backup also requires more time and resources to restore than a mirror or full backup, because it needs to combine the last full backup and the latest differential backup to recover the data.

A full backup is a type of backup that copies all the files and folders from the source data to the destination, regardless of whether they have changed or not. A full backup provides the most complete protection of data and the simplest recovery process, but it also requires the most storage space and time to perform. A full backup is usually done periodically, such as weekly or monthly, and followed by incremental or differential backups.

An incremental backup is a type of backup that stores the changes made to the source data since the last backup, whether it was a full or an incremental backup. An incremental backup requires the least storage space and time to perform, but it also requires the most time and resources to restore, because it needs to combine all the previous backups in chronological order to recover the data.

This is because the business processes are the core activities and functions that enable the organization to achieve its objectives and create value for its stakeholders. The business processes are also the sources and drivers of various risks that may affect the organization’s performance, compliance, and reputation. Therefore, the IS auditor should focus on understanding, assessing, and prioritizing the business processes that are most critical, complex, or vulnerable to the organization’s success, and align the audit objectives, scope, and resources accordingly12.

Critical business applications (A) are not the most important area of focus for an IS auditor when developing a risk-based audit strategy, but rather a specific aspect of the business processes that may require attention. Critical business applications are the software systems that support the execution and automation of the business processes, such as enterprise resource planning (ERP), customer relationship management (CRM), or accounting systems. Critical business applications may pose significant risks to the organization if they are not reliable, secure, or efficient. Therefore, the IS auditor should consider the criticality, functionality, and dependency of the business applications when planning the audit, but not as the primary focus12.

Existing IT controls © are not the most important area of focus for an IS auditor when developing a risk-based audit strategy, but rather an outcome or output of the risk assessment process. Existing IT controls are the policies, procedures, practices, and technologies that are implemented to manage and mitigate the IT-related risks that may affect the organization’s business processes and objectives. Existing IT controls may vary in their design, effectiveness, and maturity. Therefore, the IS auditor should evaluate and testthe existing IT controls as part of the audit execution and reporting process, but not as the main focus12.

Recent audit results (D) are not the most important area of focus for an IS auditor when developing a risk-based audit strategy, but rather an input or source of information for the risk assessment process. Recent audit results are the findings, recommendations, and opinions of previous audits that may provide insights or feedback on the organization’s business processes, risks, and controls. Recent audit results may also indicate any changes or trends in the organization’s risk profile or environment. Therefore, the IS auditor should review and consider the recent audit results as part of the audit planning and scoping process, but not as the main focus12.

Sending a copy of the transaction logs to offsite storage on a daily basis would minimize the risk of losing transactions as a result of a disaster. This is because offsite storage provides a backup of the data that can be recovered in case of a catastrophic event that destroys or damages the onsite data. Storing a copy of the transaction logs onsite in a fireproof vault (B) would not protect the data from other types of disasters, such as floods, earthquakes, or theft. Encrypting © or signing (D) a copy of the transaction logs and storing them on a local server would not prevent the loss of data if the server is affected by the disaster. Encryption and digital signatures are security measures that protect the confidentiality and integrity of the data, but not the availability.

When a data center is attempting to restore computing facilities at an alternative site following a disaster, the operating system should be restored FIRST. Here’s why:

1. Operating System (OS):

The OS is the foundation of any computing environment. It manages hardware resources, provides essential services, and allows applications to run.

Restoring the OS ensures that the infrastructure is operational and ready for further recovery steps.

Without a functional OS, applications cannot execute, and data backups cannot be effectively restored.

2. Data Backups:

While data backups are critical for recovery, they depend on a working infrastructure.

If the OS is not operational, restoring data backups becomes challenging.

Data backups should follow the OS restoration.

3. Applications:

Applications rely on the OS to function.

Restoring applications before the OS may lead to compatibility issues or incomplete functionality.

Applications should be restored after ensuring a stable OS environment.

4. Decision Support System (DSS):

DSS is an application category.

It should follow the restoration of both the OS and critical applications.

In summary, prioritize restoring the operating system, which forms the basis for subsequent recovery steps12. Once the OS is functional, proceed with data backups, applications, and other systems as needed.

The most useful thing to do when planning to audit an organization’s compliance with cybersecurity regulations in foreign countries is to map the different regulatory requirements to the organization’s IT governance framework. This is because an IT governance framework is a roadmap that defines the methods used by an organization to implement, manage and report on IT governance within said organization1. IT governance helps align business and IT strategies using a solid and formal framework2. By mapping the different regulatory requirements to the IT governance framework, the auditor can:

Identify the commonalities and differences among the various cybersecurity regulations that apply to the organization’s operations in different countries.

Assess the level of compliance and maturity of the organization’s IT governance practices against each regulatory requirement.

Evaluate the risks and gaps associated with non-compliance or partial compliance with any of the regulatory requirements.

Recommend appropriate actions or improvements to enhance the organization’s IT governance and cybersecurity posture.

Option D is correct because mapping the different regulatory requirements to the organization’s IT governance framework is a systematic and effective way to plan and conduct an audit of compliance with cybersecurity regulations in foreign countries.

Conducting periodic testing and incorporating lessons learned is the best way to improve the effectiveness of an incident response team. This allows the team to practice their response procedures, identify any gaps or weaknesses in their response, and learn from their mistakes. It also helps to keep the team’s skills sharp and up-to-date. The lessons learned from these tests can then be used to improve the team’s procedures and performance12. While understanding information systems technology, disseminating incident response procedures, and publishing KPI metrics can contribute to the effectiveness of the team, they do not provide the same level of continuous improvement as periodic testing and learning from experience.

The best way to evaluate the effectiveness of a newly developed application is to review acceptance testing results. Acceptance testing is a process of verifying that the application meets the specified requirements and expectations of the users and stakeholders. Acceptance testing results can provide evidence of the functionality, usability, reliability, performance, security and quality of the application. Performing a post-implementation review, analyzing load testing results, and performing a secure code review are also important activities for evaluating an application, but they are not as comprehensive or conclusive as acceptance testing results.

The role of a document owner when implementing a data classification policy in an organization is to classify documents to correctly reflect the level of sensitivity of information they contain. A document owner is the person who is ultimately responsible for the creation, maintenance, and protection of a document, usually a member of senior management or a business unit1. A data classification policy is a plan that defines how the organization categorizesits data based on its value, risk, and regulatory requirements, and how it handles and secures each data category2.

According to the data classification policy template by Netwrix3, one of the roles and responsibilities of the document owner is to assign data classification labels based on the data’s potential impact level. Data classification labels are tags or markings that indicate the sensitivity level of the data, such as public, internal, confidential, or restricted. The document owner should apply the data classification labels to the documents that contain the data, either manually or automatically, using tools and methods such as metadata, watermarks, headers, footers, or encryption. The document owner should also review and update the data classification labels periodically or whenever there is a change in the data’s sensitivity level.

By classifying documents to correctly reflect the level of sensitivity of information they contain, the document owner can help to ensure that the documents are handled in accordance with the data classification policy. This means that the documents are stored, accessed, shared, transmitted, and disposed of in a secure and appropriate manner, based on the rules and controls defined for each data category. This can also help to prevent data loss, leakage, or breach incidents that may cause harm or damage to the organization or its stakeholders.

Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

The best option that facilitates strategic program management is aligning projects with business portfolios (option C). This is because:

Strategic program management is the coordinated planning, management, and execution of multiple related projects that are directed toward the same strategic goals12.

Aligning projects with business portfolios means ensuring that the projects within a program are aligned with the organization’s strategic objectives, vision, and mission .

Aligning projects with business portfolios helps to prioritize the most valuable and impactful projects, optimize the allocation of resources, monitor the progress and performance of the program, and deliver the expected benefits and outcomes .

Implementing stage gates (option A) is a process of reviewing and approving projects at predefined points in their lifecycle to ensure that they meet the quality, scope, time, and cost criteria. While this can help to control and improve the project management process, it does not necessarily facilitate strategic program management, as it does not address the alignment of projects with business portfolios.

Establishing a quality assurance (QA) process (option B) is a process of ensuring that the project deliverables meet the quality standards and requirements of the stakeholders. While this can help to enhance the quality and satisfaction of the project outcomes, it does not necessarily facilitate strategic program management, as it does not address the alignment of projects with business portfolios.

Tracking key project milestones (option D) is a process of monitoring and reporting the completion of significant events or deliverables in a project. While this can help to measure and communicate the progress and status of the project, it does not necessarily facilitate strategic program management, as it does not address the alignment of projects with business portfolios.

Therefore, the best option that facilitates strategic program management is aligning projects with business portfolios (option C), as this ensures that the projects within a program are consistent with the organization’s strategic goals and objectives.

This method is known as creating a digital signature of the message. It ensures the integrity of the message by verifying that it has not been tampered with in transit. The process involves hashing the message and encrypting the hash value with the sender’s private key. Any changes to the message will result in a different hash value1. This method is used in DomainKeys Identified Mail (DKIM), which verifies an email’s domain and helps show that the email has not been tampered with in transit2.

The performance and reliability of a job scheduling tool can be significantly affected if maintenance patches and the latest enhancement upgrades are missing1. These patches and upgrades often contain fixes for known issues and improvements to the tool’s functionality. If they are not applied, the tool may continue to exhibit known problems or fail to benefit from enhancements that could improve its performance and reliability1. While factors like administrator password requirements23, number of support staff45, and tool classification64 can impact various aspects of a tool’s operation, they are less likely to be the direct cause of performance and reliability problems.

Real-time replication to a second data center means that any changes made to the primary data center are immediately copied to the secondary data center. This can improve data availability and performance, but also introduces the risk of propagating malicious or erroneous changes to the backup data center. If a cybersecurity attack compromises the primary data center, it may also affect the secondary data center, making it difficult or impossible to recover from the attack using the replicated data. Therefore, option C is the greatest risk associated with this change.

Option A is not correct because version control issues are more likely to occur with batch processing backup, which may create inconsistencies between different versions of the data. Option B is not correct because real-time replication may reduce system performance at the primary data center, but it may also improve system performance at the secondary data center by reducing latency and network traffic. Option D is not correct because although real-time replication may increase IT investment cost, this is not a risk but a trade-off that the organization has to consider.

The best indicator of the performance of a web application is the average response time. This metric measures how long it takes for the web server to process and deliver a request from the client. It reflects the user’s perception of how fast or slow the web application is, and it affects the user’s satisfaction, engagement, and conversion. A low average response time means that the web application is responsive and efficient, while a high average response time means that the web application is sluggish and unreliable.

HTTP server error rate, server thread count, and server uptime are not as good indicators of the performance of a web application as the average response time. HTTP server error rate measures how often the web server fails to handle a request and returns an error code, such as 404 (Not Found) or 500 (Internal Server Error). This metric indicates the reliability and availability of the web application, but it does not capture how fast or slow the web application is. Server thread count measures how many concurrent requests the web server can handle at a given time. This metric indicates the scalability and capacity of the web application, but it does not capture how long each request takes to process. Server uptime measures how long the web server has been running without interruption. This metric indicates the stability and resilience of the web application, but it does not capture how well the web application performs during that time.

The recovery time objective (RTO) is the most important consideration when making a decision to invest in a hot site due to service criticality. The RTO is the maximum acceptable time that an IT service or process can be unavailable or disrupted before it causes significant damage to the business operations and objectives. A hot site is a fully equipped and operational backup facility that can be activated immediately in the event of a disaster or disruption. A hot site can help an organization achieve a very low RTO, as it can resume the service with minimal or no downtime. The maximum tolerable downtime (MTD) is the maximum acceptable time that an IT service or process can be unavailable or disrupted before it causes intolerable damage to the business operations and objectives. The MTD is usually longer than the RTO, as it represents the worst-case scenario. The recovery point objective (RPO) is the maximum acceptable amount of data loss that an IT service or process can tolerate in the event of a disaster or disruption. The RPO is measured in terms of time, such as hours or minutes, and indicates how frequently the data should be backed up or replicated. The mean time to repair (MTTR) is the average time that it takes to restore an IT service or process after a failure or disruption. The MTTR is a measure of the efficiency and effectiveness of the recovery process, but it does not reflect the service criticality or the business impact. References: IS Audit and Assurance Tools and Techniques, CISA Certification | Certified Information Systems Auditor | ISACA

A computer-assisted technique is the most helpful method for an IS auditor to determine whether duplicate vendor payments exist on a complex system with a high volume of transactions. A computer-assisted technique is a tool or procedure that can be used to perform audit tests or procedures on data stored in electronic form. Examples of computer-assisted techniques include data analysis software, query tools, scripting languages, and specialized audit software. A computer-assisted techniquecan help an IS auditor to identify and extract duplicate payments from a large data set, perform calculations and comparisons, and generate reports and summaries. A computer-assisted technique can also provide more accuracy, efficiency, and coverage than manual methods.

Stratified sampling, statistical sampling, and process walk-through are not as helpful as a computer-assisted technique for this purpose. Stratified sampling is a sampling method that divides the population into subgroups based on certain characteristics and selects samples from each subgroup. Statistical sampling is a sampling method that uses probability theory to determine the sample size and selection criteria. Process walk-through is a review technique that involves following a transaction or process from start to finish and observing the inputs, outputs, controls, and documentation. These methods may be useful for other audit objectives, but they are not as effective as a computer-assisted technique for detecting duplicate payments in a complex and high-volume system. References: ISACA Frameworks: Blueprints for Success, [ISACA Glossary of Terms]

Transaction tagging is a technique by which transactions are marked with unique identifiers or headers and traced through the system using agents or sensors at each processing point1. Transaction tagging allows for continuous monitoring and analysis of transaction processing in a high-volume, real-time system by providing visibility into the performance, availability, and reliability of each transaction and its components1. Transaction tagging can also help to identify and isolate errors, bottlenecks, anomalies, and security issues in the system1.

Before sending backup drives to an offsite storage facility, the most important thing to do is to encrypt the drive with strong protection standards. This is because encryption ensures effective security where information cannot be intercepted and used to harm the organization or its customers. Encryption also protects the data from unauthorized access, modification, or deletion in case the drive is lost, stolen, or damaged during transit or storage. Encryption of backup drives is especially important for public safety organizations that handle sensitive or personally identifiable information, such as medical records, criminal records, or emergency communications12.

The auditor should verify whether a right-to-audit clause exists (B) next, because it is a contractual provision that grants the auditor the right to access and examine the records, systems, and processes of the SaaS provider. A right-to-audit clause is important for ensuring transparency, accountability, and compliance of the SaaS provider with the customer’s requirements and expectations. A right-to-audit clause can also help the auditor to identify and mitigate any risks or issues related to the SaaS agreement12.

Verifying whether IT management monitors the effectiveness of the environment (A) is not the next step, because it is a part of the ongoing monitoring andevaluation process, not the initial walk-through procedures. The auditor should first establish the scope, objectives, and criteria of the audit before assessing the performance and controls of the SaaS provider.

Verifying whether a third-party security attestation exists © is not the next step, because it is not a mandatory requirement for a SaaS agreement. A third-party security attestation is a report or certificate issued by an independent auditor that evaluates and validates the security controls and practices of the SaaS provider. A third-party security attestation can provide assurance and confidence to the customer, but it does not replace or eliminate the need for a right-to-audit clause3.

Verifying whether service level agreements (SLAs) are defined and monitored (D) is not the next step, because it is not directly related to the audit process. SLAs are contractual agreements that specify the quality, availability, and performance standards of the SaaS provider. SLAs are important for measuring and managing the service delivery and customer satisfaction, but they do not grant or guarantee the right to audit4.

 The best way to prevent a chip-level security vulnerability from being exploited is to install vendor patches. A chip-level security vulnerability is a flaw in the design or implementation of a processor that allows an attacker to bypass the normal security mechanisms and access privileged information or execute malicious code. A vendor patch is a software update provided by the manufacturer of the processor that fixes or mitigates the vulnerability. Installing vendor patches can help to protect the system from known exploits and reduce the risk of data leakage or compromise.

Security awareness training, reviewing hardware vendor contracts, and reviewing security log incidents are not as effective as installing vendor patches for preventing a chip-level security vulnerability from being exploited. Security awareness training is an educational program that teaches users about the importance of security and how to avoid common threats. Reviewing hardware vendor contracts is a legal process that evaluates the terms and conditions of the agreement between the organization and the processor supplier. Reviewing security log incidents is an analytical process that examines the records of security events and activities on the system. These methods may be useful for other security purposes, but they do not directly address the root cause of the chip-level vulnerability or prevent its exploitation. References: Protecting your device against chip-related security vulnerabilities, New ‘Downfall’ Flaw Exposes Valuable Data in Generations of Intel Chips

The most important action before the audit work begins is to establish control objectives. Control objectives are the specific goals or outcomes that the audit intends to achieve or verify in relation to the information protection in the application1. Control objectives provide the basis for designing and performing the audit procedures, evaluating the audit evidence, and reporting the audit findings and recommendations2. Control objectives also help to align the audit scope and criteria with the business needs and expectations, and to ensure that the audit is relevant, reliable, and efficient3.

Some examples of control objectives for an information protection audit are:

To ensure that the information stored in the application is classified according to its sensitivity, value, and regulatory requirements

To ensure that the information stored in the application is encrypted, masked, or anonymized as appropriate

To ensure that the information stored in the application is accessible only by authorized users and processes

To ensure that the information stored in the application is backed up, restored, and retained according to the business continuity and retention policies

To ensure that the information stored in the application is monitored, logged, and audited for any unauthorized or anomalous activities

Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

Option A is not correct because reviewing remediation reports is not the most important action before the audit work begins. Remediation reports are documents that describe how previous audit findings or issues have been resolved or addressed by the auditee4. While reviewing remediation reports may be useful for understanding the current state of information protection in the application, it is not a prerequisite for defining the control objectives of the audit.

Option C is not correct because assessing the threat landscape is not the most important action before the audit work begins. The threat landscape is the set of potential sources, methods, and impacts of cyberattacks or data breaches that may affect the information stored in the application5. While assessing the threat landscape may be helpful for identifying and prioritizing the risks and vulnerabilities of information protection in the application, it is not a prerequisite for defining the control objectives of the audit.

Option D is not correct because performing penetration testing is not the most important action before the audit work begins. Penetration testing is a technique that simulates real-world cyberattacks or data breaches to test the security and resilience of information systems or applications. 

End-user computing (EUC) is a system in which users are able to create working applications besides the divided development process of design, build, test and release that is typically followed by software engineers1. Examples of EUC tools include spreadsheets, databases, low-code/no-code platforms, and generative AI applications2. EUC tools can provide flexibility, efficiency, and innovation for the users, but they also pose significant risks if not properly managed and controlled3.

The greatest risk when relying on reports generated by EUC is that the data may be inaccurate. Data accuracy refers to the extent to which the data in the reports reflect the true values of the underlying information4. Inaccurate data can lead to erroneous decisions, misleading analysis, unreliable reporting, and compliance violations. Some of the factors that can cause data inaccuracy in EUC reports are:

Lack of rigorous testing: EUC tools may not undergo the same level of testing and validation as IT-developed applications, which can result in errors, bugs, or inconsistencies in the data processing and output3.

Lack of version and change control: EUC tools may not have a clear record of the changes made to them over time, which can create confusion, duplication, or loss of data. Users may also modify or overwrite the data without proper authorization or documentation3.

Lack of documentation and reliance on end-user who developed it: EUC tools may not have sufficient documentation to explain their purpose, functionality, assumptions, limitations, and dependencies. Users may also rely on the knowledge and expertise of the original developer, who may not be available or may not have followed best practices3.

Lack of maintenance processes: EUC tools may not have regular updates, backups, or reviews to ensure their functionality and security. Users may also neglect to delete or archive obsolete or redundant data3.

Lack of security: EUC tools may not have adequate access controls, encryption, or authentication mechanisms to protect the data from unauthorized access, modification, or disclosure. Users may also store or share the data in insecure locations or devices3.

Lack of audit trail: EUC tools may not have a traceable history of the data sources, inputs, outputs, calculations, and transformations. Users may also manipulate or falsify the data without detection or accountability3.

Overreliance on manual controls: EUC tools may depend on human intervention to input, verify, or correct the data, which can introduce errors, delays, or biases. Users may also lack the skills or training to use the EUC tools effectively and efficiently3.

The other options are not as great as data inaccuracy when relying on EUC reports. Reports may not work efficiently, reports may not be timely, and historical data may not be available are all potential risks associated with EUC tools, but they are less severe and less frequent than data inaccuracy. Moreover, these risks can be mitigated by improving the performance, scheduling, and storage of the EUC tools. However, data inaccuracy can have a pervasive and lasting impact on the quality and credibility of the reports and the decisions based on them. Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

Audit planning is the process of developing an overall strategy and approach for conducting an audit. Audit planning involves identifying the objectives, scope, criteria, and methodology of the audit, as well as the resources, schedule, and reporting requirements. Audit planning also involves performing a risk assessment to identify and prioritize the areas of highest risk and significance for the audit1.

Risk assessment is a systematic process of evaluating the potential risks that may be involved in a projected activity or undertaking. Risk assessment involves identifying the sources and causes of risk, analyzing the likelihood and impact of risk, and determining the level of risk and the appropriate response2.

During audit planning, the IS audit manager is considering whether to budget for audits of entities regarded by the business as having low risk. The best course of action in this situation is C. Validate the low-risk entity ratings and apply professional judgment.

This is because validating the low-risk entity ratings can help to ensure that the risk assessment is accurate, reliable, and consistent with the business objectives and expectations. Validating the low-risk entity ratings can also help to identify any changes or developments that may affect the risk profile of the entities since the last assessment. Applying professional judgment can help to determine whether the low-risk entities should be included or excluded from the audit plan, based on factors such as materiality, relevance, significance, and assurance needs3.

The best sampling method to use for verifying the adequacy of an organization’s internal controls and being concerned about potential circumvention of regulations is B. Random sampling. Random sampling is a method of selecting a sample from a population in which each item has an equal and independent chance of being selected1. Random sampling reduces the risk of bias or manipulation in the sample selection, and ensures that the sample is representative of the population. Random sampling can be used for both attribute and variable sampling, which are two types of audit sampling that test for the occurrence rate or the monetary value of errors, respectively2.

Tabletop exercises are a type of simulation used to test an organization’s incident response plan12. They involve key stakeholders in a hypothetical scenario to see how they would respond12. This allows management to assess the effectiveness of the incident response process and identify areas for improvement12. Regularly conducting these exercises ensures that the organization is prepared for a real incident and that the incident response process remains effective over time12.

 An acceptable use policy (AUP) is a document that defines the rules and guidelines for using an organization’s IT resources, such as networks, devices, and software. It aims to protect the organization’s assets, security, and productivity. An AUP should be formally acknowledged by users to ensure that they are aware of their responsibilities and obligations when using the IT resources. Without formal acknowledgment, users may not be held accountable for violating the AUP or may claim ignorance of the policy. This can expose the organization to legal, regulatory, reputational, or operational risks. Lack of data for measuring compliance, violation of industry standards, and noncompliance with documentation requirements are also possible risks from not having users acknowledge the AUP, but they are less significant than lack of user accountability. References: Workable: Acceptable use policy template, Wikipedia: Acceptable use policy

This is because audit trails are records of system activity and user actions that can provide evidence of the validity and integrity of transactions and data in a financial application system. Audit trails can help to ensure compliance with laws, regulations, policies, and standards, as well as to detect and prevent fraud, errors, or misuse of information. Audit trails can also facilitate auditing, monitoring, and evaluation of the financial application system’s performance and controls1.

The application should meet the organization’s requirements (A) is not the best answer, because it is a general and obvious criterion that applies to any application system acquisition, not a specific and important recommendation for a financial application system. The organization’s requirementsshould be clearly defined and documented in the RFP, but they may not necessarily include audit trails as a design feature.

Potential suppliers should have experience in the relevant area © is not the best answer, because it is a factor that affects the selection of the supplier, not the design of the financial application system. The experience and reputation of potential suppliers should be evaluated and verified during the RFP process, but they may not guarantee that the supplier will include audit trails in the design.

Vendor employee background checks should be conducted regularly (D) is not the best answer, because it is a measure that affects the security and trustworthiness of the vendor, not the design of the financial application system. Vendor employee background checks should be performed as part of the vendor management and due diligence process, but they may not ensure that the vendor will include audit trails in the design.

This is because analyzing the data against predefined specifications is a method of data quality assessment that can help the organization achieve a reasonable level of data quality. Data quality assessment is the process of measuring and evaluating the accuracy, completeness, consistency, timeliness, validity, and usability of the data. Predefined specifications are the criteria or standards that define the expected or desired quality of the data. By comparing the actual data with the predefined specifications, the organization can identify and quantify any gaps, errors, or deviations in the data quality, and take corrective actions accordingly12.

Reviewing data against data classification standards (A) is not the best answer, because it is not a method of data quality assessment, but rather a method of data security management. Data classification standards are the rules or guidelines that define the level of sensitivity and confidentiality of the data, and determine the appropriate security and access controls for the data. For example, data can be classified into public, internal, confidential, or restricted categories. Reviewing data against data classification standards can help the organization protect the data from unauthorized or inappropriate use or disclosure, but it does not directly improve the data quality3.

Outsourcing data cleansing to skilled service providers (B) is not the best answer, because it is not a recommendation to help the organization achieve a reasonable level of data quality, but rather a decision to delegate or transfer the responsibility of data quality management to external parties. Data cleansing is the process of detecting and correcting any errors, inconsistencies, or anomalies in the data. Skilled service providers are third-partyvendors or contractors that have the expertise and resources to perform data cleansing tasks. Outsourcing data cleansing to skilled service providers may have some benefits, such as cost savings, efficiency, or scalability, but it also has some risks, such as loss of control, dependency, or liability4.

Consolidating data stored across separate databases into a warehouse © is not the best answer, because it is not a method of data quality assessment, but rather a method of data integration and storage. Data integration is the process of combining and transforming data from different sources and formats into a unified and consistent view. Data warehouse is a centralized repository that stores integrated and historical data for analytical purposes. Consolidating data stored across separate databases into a warehouse can help the organization improve the availability and accessibility of the data, but it does not necessarily improve the data quality.

The IS auditor’s greatest concern when reviewing a business case for a proposed implementation of a third-party system should be A. Lack of ongoing maintenance costs. This is because ongoing maintenance costs are an essential part of the total cost of ownership (TCO) of a third-party system, and they can have a significant impact on the return on investment (ROI) and the feasibility of the project. If the business case does not include ongoing maintenance costs, it may underestimate the true cost of the project and overestimate the benefits. This could lead to poor decision making and unrealistic expectations.

Lack of training materials (B), lack of plan for pilot implementation ©, and lack of detailed work breakdown structure (D) are also potential issues that could affect the quality and success of the project, but they are not as critical as lack of ongoing maintenance costs. Training materials can be developed or acquired later, pilot implementation can be planned during the project initiation or planning phase, and work breakdown structure can be refined as the project progresses. However, ongoing maintenance costs are difficult to change or estimate once the project is approved and implemented, and they can have long-term implications for the organization. Therefore, they should be included and analyzed in the business case.

The statement that BEST demonstrates alignment with data classification standards related to the protection of information assets is D. All information assets will be assigned a clearly defined level to facilitate proper employee handling. Data classification involves categorizing information assets based on their sensitivity, importance, and usage. Assigning clearly defined levels (such as public, internal, confidential, etc.) to information assets ensures that appropriate security controls are applied based on their classification. By doing so, organizations can manage access, encryption, and other protective measures effectively12.

The auditor’s greatest concern when reviewing data inputs from spreadsheets into the core finance system would be undocumented code that formats data and transmits directly to the database. This is because undocumented code can introduce errors, inconsistencies, and security risks in the data processing and reporting. Undocumented code can also make it difficult to verify the accuracy, completeness, and validity of the data inputs and outputs, as well as to trace the source and destination of the data. Undocumented code can also violate the principles of segregation of duties, as the same person who creates the code may also have access to the data and the database.

The other options are not as concerning as undocumented code, although they may also pose some risks. A lack of complete inventory of spreadsheets and inconsistent file naming may make it challenging to identify and locate the relevant spreadsheets, but they do not directly affect the quality or integrity of the data inputs. The department data protection policy not being reviewed or updated for two years may indicate a lack of awareness or compliance with the current data protection regulations, but it does not necessarily imply that the data inputs are compromised or inaccurate. Spreadsheets being accessible by all members of the finance department may increase the risk of unauthorized or accidental changes to the data, but it can be mitigated by implementing access controls, password protection, and audit trails.

The greatest concern with finding closed-circuit television (CCTV) systems located in a patient care area is that there are no notices indicating recording is in progress. This is because CCTV systems in healthcare settings can pose a threat to the privacy and confidentiality of patients, staff, and visitors, especially in sensitive areas where personal or medical information may be exposed. According to the government’s Surveillance camera code of practice1, CCTV operators must be as transparent as possible in the use of CCTV, and inform people that they are being recorded by using clear and visible signs. The signs should also provide contact details of the CCTV operator and the purpose of the surveillance. By providing notices, CCTV operators can comply with data protection law and respect the rights and expectations of individuals.

Option B is correct because the lack of notices indicating recording is in progress is a clear violation of the Surveillance camera code of practice1, which applies to local authorities and the police, and is encouraged to be adopted by other CCTV operators in England and Wales. The code also applies to Scotland, along with the National Strategy for Public Space CCTV2. The code is intended to be used in conjunction with the guidance provided by the Information Commissioner’s Office (ICO)3, which applies across the UK. The ICO states that CCTV operators must inform people that they are being recorded by using prominent signs at the entrance of the CCTV zone and reinforcing this with further signs inside the area.

Option A is incorrect because cameras not being monitored 24/7 is not the greatest concern, as it does not necessarily affect the privacy and confidentiality of individuals. CCTV systems may have different purposes and objectives, such as deterring or monitoring crime, enhancing security, or improving patient care. Depending on the purpose, CCTV systems may not require constant monitoring, but rather periodic review or analysis. However, CCTV operators should still ensure that they have adequate security measures to protect the CCTV systems from unauthorized access or tampering.

Option C is incorrect because the retention period for video recordings being undefined is not the greatest concern, as it does not directly affect the privacy and confidentiality of individuals. However, CCTV operators should still define and document their retention policy, and ensure that they do not keep video recordings for longer than necessary, unless they are needed for a specific purpose or as evidence. The retention period should be based on a clear and justifiable rationale, and comply with data protection law and industry guidelines.

Option D is incorrect because there being no backups of the videos is not the greatest concern, as it does not affect the privacy and confidentiality of individuals. However, CCTV operators should still consider having backups of their videos, especially if they are needed for a specific purpose or as evidence. Backups can help to prevent data loss or corruption due to system failures, disasters, or malicious attacks. Backups should also be stored securely and encrypted to prevent unauthorized access or disclosure.

Aligning IT strategy with business strategy primarily helps an organization to optimize investments in IT. This is because alignment ensures that IT resources and capabilities are aligned with the business goals and priorities, and that IT delivers value to the business in terms of efficiency, effectiveness, innovation, and competitive advantage12. By aligning IT strategy with business strategy, an organization can avoid wasting money and time on IT projects or services that do not support or contribute to the business outcomes3. Alignment also helps to identify and prioritize the most critical and valuable IT initiatives that can create or optimize business value4.

Therefore, the correct answer to your question is A. optimize investments in IT.

The most critical factor for the success of an information security program is management’s commitment to information security. Management’s commitment to information security means that the senior management supports, sponsors, funds, monitors and enforces the information security program within the organization. Management’s commitment to information security also demonstrates leadership, sets the tone and culture, and establishes the strategic direction and objectives for information security. User accountability for information security, alignment of information security with IT objectives, and integration of business and information security are also important factors for the success of an information security program, but they are not as critical as management’s commitment to information security, as they depend on or derive from it. References: Info Technology & Systems Resources | COBIT, Risk, Governance … - ISACA, IT Governance and Process Maturity

A CO2 system could be a concern for an IS auditor when used to protect an asset storage closet. While CO2 systems are effective at suppressing fires, they can pose a significant safety risk to personnel. In the event of a fire,the CO2 system would fill the room with carbon dioxide, displacing the oxygen. This could be hazardous to anyone who might be in the room at the time12.

A benefits realization process is a systematic way of identifying, defining, planning, tracking and realizing the benefits from a project or program. Benefits are the measurable improvements that result from the delivery of project outputs and outcomes. Benefits realization management (BRM) is the practice of ensuring that benefits are derived from outputs and outcomes.

One of the best practices for BRM is to select metrics for the project before it begins. Metrics are the indicators that measure the performance and value of the project and its benefits. By selecting metrics in advance, the project team can align the project objectives with the expected benefits, establish a baseline for comparison, and monitor and evaluate the progress and results of the project. Metrics also help to communicate the value of the project to stakeholders and justify the investment.

The other options are not as effective as selecting metrics before the project begins. Project budget is an important factor for BRM, but it does not enable the benefits realization process by itself. It only reflects the costs of executing the project and delivering the solution, not the benefits or value that are expected from them. Estimates of business benefits are useful for planning and forecasting, but they are not sufficient for BRM. They need to be validated by actual data and evidence from similar projects or other sources. Metrics are evaluated after the project has been implemented, but this is only one part of the benefits realization process. BRM requires continuous monitoring and evaluation throughout the project life cycle and beyond, to ensure that benefits are sustained and optimized.

According to the ISACA CISA documentation, one of the requirements for internal audit quality assurance (QA) and continuous improvement processes is to have an external assessment at least once every five years by a qualified, independent reviewer or review team from outside the organization1. This is to ensure that the internal audit activity conforms to the International Standards for the Professional Practice of Internal Auditing (the Standards) and the Code of Ethics, and to identify opportunities for improvement2. Therefore, the lack of periodic engagement with external assessors would present the greatest concern during a review of internal audit QA and continuous improvement processes.

Support should be given the greatest consideration when implementing the use of an open-source product, as open-source software may not have the same level of technical support, maintenance, and updates as proprietary software1. Open-source software users may have to rely on the community of developers and users, online forums, or third-party vendors for support, which may not be timely, reliable, or consistent2. Therefore, before implementing an open-source product, users should evaluate the availability and quality of support options, such as documentation, forums, mailing lists, bug trackers, chat channels, etc.3

 Risk assessment is a mandatory part of the annual audit planning process, as it helps to identify and prioritize the areas that pose the highest risk to the organization’s objectives and operations. Risk assessment involves analyzing the internal and external factors that affect the organization’s risk profile, evaluating the likelihood and impact of potential events or scenarios, assessing the existing controls and mitigation strategies, and determining the residual risk level. Based on the risk assessment results, the IS auditor can allocate resources and schedule audits accordingly. A business impact analysis (BIA) is a process that identifies and evaluates the critical business functions and processes that could be disrupted by a disaster or incident, and estimates the potential impact on the organization’s operations, reputation and finances. A BIA is not a mandatory part of the annual audit planning process, but it can be used as an input for risk assessment or as a subject for audit. Fieldwork is the phase of an audit where the IS auditor collects evidence to support the audit objectives and conclusions. Fieldwork is not part of the annual audit planning process, but it is part of each individual audit engagement. A risk control matrix is a tool that maps the risks identified in a risk assessment to the controls that mitigate them. A risk control matrix is not a mandatory part of the annual audit planning process, but it can be used as an output of risk assessment or as a tool for audit testing. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version) 1, Chapter 1: Information Systems Auditing Process, Section 1.2: Audit Planning.

 Validating that assets are protected according to assigned classification is the primary role of the IS auditor in an organization’s information classification process. An IS auditor should evaluate whether the information security controls are adequate and effective in safeguarding the information assets based on their classification levels. The other options are not the primary role of the IS auditor, but rather the responsibilities of the information owners, custodians, or security managers. References:

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 6, Section 6.2.31

CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, Question ID 206

Understanding the specific agile methodology that will be followed is the first step that an IS auditor should do to ensure the effectiveness of the project audit. An IS auditor should familiarize themselves with the agile approach, principles, practices, and tools that will be used by the project team, as well as the roles and responsibilities of the project stakeholders. This will help the IS auditor to identify and assess the relevant risks and controls for the project audit. The other options are not the first steps that an IS auditor should do, but rather possible subsequent actions that may depend on the specific agile methodology. References:

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 4, Section 4.3.21

CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, Question ID 211

 The best way to ensure payment transaction data is restricted to the appropriate users is implementing role-based access at the application level. Role-based access is a method of access control that assigns permissions or privileges to users based on their roles or functions within an organization or system. Role-based access can help ensure that payment transaction data is restricted to the appropriate users, by allowing only authorized users who have a legitimate need orpurpose to access or use the payment transaction data, and preventing unauthorized or unnecessary access or use by other users. Implementing two-factor authentication is a possible way to enhance the security and verification of user identities, but it is not the best way to ensure payment transaction data is restricted to the appropriate users, as it does not define what permissions or privileges users have on the payment transaction data. Restricting access to transactions using network security software is a possible way to protect the network communication and transmission of payment transaction data, but it is not the best way to ensure payment transaction data is restricted to the appropriate users, as it does not specify what actions or operations users can perform on the payment transaction data. Using a single menu for sensitive application transactions is a possible way to simplify the user interface and navigation of payment transaction data, but it is not the best way to ensure payment transaction data is restricted to the appropriate users, as it does not limit what users can access or use the payment transaction data. 

In a RAO model, which stands for Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, and Informed, the accountable role must be assigned to only one individual. The accountable role is the person who has the ultimate authority and responsibility for the outcome of the project or task, and who approves or rejects the work done by the responsible role. The accountable role cannot be delegated or shared, as it is essential to have a clear and single point of accountability for each project or task.

The other roles can be assigned to more than one individual:

Responsible. This is the person who does the work or performs the task. There can be multiple responsible roles for different aspects or phases of a project or task, as long as they are coordinated and supervised by the accountable role.

Informed. This is the person who needs to be notified or updated about the progress or results of the project or task. There can be multiple informed roles who have an interest or stake in the project or task, but who do not need to be consulted or involved in the decision-making process.

Consulted. This is the person who provides input, feedback, or advice on the project or task. There can be multiple consulted roles who have expertise or experience relevant to the project or task, but who do not have the authority or responsibility to approve or reject the work done by the responsible role.

 A digital signature is a cryptographic technique that verifies the authenticity and integrity of a message or document, by using a hash function and an asymmetric encryption algorithm. A hash function is a mathematical function that transforms any input data into a fixed-length output value called a digest, which is unique for each input. An asymmetric encryption algorithm uses two keys: a public key and a private key. The public key can be shared with anyone, while the private key must be kept secret by the owner. To create a digital signature, the sender first applies a hash function to the plaintext message to generate a digest. Then, the sender encrypts the digest with their private key to produce the digital signature. To verify the digital signature, the receiver decrypts the digital signature with the sender’s public key to obtain the digest. Then, the receiver applies the same hash function to the plaintext message to generate another digest. If the two digests match, it means that the message has not been altered and that it came from the sender. The security of a digital signature depends on the secrecy of the sender’s private key. If an attacker obtains the sender’s private key, they can create fake digital signatures for any message they want, thus compromising the control provided by the digital signature. Reversing the hash function using the digest is not possible, as hash functions are designed to be one-way functions that cannot be inverted. Altering the plaintext message will result in a different digest after applying the hash function, which will not match with the decrypted digest from the digital signature, thus invalidating the digital signature. Deciphering the receiver’s public key is not relevant, as public keys are meant to be publicly available and do not affect the security of digital signatures. 

 Incremental backups are backups that only copy the data that has changed since the last backup, whether it was a full or incremental backup. The main reason to use incremental backups is to minimize the backup time and resources, as they require less storage space and network bandwidth than full backups. Incremental backups can also improve key availability metrics, such as recovery point objective (RPO) and recovery time objective (RTO), but that is not their primary purpose. Reducing costs associated with backups and increasing backup resiliency and redundancy are possible benefits of incremental backups, but they depend on other factors, such as the backup frequency, retention policy, and media type. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version): Chapter 5 - Information Systems Operations and Business Resilience

A change log is a record of all changes made to a system or application, including the date, time, description, and approval of each change. A change log can help an IS auditor to trace the source and authorization of a modification to a system’s security settings. A system event correlation report is a tool that analyzes data from multiple sources to identify patterns and anomalies that indicate potential security incidents. A database log is a record of all transactions and activities performed on a database, such as queries, updates, and backups. A security incident and event management (SIEM) report is a tool that collects, analyzes, and reports on data from various sources to detect and respond to security incidents. 

The system only allows payments to vendors who are included in the system’s master vendor list is an example of a preventative control in an accounts payable system. A preventative control is a control that aims to prevent errors or irregularities from occurring in the first place. By restricting payments to vendors who are authorized and verified in the master vendor list, the system prevents unauthorized or fraudulent payments from being made. The other options are examples of other types of controls, such as backup (recovery), reconciliation (detective), and communication (directive) controls. References: CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 223

 Reviewing a sample of system-generated backup logs is the best step to verify that regularly scheduled backups are timely and run to completion. Backup logs are records that document the details and results of backup operations, such as the date, time, duration, status, errors, and exceptions. By reviewing a sample of backup logs, the IS auditor can check whether the backups are performed according to the schedule and whether they are completed successfully or not. The other steps do not provide as much evidence or assurance as reviewing backup logs, as they do not show the actual outcome or performance of backup operations. References: CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 247

The best source of information for an IS auditor to use when determining whether an organization’s information security policy is adequate is the risk assessment results. The risk assessment results provide the auditor with an overview of the organization’s risk profile, including the identification, analysis, and evaluation of the risks that affect the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the information assets. The auditor can use the risk assessment results to compare the organization’s information security policy with the risk appetite, risk tolerance, and risk treatment strategies of the organization. The auditor can also use the risk assessment results to evaluate if the information security policy is aligned with the organization’s objectives, requirements, and regulations.

Some of the web sources that support this answer are:

Performance Measurement Guide for Information Security

ISO 27001 Annex A.5 - Information Security Policies

[CISA Certified Information Systems Auditor – Question0551]

 The IS auditor’s primary concern when auditing the proposed acquisition of new computer hardware is that a clear business case has been established. A business case is a document that justifies the need, feasibility, and benefits of a proposed project or investment. A clear business case can help to ensure that the acquisition of new computer hardware is aligned with the organization’s goals, objectives, and requirements, and that it provides value for money and return on investment. The other options are not as important as establishing a clear business case, as they do not address the rationale or justification for acquiring new computer hardware. References: CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 467

The most critical finding when reviewing an organization’s information security management is no periodic assessments to identify threats and vulnerabilities. Periodic assessments are essential for ensuring that the organization’s information security policies, procedures, standards, and controls are aligned with the current and emerging risks and threats that may affect its information assets. Without periodic assessments, the organization may not be aware of its actual security posture, gaps, or weaknesses, and may not be able to take appropriate measures to mitigate or prevent potential security incidents. No dedicated security officer, no official charter for the information security management system, and no employee awareness training and education program are also findings that may indicate some deficiencies in the organization’s information security management, but they are not as critical as no periodic assessments to identify threats and vulnerabilities. References: ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition, page 343.

 Access rights provisioned according to scheme would best help to support an auditor’s conclusion about the effectiveness of an implemented data classification program. This would indicate that the data classification program has been properly implemented and enforced, and that the data is protected according to its sensitivity and value. The other options are not sufficient to demonstrate the effectiveness of a data classification program, as they do not show how the data is actually accessed and used by authorized users. References:

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 6, Section 6.2.31

CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, Question ID 2042

The best way to prevent data leakage from a lost mobile device is data encryption on the mobile device. Data encryption is a technique that transforms data into an unreadable format using a secret key or algorithm. Data encryption protects data from unauthorized access or disclosure in case of loss or theft of a mobile device. Complex password policy for mobile devices, triggering of remote data wipe capabilities, and awareness training for mobile device users are useful measures to enhance data security on mobile devices, but they do not prevent data leakage as effectively as data encryption. A complex password policy can be bypassed by brute force attacks or password cracking tools. Remote data wipe capabilities depend on network connectivity and device power availability. Awareness training for mobile device users can reduce human errors or negligence, but it cannot guarantee compliance or behavior change. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version): Chapter 5 - Information Systems Operations and Business Resilience

The IS auditor’s next step after determining that many terminated users’ accounts were not disabled is to perform a review of terminated users’ account activity. This means that the IS auditor should check whether any of the terminated users’ accounts were accessed or used after their termination date, which could indicate unauthorized or fraudulent activity. The IS auditor should also assess the impact and risk of such activity on the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of IT resources and data. The other options are not as appropriate as performing a review of terminated users’ account activity, as they do not provide sufficient evidence or assurance of the extent and effect of the problem. References: CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 240

 Changes to the job scheduler application’s parameters are not approved and reviewed by an operations supervisor. This is a serious control weakness that could compromise the integrity, availability, and security of the IT operations. An IS auditor should be concerned about the lack of oversight and accountability for such changes, which could result in unauthorized, erroneous, or malicious modifications that affect the processing environment. The other options are less critical issues that may not have a significant impact on the IT operations. References:

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 4, Section 4.2.3.11

CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, Question ID 202

 The exact definition of the service levels and their measurement is the first thing that the IS auditor should review in order to understand the problem of different opinions on the availability of their application servers. Service levels are the agreed-upon standards or targets for delivering IT services, such as availability, reliability, performance, and security. Service level measurement is the process of collecting, analyzing, and reporting data related to the achievement of service levels. By reviewing the exact definition of the service levels and their measurement, the IS auditor can identify any gaps, inconsistencies, or ambiguities that may cause confusion or disagreement among IT and the business. The other options are not as important as reviewing the exact definition of the service levels and their measurement, as they do not address the root cause of the problem. References: CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition,page 372

The impact if corrective actions are not taken is the most important factor to consider when scheduling follow-up audits. An IS auditor should prioritize the follow-up audits based on the risk and potential consequences of not addressing the audit findings and recommendations. The other options are less important factors that may affect the timing and scope of the follow-up audits, but not their necessity or urgency. References:

CISA Review Manual(Digital Version), Chapter 2, Section 2.5.31

CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, Question ID 207

 An IS auditor is conducting a review of a data center. An observation that could indicate an access control issue is muddy footprints directly inside the emergency exit. Access control is a process that ensures that only authorized entities or individuals can access or use an information system or resource, and prevents unauthorized access or use. Access control can be implemented using various methods or mechanisms, such as physical, logical, administrative, etc. Muddy footprints directly inside the emergency exit could indicate an access control issue, as they could suggest that someone has entered the data center through the emergency exit without proper authorization or authentication, and potentially compromised the security or integrity of the data center. Security cameras deployed outside main entrance is not an observation that could indicate an access control issue, but rather a control that could enhance access control, as security cameras are devices that capture and record video footage of the surroundings, and can help monitor and deter unauthorized access or activity. Antistatic mats deployed at the computer room entrance is not an observation that could indicate an access control issue, but rather a control that could prevent static electricity damage, as antistatic mats are devices that dissipate or reduce static charges from people or objects, and can help protect electronic equipment from electrostatic discharge (ESD). Fencing around facility is two meters high is not an observation that could indicate an access control issue, but rather a control that could improve physical security, as fencing is a barrier that encloses or surrounds an area, and can help prevent unauthorized entry or intrusion. 

According to the ISACA’s Information Security Governance Guidance for Boards of Directors and Executive Management, the highest level of maturity of an information security program is Level 5: Optimized, which means that the program is aligned with the business objectives and strategy, and continuously monitors and improves its performance and effectiveness. A framework is in place to measure risks and track effectiveness, and the program is proactive, adaptive, and innovative.

The other options represent lower levels of maturity:

A training program is in place to promote information security awareness. This is Level 2: Repeatable, which means that the program has some basic policies and procedures, and provides awareness training to employees.

Information security policies and procedures are established. This is Level 3: Defined, which means that the program has formalized policies and procedures, and assigns roles and responsibilities for information security.

The program meets regulatory and compliance requirements. This is Level 4: Managed, which means that the program has established metrics and reporting mechanisms, and complies with relevant laws and regulations.

The greatest risk associated with storing customer data on a web server is data confidentiality. Data confidentiality is the property that ensures that data are accessible only to authorized entities or individuals, and protected from unauthorized disclosure or exposure. Storing customer data on a web server poses a high risk to data confidentiality, as web servers are exposed to the internet and may be vulnerable to various types of attacks or breaches that can compromise the security and privacy of customer data, such as hacking, phishing, malware, denial of service (DoS), etc. Customer data may contain sensitive or personal information that can cause harm or damage to customers or the organization if disclosed or exposed, such as identity theft, fraud, reputation loss, legal liability, etc. Data availability is the property that ensures that data are accessible and usable by authorized entities or individuals when needed. Data availability is a risk associated with storing customer data on a web server, as web servers may experience failures or disruptions that can affect the accessibility and usability of customer data, such as hardware faults, network issues, power outages, etc. However, data availability is not the greatest risk associated with storing customer data on a web server, as it does not affect the security and privacy of customer data. Data integrity is the property that ensures that data are accurate and consistent, and protected from unauthorized modification or corruption. Data integrity is a risk associated with storing customer data on a web server, as web servers may be subject to attacks or errors that can affect the accuracy and consistency of customer data, such as injection attacks, tampering, replication issues, etc. However, data integrity is not the greatest risk associated with storing customer data on a web server, as it does not affect the security and privacy of customer data. Data redundancy is the condition of having duplicate or unnecessary data in a database or system. Data redundancy is not a risk associated with storing customer data on a web server, but rather a result of poor database design or management. 

Clustering is a technique that groups multiple servers or nodes together to act as one system, providing high availability, scalability, and load balancing for applications or services. Clustering can improve system resiliency, which is the ability of a system to withstand or recover from failures or disruptions without compromising its functionality or performance. Clustering can achieve this by providing redundancy and fault tolerance for critical components or processes, enabling automatic failover and recovery in case of node failures, distributing workload among multiple nodes to avoid overloading or bottlenecks, and allowing dynamic addition or removal of nodes to meet changingdemand or capacity needs. Clustering may also decrease system response time by improving performance and efficiency through load balancing and parallel processing, but this is not its primary purpose. Clustering may facilitate faster backups by enabling concurrent backup operations across multiple nodes, but this is not its main benefit. Clustering may improve the recovery time objective (RTO), which is the maximum acceptable time for restoring a system or service after a disruption, by reducing the downtime and data loss caused by failures, but this is not the best reason for using clustering, as there may be other factors that affect the RTO, such as backup frequency, recovery procedures, and testing methods. 

The best recommendation is to place an intrusion detection system (IDS) between the firewall and the Internet. An IDS is a device or software that monitors network traffic for malicious activity and alerts the network administrator or takes preventive action. By placing an IDS between the firewall and the Internet, the IS auditor can enhance the security of the network perimeter and detect any attack attempts that the firewall was unable to recognize.

The other options are not as effective as placing an IDS between the firewall and the Internet:

Placing an IDS between the firewall and the organization’s web server would not protect the web server from external attacks that bypass the firewall. The web server should be placed in a demilitarized zone (DMZ), which is a separate network segment that isolates public-facing servers from the internal network.

Placing an IDS between the firewall and the demilitarized zone (DMZ) would not protect the DMZ from external attacks that bypass the firewall. The DMZ should be protected by twofirewalls, one facing the Internet and one facing the internal network, with an IDS monitoring both sides of each firewall.

Placing an IDS between the firewall and the organization’s network would not protect the organization’s network from external attacks that bypass the firewall. The organization’s network should be protected by a firewall that blocks unauthorized traffic from entering or leaving the network, with an IDS monitoring both sides of the firewall.

 Decreased time for incident resolution is the best indicator that an incident management process is effective. Incident management is a process that aims to restore normal service operation as quickly as possible after an incident, which is an unplanned interruption or reduction in quality of an IT service. Decreased time for incident resolution means that the incident management process is able to identify, analyze, respond to, and resolve incidents efficiently and effectively. The other indicatorsdo not necessarily reflect the effectiveness of the incident management process, as they may depend on other factors such as the nature, frequency, and severity of incidents. References: CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 372

 The results of the previous audit are an important source of information for an IS auditor to consider when performing the risk assessment prior to an audit engagement, as they can provide insights into the current state and performance of the auditee, identify any issues or gaps that need to be followed up or addressed, and highlight any areas that require special attention or focus. The designof controls is an important factor to evaluate during an audit engagement, but it is not the most important thing to consider when performing the risk assessment prior to an audit engagement, as it does not reflect the actual implementation or effectiveness of the controls. Industry standards and best practices are useful benchmarks or guidelines for an IS auditor to compare or measure against during an audit engagement, but they are not the most important thing to consider when performing the risk assessment prior to an audit engagement, as they may not be applicable or relevant to the specific context or objectives of the auditee. The amount of time since the previous audit is a relevant criterion to determine the frequency or timing of an audit engagement, but it is not the most important thing to consider when performing the risk assessment prior to an audit engagement, as it does not indicate the level or nature of risk associated with the auditee. 

 Requiring written authorization for all payment transactions is the IS auditor’s best recommendation for a compensating control in an environment where segregation of duties (SoD) cannot be enforced in an accounts payable system. SoD is a principle that requires different individuals or functions to perform different tasks or roles in a business process, such as initiating, approving, recording and reconciling transactions. SoD reduces the risk of errors, fraud and misuse of resources by preventing any single person or function from having excessive or conflicting authority or responsibility. A compensating control is a control that mitigates or reduces the risk associated with the absence or weakness of another control. Requiring written authorization for all payment transactions is a compensating control that provides an independent verification and approval of each transaction before it is processed by the accounts payable system. This control can help to detect and prevent unauthorized, duplicate or erroneous payments, and to ensure compliance with policies and procedures. The other options are not as effective as option A, as they do not provide an independent verification or approval of payment transactions. Restricting payment authorization to senior staff members is a control that limits the number of people who can authorize payments, but it does not prevent them from initiating or processing payments themselves, which could violate SoD. Reconciling payment transactions with invoices is a control that verifies that the payments match the invoices, but it does not prevent unauthorized, duplicate or erroneous payments from being processed by the accounts payable system. Reviewing payment transaction history is a control that monitors and analyzes thepayment transactions after they have been processed by the accounts payable system, but it does not prevent unauthorized, duplicate or erroneous payments from occurring in the first place. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version) , Chapter 5: Protection of Information Assets, Section 5.2: Logical Access.

Business stakeholders being involved in approving the IT strategy best demonstrates that IT strategy is aligned with organizational goals and objectives. IT strategy is a plan that defines how IT resources and capabilities will support and enable the achievement of business goals and objectives. Business stakeholders are the individuals or groups who have an interest or influence in the organization’s activities and outcomes. By involving business stakeholders in approving the IT strategy, the organization can ensure that the IT strategy reflects and supports the business needs, expectations, and priorities. The other options do not necessarily indicate that IT strategy is aligned with organizational goals and objectives, as they do not involve the participation or feedback of business stakeholders. References: CISAReview Manual, 27th Edition, page 97

The best source of information for an IS auditor to use as a baseline to assess the adequacy of an organization’s privacy policy is the local privacy standards and regulations. Privacy standards and regulations are legal requirements that specify how personal data should be collected, processed, stored, shared, and disposed of by organizations. By using local privacy standards and regulations as a baseline, the IS auditor can ensure that the organization’s privacy policy complies with the applicable laws and protects the rights and interests of data subjects. Historical privacy breaches and related root causes, globally accepted privacy best practices, and benchmark studies of similar organizations are useful sources of information for improving an organization’s privacy policy, but they are not as authoritative and relevant as local privacy standards and regulations. References: CISAReview Manual (Digital Version): Chapter 2 - Governance and Management of Information Technology

The IS auditor’s primary concern when an organization has recently implemented a Voice-over IP (VoIP) communication system is a single point of failure for both voice and data communications. VoIP is a technology that allows voice communication over IP networks such as the internet. VoIP can offer benefits such as lower costs, higher flexibility, and better integration with other applications. However, VoIP also introduces risks such as dependency on network availability, performance, and security. If both voice and data communications share the same network infrastructure and devices, then a single point of failure can affect both services simultaneously and cause significant disruption to business operations. Therefore, the IS auditor should evaluate the availability and redundancy of the network components and devices that support VoIP communication. The other options are not as critical as a single point of failure for both voice and data communications, as they do not pose a direct threat to business continuity. References: CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 385

 Capacity management is a process that ensures that the IT resources of an organization are sufficient to meet the current and future demands of the business. Capacity management enables organizations to identify the extent to which components need to be upgraded, by monitoring and analyzing the performance, utilization, and availability of the IT components, such as servers, networks, storage, applications, etc., and identifying any bottlenecks, gaps, or risks that may affect the service level agreements (SLAs) or quality of service (QoS). Capacity management also helps organizations to plan and optimize the use of IT resources, by forecasting the future demand and growth of the business, and aligning the IT capacity with the business needs and objectives. Forecasting technology trends is a possible outcome of capacity management, but it is not its main purpose. Establishing the capacity of network communication links is a part of capacity management, but it is not its main goal. Determining business transaction volumes is an input for capacity management, but it is not its main objective.

 Team member assignments based on individual competencies is the most important factor to meet the IS audit standard for proficiency. Proficiency is the ability to apply knowledge, skills and experience to perform audit tasks effectively and efficiently. The IS audit standard for proficiency requires that IS auditors must possess the knowledge, skills and discipline to perform audit tasks in accordance with applicable standards, guidelines and procedures. Team member assignments based on individual competencies is a way to ensure that each IS auditor is assigned to audit tasks that match their level of proficiency, and that the audit team as a whole has sufficient and appropriate proficiency to conduct the audit. The other options are not as important as option C, as they do not ensure that the IS auditors have the required proficiency to perform audit tasks. Having a globally recognized audit certification is a way to demonstrate proficiency in IS auditing, but it does not guarantee that the IS auditor has the specific knowledge, skills and experience needed for a particular audit task or system. Technical co-sourcing is a way to supplement the proficiency of the IS audit team by hiring external experts or consultants to perform certain audit tasks or functions, but it does not replace the need for internal IS auditors to have adequate proficiency. Having a supervisor review the new auditors’ work is a way to ensure quality and accuracy of the audit work, but it does not ensure that the new auditors have the necessary proficiency to perform audit tasks independently or competently. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version) , Chapter 1: Information Systems Auditing Process, Section 1.4: Audit Skills and Competencies.

The most assurance over the completeness and accuracy of loan application processing with respect to the implementation of a new system can be obtained by running historical transactions through the new system. Historical transactions are transactions that have been processed and recorded by the old system in the past. Running historical transactions through the new system can provide the most assurance over the completeness and accuracy of loan application processing, bycomparing the results and outputs of the new system with those of the old system, and verifying whether they match or differ. This can help identify and resolve any errors or issues that may arise from the new system, such as data conversion, functionality, compatibility, etc. Comparing code between old and new systems is a possible way to obtain some assurance over the completeness and accuracy of loan application processing with respect to the implementation of a new system, but it is not the most effective one. Code is a set of instructions or commands that define how a system operates or functions. Comparing code between old and new systems can provide some assurance over the completeness and accuracy of loan application processing, by checking whether the logic, algorithms, or functions of the new system are consistent or equivalent with those of the old system. However, this may not be sufficient or reliable, as code may not reflect the actual performance or outcomes of the system, and may not detect any errors or issues that may occur at the data or user level. Reviewing quality assurance (QA) procedures is a possible way to obtain some assurance over the completeness and accuracy of loan application processing with respect to the implementation of a new system, but it is not the most effective one. QA procedures are steps or activities that ensure that a system meets its quality standards and requirements, such as testing, verification, validation, etc. Reviewing QA procedures can provide some assurance over the completeness and accuracy of loan application processing, by evaluating whether the new system has been properly tested and verified before implementation. However, this may not be adequate or accurate, as QA procedures may not cover all aspects or scenarios of loan application processing, and may not reveal any errors or issues that may arise after implementation. Loading balance and transaction data to the new system is a possible way to obtain some assurance over the completeness and accuracy of loan application processing with respect to the implementation of a new system, but it is not the most effective one. Balance and transaction data are data that reflect the status and history of loan applications in a system, such as amounts, dates, payments, etc. Loading balance and transaction data to the new system can provide some assurance over the completeness and accuracy of loan application processing, by transferring data from the old system to the new system and ensuring that they are consistent and correct. However, this may not be enough or valid, as balance and transaction data may not represent all aspects or features of loan application processing, and may not indicate any errors or issues that may arise

 Following a configuration management process to maintain applications is the primary reason for ensuring proper change control. Configuration management is a process of identifying, documenting, controlling, and verifying the configuration items and their interrelationships within an IT system or environment. Following a configuration management process can help to ensure that any changes to the applications are authorized, tested, documented, and tracked throughout their lifecycle. This will help to prevent unauthorized or improper changes that could affect the functionality, performance, or security of the applications. The other options are not the primary reasons for following a configuration management process, but rather possible benefits or outcomes of doing so. References:

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 4, Section 4.3.31

CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, Question ID 225

 Developing the CSA questionnaire is an activity that would allow an IS auditor to maintain independence while facilitating a control self-assessment (CSA). An IS auditor can design and provide a CSA questionnaire to help the business units or process owners to evaluate their own controls and identify any issues or improvement opportunities. This will enable an IS auditor to support and guide the CSA process without compromising their objectivity or independence. The other options are activities that would impair an IS auditor’s independence while facilitating a CSA, as they involve implementing, completing, or developing remediation actions for control issues. References:

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 2, Section 2.41

CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, Question ID 215

The observation that should be of most concern to the auditor when reviewing security controls related to collaboration tools for a business unit responsible for intellectual property and patents is that employees can share files with users outside the company through collaboration tools. Collaboration tools are software or hardware devices that enable users to communicate, cooperate, and coordinate with each other on a common task or project. Collaboration tools can facilitate information sharing and knowledge exchange among users, but they can also pose security risks if not properly controlled or managed. Employees can share files with users outside the company through collaboration tools, as this can compromise the security and confidentiality of intellectual property and patents, which are valuable and sensitive assets of the organization. Employees may share files with unauthorized or untrusted users who may misuse or disclose the intellectual property and patents, either intentionally or unintentionally. This can cause harm or damage to the organization, such as loss of competitive advantage, reputation, revenue, or legal rights. Training was not provided to the department that handles intellectual property and patents is a possible observation that could indicate a security issue related to collaboration tools for a business unit responsible for intellectual property and patents, but it is not the most concerning one. Training is anactivity that educates and instructs users on how to use collaboration tools effectively and securely, such as how to access, share, store, and protect information using collaboration tools. Training was not provided to the department that handles intellectual property and patents, as this can affect the awareness and competence of users on collaboration tools, and increase the likelihood of errors or mistakes that may compromise the security or quality of information. However, this observation may not be directly related to collaboration tools, as it may apply to any information system or resource used by the department. Logging and monitoring for content filtering is not enabled is a possible observation that could indicate a security issue related to collaboration tools for a business unit responsible for intellectual property and patents, but it is not the most concerning one. Logging and monitoring are processes that record and analyze the events or activities that occur on an information system or network, such as user actions, system operations, data changes, errors, alerts, etc. Content filtering is a technique that blocks or allows access to certain types of information based on predefined criteria or rules, such as keywords, categories, sources, etc. Logging and monitoring for content filtering is not enabled, as this can affect the auditability, accountability, and visibility of collaboration tools, and prevent detection or investigation of security incidents or violations related to information sharing using collaboration tools. However, this observation may not be specific to collaboration tools, as it may affect any information system or network that uses content filtering. The collaboration tool is hosted and can only be accessed via an Internet browser is a possible observation that could indicate a security issue related to collaboration tools for a business unit responsible for intellectual property and patents, but it is not the most concerning one. A hosted collaboration tool is a type of cloud-based service that provides collaboration functionality over the Internet without requiring installation or maintenance on local devices. An Internet browser is a software application that enables users to access and interact with web-based content or services. The collaboration tool is hosted and can only be accessed via an Internet browser, as this can affect the availability and reliability of collaboration tools, and introduce security or privacy risks for information sharing using collaboration tools. However, this observation may not be unique to collaboration tools, as it may apply to any cloud-based service that uses an Internet browser. 

The best way to prevent accepting bad data from a third-party service provider is to implement business rules to reject invalid data. Business rules are logical statements that define the data quality requirements and standards for the organization. By implementing business rules, the organization can ensure that only data that meets the predefined criteria is accepted into the enterprise data warehouse. Obtaining error codes indicating failed data feeds, purchasing data cleansing tools from a reputable vendor, and appointing data quality champions across the organization are useful measures to improve data quality, but they do not prevent accepting bad data in the first place. References: ISACA Journal Article: Data Quality Management

 A staging environment is a replica of the production environment that is used to test and verify software before deploying it to production. A staging environment is most likely to have the same software version as production, as it mimics the real-world conditions and configurations that will be encountered in production. A testing environment is a separate environment that is used to perform various types of testing on software, such as functional testing, performance testing, security testing, etc. A testing environment may not have the same software version as production, as it may undergo frequent changes or updates based on testing results or feedback. An integration environment is a separate environment that is used to combine and test software components or modules from different developers or sources, to ensure that they work together as expected. An integration environment may not have the same software version as production, as it may involve different versions or branches of software from different sources. A development environment is a separate environment that is used by developers to create and modify software code. A development environment may not have the same software version as production, as it may contain unfinished or untested code that has not been released yet.

 A nondisclosure agreement (NDA) is the best way to protect an organization’s proprietary code during a joint-development activity involving a third party. An NDA is a legal contract that binds the parties involved in a joint-development activity to keep confidential any information, data or materials that are shared or exchanged during the activity. An NDA specifies what constitutes confidential information, how it can be used, disclosed or protected, how long it remains confidential, what are the exceptions and remedies for breach of confidentiality, and other terms and conditions. An NDA can help to protect an organization’s proprietary code from being copied, modified, distributed or exploited by unauthorized parties without its consent or knowledge. The other options are not as effective as option B, as they do not address confidentiality issues specifically. A statement of work (SOW) is a document that defines the scope, objectives, deliverables, tasks, roles, responsibilities, timelines and costs of a joint-development activity, but it does not cover confidentiality issues explicitly. A service level agreement (SLA) is a document that defines the quality, performance and availability standards and metrics for a service provided by one party to another party in a joint-development activity, but it does not cover confidentiality issues explicitly. A privacy agreement is a document that defines how personal information collected from customers or users is collected, used, disclosed and protected by one party or both parties in a joint-development activity, but it does not cover confidentiality issues related to proprietary code. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version) , Chapter 3: Information Systems Acquisition, Development & Implementation, Section 3.2: Project Management Practices.

The most important determining factor when establishing appropriate timeframes for follow-up activities related to audit findings is the remediation dates included in management responses. The IS auditor should ensure that the follow-up activities are aligned with the agreed-upon action plans and deadlines that management has committed to in response to the audit findings. The follow-up activities should verify that management has implemented the corrective actions effectively and in a timely manner, and that the audit findings have been resolved or mitigated.

The other options are less important factors for establishing timeframes for follow-up activities:

Availability of IS audit resources. This is a practical factor that may affect the scheduling and execution of follow-up activities, but it should not override the priority and urgency of verifying management’s corrective actions.

Peak activity periods for the business. This is a factor that may affect the availability and cooperation of auditees during follow-up activities, but it should not delay or postpone the verification of management’s corrective actions beyond reasonable limits.

Complexity of business processes identified in the audit. This is a factor that may affect the scope and depth of follow-up activities, but it should not affect the timeframe for verifying management’s corrective actions.

Ensuring access rules agree with policies is an information systems security officer’s primary responsibility for business process applications. An information systems security officer should verifythat the access controls implemented for the business process applications are consistent with the organization’s security policy and objectives. The other options are not the primary responsibility of an information systems security officer, but rather the tasks of an application owner, a senior management, or a business analyst. References:

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 7, Section 7.3.11

CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, Question ID 208

 Restricting program functionality according to user security profiles is the best control for ensuring appropriate segregation of duties within an accounts payable department. An IS auditor should verify that the access rights and permissions of the accounts payable staff are based on their roles and responsibilities, and that they are not able to perform incompatible or conflicting functions such as creating, approving, or paying invoices. This will help to prevent fraud, errors, or abuse of authority within the accounts payable process. The other options are less effective controls for ensuring segregation of duties, as they may involve audit trails, access restrictions, or user identification. References:

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 6, Section 6.31

CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database,Question ID 223

This should result in a finding because it violates the best practice of setting rules for groups rather than users. According to one of the web search results1, using group permissions instead of individual permissions can simplify the management and maintenance of ACLs, reduce the risk of human errors, and ensure consistency and compliance. Individual permissions can create conflicts, confusion, and security gaps in the ACLs. Therefore, the IS auditor should report this as a finding and recommend using group permissions instead.

 The greatest benefit of using a prototyping approach in software development is that it helps to conceptualize and clarify requirements. A prototyping approach is a method of creating a simplified or partial version of a software product to demonstrate its features and functionality. A prototyping approach can help to elicit, validate, and refine the requirements of the software product, as well as to obtain feedback from the users and stakeholders. The other options are not the greatest benefits of using a prototyping approach, but rather possible outcomes or advantages of doing so. References:

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 4, Section 4.3.11

CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, Question ID 227

 This should be the IS auditor’s greatest concern, because it means that the organization has not considered the potential impact of the cloud document storage solution on its ability to continue its operations in the event of a disruption or disaster. A BCP is a document that outlines the procedures and actions to be taken in order to maintain or resume critical business functions during and after a crisis. A BCP should be updated whenever there is a significant change in the organization’s IT infrastructure, systems, processes, or dependencies, such as implementing a cloud document storage solution. The IS auditor should verify that the BCP reflects the current state of the organization’s IT environment, and that it addresses the risks, challenges, and opportunities associated with the cloud document storage solution.

The other options are not as concerning as the BCP not being updated:

Users are not required to sign updated acceptable use agreements. This is a minor concern, but it does not pose a major threat to the organization’s business continuity. Acceptable use agreements are documents that define the rules and guidelines for using IT resources, such as the cloud document storage solution. Users should sign updated acceptable use agreements to acknowledge their responsibilities and obligations, and to comply with the organization’s policies and standards. However, this does not affect the organization’s ability to continue its operations in a crisis.

Users have not been trained on the new system. This is a moderate concern, but it does not jeopardize the organization’s business continuity. Training users on the new system is important to ensure that they can use it effectively and efficiently, and to avoid errors or misuse that could compromise the security or performance of the system. However, this does not prevent the organization from accessing or restoring its data in a crisis.

Mobile devices are not encrypted. This is a serious concern, but it does not directly impact the organization’s business continuity. Encrypting mobile devices is a security measure thatprotects the data stored on them from unauthorized access or disclosure in case of loss or theft. However, this does not affect the availability or integrity of the data stored in the cloud document storage solution, which should have its own encryption mechanisms.

 The business process supported by the system is the most important factor for an IS auditor to understand when planning an audit to assess application controls of a cloud-based system. An IS auditor should have a clear understanding of the business objectives, requirements, and risks of the process, as well as the expected outputs and outcomes of the system. This will help the IS auditor to determine the scope, objectives, and criteria of the audit, as well as to identify and evaluate the key application controls that ensure the effectiveness, efficiency, and reliability of the process. The other options are less important factors that may provide additional information or context for the audit, but not its primary focus. References:

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5,Section 5.31

CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, Question ID 212

The greatest concern for an IS auditor when reviewing IT policies and procedures that are not regularly reviewed and updated is that policies and procedures might not reflect current practices. Policies are documents that define the goals, objectives, and guidelines for an organization’s information systems and resources. Procedures are documents that describe the steps, tasks, or activities for implementing or executing policies. Policies and procedures should be regularly reviewed and updated to ensure that they are relevant, accurate, consistent, and effective for the organization’s information systems and resources. Policies and procedures that are not regularly reviewed and updated might not reflect current practices, as they might be outdated, obsolete, or incompatible with the current state or needs of the organization’s information systems and resources. This can cause confusion, inconsistency, inefficiency, or noncompliance among users or stakeholders who rely on policies and procedures for guidance or direction. Policies and procedures might not include new systems and corresponding process changes is a possible concern for an IS auditor when reviewing IT policies and procedures that are not regularly reviewed and updated, but it is not the greatest one. Policies and procedures might not include new systems and corresponding process changes, as they might be unaware of or unresponsive to the introduction or modification of information systems or resources within the organization. This can cause gaps, overlaps, or conflicts among policies and procedures that affect different information systems or resources. 

 The best environment for copying data and transforming it into a compatible data warehouse format is the staging environment. The staging environment is a temporary area where data from various sources are extracted, transformed, and loaded (ETL) before being moved to the data warehouse. The staging environment allows for data cleansing, validation, integration, and standardization without affecting the source or target systems. The testing environment is not suitable for copying data and transforming it into a compatible data warehouse format, as it is used for verifying and validating the functionality and performance of applications or systems. The replication environment is not suitable for copying data and transforming it into a compatible data warehouse format, as it is used for creating identical copies of data or systems for backup or recovery purposes. The development environment is not suitable for copying data and transforming it into a compatible data warehouse format, as it is used for creating or modifying applications or systems. References:

CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, pages 475-4761

CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, Question ID: 2642

 Antivirus software has been implemented on the guest operating system only is the observation that an IS auditor would consider the greatest risk when conducting an audit of a virtual server farm for potential software vulnerabilities. A virtual server farm is a collection of servers that run multiple virtual machines (VMs) on a single physical host using a software layer called a hypervisor. A guest operating system is the operating system installed on each VM. Antivirus software is a software program that detects and removes malicious software from a computer system. If antivirus software has been implemented on the guest operating system only, it means that the hypervisor and the host operating system are not protected from malware attacks, which could compromise the security and availability of all VMs running on the same host. Therefore, antivirus software should be implemented on both the guest and host operating systems as well as on the hypervisor. References: CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 378

 A network firewall is a device or software that monitors and controls the incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predefined rules. A network firewall can help reduce the risk of denial of service (DoS) attacks, which are attempts to overwhelm a system or network with excessive requests or traffic, by filtering or blocking unwanted or malicious packets. A SQL injection attack is a type of code injection attack that exploits a vulnerability in a web application’s database query, by inserting malicious SQL statements into the input fields. A phishing attack is a type of social engineering attack that attempts to trick users into revealing sensitive information or installing malware, by sending fraudulent emails or messages that impersonate legitimate entities. An insider attack is a type of malicious activity that originates from within an organization, such as employees, contractors, or partners, who abuse their access privileges or credentials to compromise the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of information systems or data. A network firewall cannot prevent these types of attacks, as they rely on exploiting human or application weaknesses rather than network vulnerabilities.

Determining accountability of data owners is the most important activity in the data classification process. Data classification is a process that assigns categories or labels to data based on their value, sensitivity, criticality and risk to the organization. Data classification helps to determine the appropriate level of protection, access and retention for data. Determining accountability of data owners is an activity that identifies and assigns roles and responsibilities for data classification, protection and management to individuals or functions within the organization. Data owners are individuals or functions who have authority and responsibility for defining, classifying, protecting and managing data throughout their lifecycle. Determining accountability of data owners is essential for ensuring that data are classified correctly and consistently, and that data classification policies and procedures are followed and enforced. The other options are not as important as option C, as they are dependent on or derived from the accountability of data owners. Labeling the data appropriately is an activity that applies the categories or labels assigned by data owners to data based on their classification criteria. Identifying risk associated with the data is an activity that assesses the potential impact and likelihood of loss, disclosure, modification or destruction of data based on their classification level. Determining the adequacy of privacy controls is an activity that evaluates whether the controls implemented to protect personal or sensitive data are sufficient and effective based on their classification level. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version) , Chapter 5: Protection of Information Assets, Section 5.3: Data Classification.

The best source of information for IT management to estimate resource requirements for future projects is the records of actual time spent on projects. This data can provide a realistic and reliable basis for forecasting future resource needs based on historical trends and patterns. The records of actual time spent on projects can also help IT management to identify any gaps or inefficiencies in resource allocation and utilization. The human resources (HR) sourcing strategy is not a good source of information for estimating resource requirements for future projects, as it may not reflect the actual demand and availability of IT resources. The peer organization staffing benchmarks are not a good source of information for estimating resource requirements for future projects, as they may not account for the specific characteristics and needs of each organization. The budgeted forecast for the next financial year is not a good source of information for estimating resource requirements for future projects, as it may not be based on accurate or realistic assumptions. References:

CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, pages 465-4661

CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database,Question ID: 263

 The most important reason to classify a disaster recovery plan (DRP) as confidential is to reduce the risk of data leakage that could lead to an attack. A DRP contains sensitive information about the organization’s IT infrastructure, systems, processes, and procedures for recovering from a disaster. If this information falls into the wrong hands, it could be exploited by malicious actors to launch targeted attacks, sabotage recovery efforts, or extort ransom. Therefore, a DRP should be protected from unauthorized access, disclosure, modification, or destruction.

The other options are not as important as reducing the risk of data leakage that could lead to an attack:

Ensuring compliance with the data classification policy is a good practice, but it is not a sufficient reason to classify a DRP as confidential. The data classification policy should reflect the level of risk and impact associated with each type of data, and a DRP should be classified as confidential based on its potential harm if compromised.

Protecting the plan from unauthorized alteration is a valid concern, but it is not a primary reason to classify a DRP as confidential. A DRP should be protected from unauthorized alteration by implementing access controls, audit trails, version control, and change management processes. Classifying a DRP as confidential may deter some unauthorized alterations, but it does not prevent them.

Complying with business continuity best practice is a desirable goal, but it is not a compelling reason to classify a DRP as confidential. Business continuity best practice may recommend classifying a DRP as confidential, but it does not mandate it. The decision to classify a DRP as confidential should be based on a risk assessment and a cost-benefit analysis.

 To ensure that management concerns are addressed, internal audit should recommend that the data quality team review the data reported to the regulatory body first. This is because this data set is the most relevant and critical to the issue that triggered the enhancement of the data quality program. The data reported to the regulatory body should be accurate, complete, consistent, and timely, as any discrepancies could result in fines, penalties, or reputational damage for the organization.Data with customer personal information is important for data quality, but it is not directly related to the regulatory reporting issue. Data supporting financial statements is important for data quality, but it may not be the same as the data reported to the regulatory body. Data impacting business objectives is important for data quality, but it may not be as urgent or sensitive as the data reported to the regulatory body. References:

CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, pages 404-4051

CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, Question ID: 262

IT disaster recovery time objectives (RTOs) are the maximum acceptable time that an IT system can be unavailable after a disaster before it causes unacceptable consequences for the business. IT RTOs should be based on the business-defined criticality of the systems, which reflects how important they are for supporting the business processes and functions. The maximum tolerable loss of data, the nature of the outage, and the maximum tolerable downtime (MTD) are also factors that affect the IT RTOs, but they are not the primary basis for determining them. 

The most important factor for the organization to ensure when reducing the retention period for media containing completed low-value transactions is that the retention period complies with data owner responsibilities. Data owners are accountable for defining the retention and disposal requirements for the data under their custody, based on business, legal, regulatory, and contractual obligations. The policy should reflect the data owner’s decisions and obtain their approval. The policy should also include a risk-based approach, but this is not as important as complying with data owner responsibilities. The retention period should allow for review during the year-end audit, but this may not be necessary for low-value transactions that have minimal impact on financial reporting. The total transaction amount may have some impact on financial reporting, but this is not a direct consequence of reducing the retention period. References:

CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, pages 414-4151

CISA Review Questions, Answers & ExplanationsDatabase, Question ID: 255

Recent third-party IS audit reports would be most helpful in determining the effectiveness of the IT governance framework of the target company. IT governance is a framework that defines the roles, responsibilities, and processes for aligning IT strategy with business strategy. A third-party IS audit is an independent and objective examination of an organization’s IT governance framework by an external auditor. Recent third-party IS audit reports can provide reliable and unbiased evidence of the strengths, weaknesses, and maturity of the IT governance framework of the target company. The other options are not as helpful as recent third-party IS audit reports, as they may not be as comprehensive, accurate, or current as external audits. References: CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 94

 Upon completion of audit work, an IS auditor should distribute a summary of general findings to the members of the auditing team. This is to ensure that the audit team members are aware of the audit results, have an opportunity to provide feedback, and can agree on the audit conclusions and recommendations. Providing a report to senior management prior to discussion with the auditee, providing a report to the auditee stating the initial findings, and reviewing the working papers with the auditee are not appropriate actions for an IS auditor to take upon completion of audit work, as they may compromise the audit independence, objectivity, and quality. References: ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition, page 221

The primary reason for an IS auditor to use data analytics techniques is to reduce detection risk. Detection risk is the risk that an IS auditor will fail to detect material errors or irregularities in the information systems environment. By using data analytics techniques, such as data extraction, analysis, visualization, and reporting, an IS auditor can enhance the audit scope, coverage, efficiency, and effectiveness. Data analytics techniques can help an IS auditor to identify anomalies, patterns, trends, correlations, and outliers in large volumes of data that may indicate potential issues or risks. Technology risk, control risk, and inherent risk are types of audit risk that are not directly affected by the use of data analytics techniques by an IS auditor. References: [ISACA Journal Article: Data Analytics for Auditors]

The greatest concern for an IS auditor when an international organization intends to roll out a global data privacy policy is that local regulations may contradict the policy. Data privacy regulations vary across different countries and regions, and they may impose different or conflicting requirements on how personal data can be collected, processed, stored, transferred, and disclosed. The organization should ensure that its global data privacy policy complies with the applicable local regulations in each jurisdiction where it operates, or risk facing legal sanctions or reputational damage. Requirements may become unreasonable, but this is not a major concern for an IS auditor, as it is a business decision that should be based on a cost-benefit analysis. The policy may conflict with existing application requirements, but this is not a serious concern for an IS auditor, as it can be resolved by modifying or updating the applications to align with the policy. Local management may not accept the policy, but this is not a critical concern for an IS auditor, as it can be mitigated by providing adequate training and awareness on the policy and its benefits. References:

CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, pages 406-4071

CISA Review Questions, Answers & ExplanationsDatabase, Question ID: 2592

Continuous auditing is a method of performing audit-related activities on a real-time or near real-time basis. Continuous auditing is best suited for real-time transactions, such as online banking, e-commerce, or electronic funds transfer, that require immediate verification and assurance. Low-value transactions are not necessarily suitable for continuous auditing, as they may not pose significant risks or require frequent monitoring. Irregular transactions are not suitable for continuous auditing, as they may not occur frequently or consistently enough to justify the use of continuous auditing techniques. Manual transactions are not suitable for continuous auditing, as they may not be captured or processed by automated systems that enable continuous auditing. References:

CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, pages 307-3081

CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, Question ID: 253

 IT value analysis has not been completed is a finding from an IT governance review that should be of greatest concern. IT value analysis is a process of measuring and demonstrating the contribution of IT to the organization’s goals and objectives. An IS auditor should be concerned about the lack of IT value analysis, as it may indicate that the IT investments and resources are not aligned with the business needs and expectations, or that the IT performance and outcomes are not monitored and evaluated. The other options are less critical findings that may not have a significant impact on the IT governance. References:

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.11

CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, Question ID 218

The best way to determine whether programmers have permission to alter data in the production environment is by reviewing the access rights that have been granted. Access rights are permissions or privileges that define what actions or operations a user can perform on an information system or resource. By reviewing the access rights that have been granted to programmers, an IS auditor can verify whether they have been authorized to modify data in the production environment, which is where live data and applications are stored and executed. The access control system’s log settings are parameters that define what events or activities are recorded by the access control system, which is a system that enforces the access rights and policies of an information system or resource. The access control system’s log settings are not the best way to determine whether programmers have permission to alter data in the production environment, as they do not indicate what permissions or privileges have been granted to programmers. How the latest system changes were implemented is a process that describes how software updates or modifications are deployed to the production environment. How the latest system changes were implemented is not the best way to determine whether programmers have permission to alter data in the production environment, as it does not indicate what permissions or privileges have been granted to programmers. The access control system’s configuration is a set of rules or parameters that define how the access control system operates and functions. The access control system’s configuration is not the best way to determine whether programmers have permission to alter data in the production environment, as it does not indicate what permissions or privileges have been granted to programmers. 

 Discovery sampling is an appropriate sampling method for an IS auditor who intends to launch an intensive investigation if one exception is found. Discovery sampling is a type of attribute sampling that determines the sample size based on an acceptable risk of not finding at least one occurrence of an attribute when a given rate of occurrence exists in a population. Discovery sampling can be used by an IS auditor who wants to detect fraud or errors that have a low probability but high impacton an audit objective. The other options are not appropriate sampling methods for this purpose, as they may involve judgmental sampling, variable sampling, or stratified sampling. References:

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 2, Section 2.31

CISA ReviewQuestions, Answers & Explanations Database, Question ID 230

 Providing security certification for a new system should include an evaluation of the configuration management practices prior to the system’s implementation. Configuration management is a process that ensures that the system’s components are identified, controlled, and tracked throughout the system’s lifecycle. Configuration management helps to maintain the security and integrity of the system by preventing unauthorized or unintended changes. End-user authorization to use the system in production is not part of security certification, but rather a post-implementation activity that grants access rights to authorized users. External audit sign-off on financial controls is not part of security certification, but rather a verification activity that ensures that the system complies with financial reporting standards. Testing of the system within the production environment is not part of securitycertification, but rather a validation activity that ensures that the system meets the functional and performance requirements. References:

CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, pages 449-4501

CISA Review Questions, Answers& Explanations Database, Question ID: 2572

 Root cause is the most important thing for an IS auditor to determine and understand to develop meaningful recommendations for findings. A root cause is the underlying factor or condition that leads to a problem or issue. A finding is a statement that describes a problem or issue identified during an audit. A recommendation is a suggestion or advice that aims to address or resolve a finding. To develop meaningful recommendations for findings, an IS auditor should determine and understand the root cause of each finding, as this can help to identify the most effective and appropriate actions to prevent or correct the problem or issue. The other options are not as important as determining and understanding the root cause, as they do not directly address or resolve the finding. References: CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 434

The audit charter is a document that defines the purpose, scope, authority, and responsibility of an IT audit organization. The audit charter should specify roles and responsibilities within an IT audit organization, such as who is accountable for approving the audit plan, who is responsible for conducting the audits, who is authorized to access the audit evidence, and who is accountable for reporting the audit results. The organizational chart, the engagement letter, and the annual audit plan are also important documents for an IT audit organization, but they do not specify roles and responsibilities as clearly and comprehensively as the audit charter. 

The best way for an organization to mitigate the risk associated with third-party application performance is to utilize performance monitoring tools to verify service level agreements (SLAs). Performance monitoring tools are software or hardware devices that measure and report the performance of an application or system, such as speed, availability, reliability, etc. Performance monitoring tools can help mitigate the risk associated with third-party application performance, by allowing the organization to verify whether the third-party provider is meeting the SLAs, which are contracts or agreements that define the expected level and quality of service for an application or system. Performance monitoring tools can also help identify and resolve any performance issues or problems that may arise from the third-party application. Ensuring the third party allocates adequate resources to meet requirements is a possible way to mitigate the risk associated with third-party application performance, but it is not the best one, as it may not be feasible or effective depending on the availability, cost, and suitability of the resources. Using analytics within the internal audit function is a possible way to mitigate the risk associated with third-party application performance, but it is not the best one, as it may not be timely or relevant depending on the frequency, scope, and quality of the analytics. Conducting a capacity planning exercise is a possible way to mitigate the risk associated with third-party application performance, but it is not the best one, as it may not be accurate or reliable depending on the assumptions, methods, and data used for the capacity planning.

The best recommendation to facilitate compliance with the regulation that requires organizations to report significant security incidents to the regulator within 24 hours of identification is to include the requirement in the incident management response plan. An incident management response plan is a document that defines the roles, responsibilities, procedures, and tools for managing security incidents effectively and efficiently. Including the requirement in the incident management response plan can help ensure that security incidents are identified, classified, reported, and escalated in accordance with the regulation. The other options are not as effective as including the requirement in the incident management response plan, as they do not address all aspects of incident management or compliance. Establishing key performance indicators (KPIs) for timely identification of security incidents is a monitoring technique that can help measure and improve the performance of incident management processes, but it does not ensure compliance with the regulation. Enhancing the alert functionality of the intrusion detection system (IDS) is a technical control that can help detect and notify security incidents faster, but it does not ensure compliance with the regulation. Engaging an external security incident response expert for incident handling is a contingency measure that can help augment the organization’s internal capabilities and resources for managing security incidents, but it does not ensure compliance with the regulation. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 4, Section 4.2.2

 During an audit of a reciprocal disaster recovery agreement between two companies, the IS auditor would be most concerned with the allocation of resources during an emergency. A reciprocal disaster recovery agreement is an arrangement by which one organization agrees to use another’s resources in the event of a business continuity event or incident. The IS auditor would need to ensure that both parties have clearly defined their roles and responsibilities, their resource requirements, their priority levels, their communication channels, and their escalation procedures in case of a disaster. The IS auditor would also need to verify that both parties have tested their agreement and have updated it regularly to reflect any changes in their business environments. The frequency of system testing is not as critical as the allocation of resources during an emergency, because system testing can be performed periodically or on demand, while resource allocation is a dynamic and complex process that requires careful planning and coordination. The differences in IS policies and procedures are not as critical as the allocation of resources during an emergency, because both parties can agree on common standards and protocols for their disaster recovery operations, or they can adapt their policies and procedures to suit each other’s needs. The maintenance of hardware and software compatibility is not as critical as the allocation of resources during an emergency, because both parties can use compatible or interoperable systems, or they can use virtualization or cloud computing technologies to overcome any compatibility issues. References: ISACACISA Review Manual 27th Edition, page 281

 The IS auditor’s independence would be most likely impaired if they implemented a specific control during the development of an application system. This is because the IS auditor would be auditing their own work, which creates a self-review threat that could compromise their objectivity and impartiality. The IS auditor should avoid participating in any operational or management activities that could affect their ability to perform an unbiased audit. The other options do not pose a significant threat to the IS auditor’s independence, as long as they follow the ethical standards and guidelines of the profession.

 Secure code reviews as part of a continuous deployment program are preventive controls. Preventive controls are controls that aim to prevent or avoid undesirable events or outcomes from occurring, such as errors, defects, or incidents. Secure code reviews are activities that examine and evaluate the source code of a software or application to identify and eliminate any vulnerabilities, flaws, or weaknesses that may compromise its security, functionality, or performance. Secure code reviews as part of a continuous deployment program can help prevent or avoid security issues or incidents from occurring by ensuring that the code is secure and compliant before it is deployed to production. The other options are not correct types of controls for secure code reviews as part of a continuous deployment program, as they have different meanings and functions. Detective controls are controls that aim to detect or discover undesirable events or outcomes that have occurred, such as errors, defects, or incidents. Logical controls are controls that use software or hardware mechanisms to regulate or restrict access to IT resources, such as data, systems, or networks. Corrective controls are controls that aim to correct or rectify undesirable events or outcomes that have occurred, such as errors, defects, or incidents. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3, Section 3.2

 The IS auditor’s best course of action in this situation is to determine whether the alternative controls sufficiently mitigate the risk. Alternative controls are different from those originally discussed and agreed with the audit function, but they may still achieve the same objective of addressing the audit issue or reducing the risk to an acceptable level. The IS auditor should evaluate whether the alternative controls are appropriate, effective, and sustainable before closing the audit finding or escalating it to senior management. The other options are not appropriate for resolving this situation, as they do not consider whether the alternative controls are adequate or reasonable. Re-prioritizing the original issue as high risk and escalating to senior management is a drastic step that may undermine the relationship between the auditor and management, and it should be done only after exhausting other means of resolving the issue. Scheduling a follow-up audit in the next audit cycle is unnecessary, as follow-up activities should be performed as soon as possible after management has implemented corrective actions. Postponing follow-up activities and escalating the alternative controls to senior audit management is premature, as follow-up activities should be completed before reporting any findings or recommendations to senior audit management. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 2, Section 2.4

 The best compensating control when segregation of duties is lacking in a small IS department is transaction log review. Transaction log review can help detect any unauthorized or fraudulent activities performed by IS staff who have access to multiple functions or systems. Transaction log review can also provide an audit trail for accountability and investigation purposes. The other options are not as effective as transaction log review in compensating for the lack of segregation of duties. Background checks are preventive controls that can help screen potential employees for any criminal records or dishonest behavior, but they do not prevent existing employees from abusing their access privileges. User awareness training is a detective control that can help educate users on how to report any suspicious or abnormal activities in the IS environment, but it does not monitor or verify the actions of IS staff. Mandatory holidays are deterrent controls that can discourage IS staff from engaging in fraudulent activities by requiring them to take periodic leave, but they do not prevent or detect such activities when they occur. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3, Section 3.2

The best recommendation to mitigate the risk of data leakage from lost or stolen devices that contain confidential data is to configure them to auto-wipe after multiple failed access attempts, as this would prevent unauthorized access and erase sensitive information from the device. Requiring employees to attend security awareness training, password protecting critical data files, or enabling device auto-lockfunction are also good practices, but they may not be sufficient oreffective in preventing data leakage from lost or stolen devices. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.3

 The first thing that should be done when an intrusion into an organization network is detected is to identify nodes that have been compromised. Identifying nodes that have been compromised is a critical step in responding to an intrusion, as it helps determine the scope, impact, and source of the attack, and enables the implementation of appropriate containment and recovery measures. The other options are not the first things that should be done when an intrusion into an organization network is detected, as they may be premature or ineffective without identifying nodes that have been compromised. Blocking all compromised network nodes is a containment measure that can help isolate and prevent the spread of the attack, but it may not be possible or feasible without identifying nodes that have been compromised. Contacting law enforcement is a reporting measure that can help seek external assistance and comply with legal obligations, but it may not be necessary or appropriate without identifying nodes that have been compromised. Notifying senior management is a communication measure that can help inform and escalate the incident, but it may not be urgent or accurate without identifying nodes that have been compromised. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 4, Section 4.2.2

The most effective method to verify that a service vendor keeps control levels as required by the client is to conduct periodic on-site assessments using agreed-upon criteria. On-site assessments can provide direct evidence of whether the vendor’s controls are operating effectively and consistently in accordance with the client’s expectations and requirements. Agreed-upon criteria can ensure that the assessments are objective, relevant, and reliable. The other options are not as effective as on-site assessments in verifying the vendor’s control levels. Periodically reviewing the SLA with the vendor can help monitor whether the vendor meets its contractual obligations and service standards, but it does not provide assurance of whether the vendor’s controls are adequate or sufficient. Conducting an unannounced vulnerability assessment of vendor’s IT systems can help identify any weaknesses or gaps in the vendor’s security controls, but it may violate the terms and conditions of the vendor-client relationship or cause operational disruptions. Obtaining evidence of the vendor’s CSA can provide some indication of whether the vendor’s controls are self-monitored and reported, but it does not verify whether the vendor’s controls are independent or accurate. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.4

Allowing only corporate IM solutions is the best control to mitigate the malware risk associated with an IM system, because it can prevent unauthorized or malicious IM applications from accessing the network and infecting the system with malware. Corporate IM solutions can also enforce security policies and standards, such as encryption, authentication, and logging, to protect the IM system from malware attacks. Blocking attachments in IM, blocking external IMtraffic, and encrypting IM traffic are also possible controls to mitigate the malware risk, but they are not as effective as allowing only corporate IM solutions. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.4.4

 The first course of action when a data breach has occurred due to malware is to quarantine the impacted systems. This means isolating the infected systems from the rest of the network and preventing any further communication or data transfer with them. This can help contain the spread of the malware, limit the damage and exposure of sensitive data, and facilitate the investigation and remediation of the incident. Quarantining the impacted systems can also help preserve the evidence and logs that may be needed for forensic analysis or legal action.

 An IS auditor would be most concerned if process ownership has not been established for the information asset management process, as this would indicate a lack of accountability, responsibility, and authority for managing the assets throughout their lifecycle. The process owner should also ensure that the process is aligned with the organization’s objectives, policies, and standards. The process should require specifying the physicallocations of assets, include asset review, and identify asset value, but these are less critical than establishing process ownership. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3, Section 3.3

 Information security policies are high-level statements that define the organization’s approach to protecting its information assets from threats and risks. They should be based primarily on a risk management process, which is a systematic method of identifying, analyzing, evaluating, treating, and monitoring information security risks. A risk management process can help ensure that the policies are aligned with the organization’s risk appetite, business objectives, legal and regulatory requirements, and stakeholder expectations. An information security framework is a set of standards, guidelines, and best practices that provide a structure for implementing information security policies. It can support the risk management process, but it is not the primary basis for defining the policies. Past information security incidents and industry best practices can also provide valuable inputs for defining the policies, but they are not sufficient to address the organization’s specific context and needs. References: Insights and Expertise, CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)

 A top-down maturity model process is a method of assessing and improving the maturity level of a process or a set of processes within an organization. A maturity level is a measure of how well-defined, controlled, measured, and optimized a process is. A top-down maturity model process starts with defining the desired maturity level and then identifying the gaps and improvement opportunities for each process. This helps prioritize the processes that need the most attention and improvement. Therefore, a result of utilizing a top-down maturity model process is identification of processes with the most improvement opportunities.

A means of benchmarking the effectiveness of similar processes with peers, a means of comparing the effectiveness of other processes within the enterprise, and identification of older, more established processes to ensure timely review are not results of utilizing a top-down maturity model process. These are possible benefits or objectives of using other types of maturity models or assessment methods, but they are not specific to a top-down approach.

The best way to determine whether a test of a disaster recovery plan (DRP) was successful is to analyze whether predetermined test objectives were met. Test objectives are specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound (SMART) goals that define what the test aims to accomplish and how it will be evaluated. Test objectives should be aligned with the DRP objectives and scope, and should cover aspects such as recovery time objectives (RTOs), recovery point objectives (RPOs), critical business functions, roles and responsibilities, communication channels, backup systems, and contingency procedures. By comparing the actual test results with the expected test objectives, the IS auditor can measure the effectiveness and efficiency of the DRP and identify any gaps or weaknesses that need to be addressed. 

If an IS audit reveals that an organization is not proactively addressing known vulnerabilities, the IS auditor should recommend that the organization assess the security risks to the business first, as this would help to prioritize the vulnerabilities based on their impact and likelihood, and determine the appropriate mitigation strategies. Verifying the disaster recovery plan (DRP) has been tested, ensuring the intrusion prevention system (IPS) is effective, and confirming the incident response team understands the issue are important steps, but they are not as urgent as assessing the security risks to the business. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.6

 The greatest concern for an IS auditor reviewing data conversion and migration during the implementation of a new application system is unauthorized data modifications occurred during conversion. Unauthorized data modifications are changes or alterations to data that are not authorized, intended, or expected, such as due to errors, fraud, or sabotage. Unauthorized data modifications occurred during conversion can compromise the accuracy, completeness, andintegrity of the data being converted and migrated to the new application system, and may result in data loss, corruption, or inconsistency. The other options are not as concerning as unauthorized data modifications occurred during conversion in reviewing data conversion and migration during the implementation of a new application system, as they do not affect the accuracy, completeness, or integrity of the data being converted and migrated. Data conversion was performed using manual processes is a possible factor that may increase the risk or complexity of data conversion and migration, but it does not necessarily imply that unauthorized data modifications occurred during conversion. Backups of the old system and data are not available online is a possible factor that may affect the availability or accessibility of the old system and data for backup or recovery purposes, but it does not imply that unauthorized data modifications occurred during conversion. The change management process was not formally documented is a possible factor that may affect the quality or consistency of the change management process for implementing the new application system, but it does not imply that unauthorized data modifications occurred during conversion. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3, Section 3.3

The most important prerequisite for the protection of physical information assets in a data center is a complete and accurate list of information assets that have been deployed. Information assets are any data, devices, systems, or software that have value for the organization and need to be protected from unauthorized access, use, disclosure, modification, or destruction4. A data center is a facility that houses various information assets such as servers, storage devices, network equipment, etc., that support the organization’s IT operations and services5. A complete and accurate list of information assets that have been deployed in a data center can help to identify and classify the assets based on their importance, sensitivity, or criticality for the organization. This can help to determine the appropriate level of protection and security measures that need to be applied to each asset. A complete and accurate list of information assets can also help to track and monitor the location, status, ownership, usage, configuration, maintenance, etc., of each asset. This can help to prevent or detect any unauthorized or inappropriate changes or movements of assets that may compromise their security or integrity. Segregation of duties between staff ordering and staff receiving information assets, availability and testing of onsite backup generators, and knowledge of the IT staff regarding data protection requirements are also important prerequisites for the protection of physical information assets in a data center, but not as important as a complete and accurate list of information assets that have been deployed. These factors are more related to the implementation and maintenance of security controls and procedures that depend on having a complete and accurate list of information assets as a starting point. References: ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition, page 308

Deferring remediation testing until the next audit is justified only when there are significant changes in the audit environment that affect the relevance or validity of the audit observations and recommendations. For example, if there are changes in the business processes, systems, regulations, or risks that require a new audit scope or approach. The other options are not valid justifications for deferring remediation testing, as they do not address the timeliness or quality of the audit follow-up process. The auditor who conducted the audit and agreed with the timeline has left the organization does not affect the responsibility of the audit function to ensure that remediation testing is performed as planned. Management’s planned actions are sufficient given the relative importance of the observations does not guarantee that management will actually implement those actions or that they will be effective in addressing the audit issues. Auditee management has accepted all observations reported by the auditor does not eliminate the need for verification of remediation actions by an independent party. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 2, Section 2.4

The best way to ensure the quality and integrity of test procedures used in audit analytics is to centralize procedures and implement change control. Centralizing procedures means storing themin a common repository that can be accessed and updated by authorized users. Change control means implementing a process for tracking, reviewing, approving, and documenting any changes made to the procedures. This ensures that the procedures are consistent, accurate, reliable, and secure. References: CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 401

A disaster recovery plan (DRP) is a set of procedures and resources that enable an organization to restore its critical operations, data, and applications in the event of a disaster1. A DRP should be aligned with the organization’s business continuity plan (BCP), which defines the strategies and objectives for maintaining business functions during and after a disaster1.

To ensure that a DRP is effective, it should betested regularly and thoroughly to identify and resolve any issues or gaps that might hinder itsexecution2345. Testing a DRP can help evaluate its feasibility, validity, reliability, and compatibility with the organization’s environment and needs4. Testing can also help prepare the staff, stakeholders, and vendors involved in the DRP for their roles and responsibilities during a disaster3.

There are different methods and levels of testing a DRP, depending on the scope, complexity, and objectives of the test4. Some of the common testing methods are:

Walkthrough testing: This is a step-by-step review of the DRP by the disaster recovery team and relevant stakeholders. It aims to verify the completeness and accuracy of the plan, as well as to clarify any doubts or questions among the participants45.

Simulation testing: This is a mock exercise of the DRP in a simulated disaster scenario. It aims to assess the readiness and effectiveness of the plan, as well as to identify any challenges or weaknesses that might arise during a real disaster45.

Checklist testing: This is a verification of the availability and functionality of the resources and equipment required for the DRP. It aims toensure that the backup systems, data, anddocumentation are accessible and up-to-date45.

Full interruption testing: This is the most realistic and rigorous method of testing a DRP. It involves shutting down the primary site and activating the backup site for a certain period of time. It aims to measure the actual impact andperformance of the DRP under real conditions45.

Parallel testing: This is a less disruptive method of testing a DRP. It involves running the backup site in parallel with the primary site without affecting the normal operations. It aims to compare and validate the results and outputs of both sites45.

Amongthese methods, full interruption testing would best demonstrate that an effectiveDRP is in place, as it provides the most accurate and comprehensive evaluation ofthe plan’s capabilities and limitations4. Full interruption testing can reveal any hidden or unforeseen issues or risks that might affect the recovery process, such as data loss, system failure, compatibility problems, or human errors4. Full interruption testing can also verify that the backup site can support the critical operations and services ofthe organization without compromising its quality or security4.

However, full interruption testing also has some drawbacks, such as being costly, time-consuming, risky, and disruptive to the normaloperations4. Therefore, it should be planned carefullyand conducted periodically with proper coordination and communication among all parties involved4.

The other options are not as effective as full interruption testing in demonstrating that an effective DRP is in place. Frequent testing of backups is only one aspect of checklist testing, which does not cover other components or scenarios of the DRP4. Annual walk-through testing is only atheoretical review of the DRP, which does not test its practical implementation or outcomes4. Periodic risk assessment is only a preparatory step for developing or updating the DRP, which does not test its functionality or performance4.

The most useful tool for determining whether the goals of IT are aligned with the organization’s goals is a balanced scorecard. A balanced scorecard is a strategic managementsystem that translates an organization’s vision and mission into a set of objectives and measures across four perspectives: financial, customer, internal process, and learning and growth. A balanced scorecard helps align IT goals with organizational goals by linking them to a common strategy map that shows how IT contributes to value creation and performance improvement in each perspective. A balanced scorecard also helps monitor and evaluate IT performance against predefined targets and indicators.

Enterprise dashboard, enterprise architecture (EA), and key performance indicators (KPIs) are not the most useful tools for determining whether the goals of IT are aligned with the organization’s goals. These tools may help communicate, design, or measure IT goals or activities, but they do not provide a comprehensive framework for aligning IT goals with organizational goals across multiple dimensions.

Reviewing input and output control reports to verify the accuracy of the system decisions is the most important procedure for the IS auditor to perform during the post-implementation review of intelligent-agent software for granting loans to customers, because it can help identify any errors or anomalies in the system logic or data that may affect the quality and reliability of the system outcomes. Reviewing systemand error logs, signed approvals, and systemdocumentation are also important procedures, but they are not as critical as verifying the accuracy of the system decisions. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 4, Section 4.2.21

 When an IS audit reveals that a firewall was unable to recognize a number of attack attempts, the auditor’s best recommendation is to place an intrusion detection system (IDS) between the firewall and the Internet, as this would provide an additional layer of security and alert the organization of any malicious traffic that bypasses or penetrates the firewall. Placing an IDS between the firewall and the demilitarized zone (DMZ), the organization’s web server, or the organization’s network would not be as effective, as it would only monitor the traffic that has already passed through the firewall. References: CISA Review Manual (DigitalVersion), Chapter 5, Section 5.4.3

One benefit of return on investment (ROI) analysis in IT decision making is that it provides the basis for allocating financial resources. ROI analysis is a method of evaluating the profitability or cost-effectiveness of an IT project or investment by comparing the expected benefits with the required costs. ROI analysis can help IT decision makers prioritize and justify their IT initiatives, allocate their financial resources optimally, and demonstrate the value contribution of IT to the organization’s goals and objectives. Basis for allocating indirect costs, cost of replacing equipment, and estimated cost of ownership are not benefits of ROI analysis in IT decision making. These are more inputs or outputs of ROI analysis that could be used to calculate or estimate the costs or benefits of an IT project or investment. References: [ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition], page 307

 The best recommendation to reduce the risk of data leakage from employee use of social networking sites for business purposes is to provide education and guidelines to employees on use of social networking sites. Education and guidelines can help employees understand the benefits and risks of using social media for business purposes, such as enhancing brand awareness, engaging with customers, or sharing industry insights. They can also inform employees about the dos and don’ts of social media etiquette, such as respecting privacy, protecting intellectual property, avoiding conflicts of interest, or complying with legal obligations. Education and guidelines can also raise awareness of potential data leakage scenarios, such as phishing attacks, malicious links, fake profiles, or oversharing sensitive information, and provide tips on how to prevent or respond to them. 

 An external assessment of network vulnerability is a process of identifying and evaluating the weaknesses and risks that affect the security and availability of a network froman outsider’s perspective. The most important factor to verify during this process is the completeness of network asset inventory, which is a list of all the devices, systems, and software that are connected to or part of the network. A complete and accurate network asset inventory can help identify the scope and boundaries of the network, the potential attack vectors and entry points, the critical assets and dependencies, and the existing security controls and gaps. Without a complete network asset inventory, an external assessment of network vulnerability may miss some important assets or vulnerabilities, leading to inaccurate or incomplete results and recommendations.

Data loss can occur due to various reasons, such as accidental deletion, hardware failure, malware infection, theft, or unauthorized access. Data classification procedures can help to identify and protect sensitive data, but they are not sufficient to prevent data loss. The most effective way to protect against data loss is to conduct periodic security awareness training for employees, which can educate them on the importance of data security, the best practices for data handling and storage, and the common threats and risks to data. 

 Secure coding practices are the best way to prevent cross-site scripting (XSS) attacks, because they can ensure that the web application validates and sanitizes user input and output data to prevent malicious scripts from being executed on the web browser. XSS attacks are a type of web application vulnerability that exploit the lack of input validation or output encoding in webpages that accept user input or display dynamic content. Application firewall policy settings, a three-tier web architecture, and use of common industry frameworks are not effective controlsto prevent XSS attacks, because they do not address the root cause of the vulnerability in the web application code. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.4.2

Application level firewalls are the best control to prevent the transfer of files to external parties through instant messaging (IM) applications, because they can inspect and filter network traffic based on application-specific protocols and commands, such as IM file transfer commands. Application level firewalls can block or allow IM file transfers based on predefined rules or policies. File level encryption, file transfer protocol (FTP), and instant messaging policy are not effective controls to prevent IM file transfers, because they donot restrict or monitor IM network traffic. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.4.1

 The best detective control for a job scheduling process involving data transmission is job failure alerts that are automatically generated and routed to support personnel. Job failure alerts are notifications that indicate when a scheduled job or task fails to execute or complete successfully, such as due to errors, interruptions, or delays. Job failure alerts can help detect and correct any issues or anomalies in the job scheduling process involving data transmission by informing and alerting the support personnel who can investigate and resolve the problem. The other options are not as effective as job failure alerts in detecting issues or anomalies in the job scheduling process involving data transmission, as they do not provide timely or specific information or feedback. Metrics denoting the volume of monthly job failures are reported and reviewed by senior management is a reporting technique that can help measure and improve the performance and reliability of the job scheduling process, but it does not provide immediate or detailed information on individual job failures. Jobs are scheduled to be completed daily and data is transmitted using a Secure File Transfer Protocol (SFTP) is a preventive control that can help ensure the timeliness and security of the job scheduling process involving data transmission, but it does not detect any issues or anomalies that may occur during the process. Jobs are scheduled and a log of this activity is retained for subsequent review is a logging technique that can help record and track the status and results of the job scheduling process involving data transmission, but it does not provide real-time or proactive information on job failures. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3, Section 3.2

 A black box penetration test is a type of security assessment that simulates an attack on a system or network without any prior knowledge of its configuration or architecture. The main objective of this test is to identify vulnerabilities and weaknesses that can be exploited by external or internal threat actors. To plan a black box penetration test, it is most important to ensure that the environment and penetration test scope have been determined. This means that the tester and the client organization have agreed on the boundaries, objectives, methods, and deliverables of the test, as well as the legal and ethical aspects of the engagement. Without a clear definition of the environment and scope, the test may not be effective, efficient, or compliant with relevant standards and regulations. Additionally, the tester may cause unintended damage or disruption to the client’s systems or networks, or violate their privacy or security policies.

Parallel processing is a system implementation approach that involves running the new system and the old system simultaneously for a period of time until the new system is verified and accepted. The primary advantage of parallel processing is that it provides assurance that the new system meets performance requirements and produces the same or better results as the old system. Parallel processing also minimizes the risk of system failure and data loss, as the old system can be used as a backup or fallback option in case of any problems with the new system.

 The IS auditor’s next course of action after finding that firewalls are outdated and not supported by vendors should be to determine the risk of not replacing the firewall. Outdated firewalls may have known vulnerabilities that can be exploited by attackers to bypass security controls and access the network. They may also lack compatibility with newer technologies or standards that are required for optimal network performance and protection. Not replacing the firewall could expose the organization to various threats, such as data breaches, denial-of-service attacks, malware infections, or regulatory non-compliance. The IS auditor should assess the likelihood and impact of these threats and quantify the risk level for management to make informed decisions.

The best recommendation to prevent fraudulent electronic funds transfers by accounts payable employees is dual control. Dual control is a segregation of duties control that requires two or more individuals to perform or authorize a transaction or activity. Dual control can prevent fraudulent electronic funds transfers by requiring independent verification and approval of payment requests, amounts, and recipients by different accounts payable employees. The other options are not as effective as dual control in preventing fraudulent electronic funds transfers, as they do not involve independent checks or approvals. Periodic vendor reviews are detective controls that can help identify any irregularities or anomalies in vendor payments, but they do not prevent fraudulent electronic funds transfers from occurring. Independent reconciliation is a detective control that can help compare and confirm payment records with bank statements, but it does not prevent fraudulent electronic funds transfers from occurring. Re-keying of monetary amounts is an input control that can help detect any errors or discrepancies in payment amounts, but it does not prevent fraudulentelectronic funds transfers from occurring. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3, Section 3.2

The IS auditor’s best recommendation is to ensure that programmers cannot access code after the completion of program edits. This is because programmers who have access to code after editing may introduce unauthorized or malicious changes that could compromise the security, functionality, or performance of the application. By restricting access to code after editing, the organization can ensure that only authorized and tested code is released into production, and prevent any tampering or reoccurrence of the same issue.

 An organization’s audit charter primarily describes the auditors’ authority to conduct audits. The audit charter is a formal document that defines the purpose, scope, responsibilities, and reporting relationships of the internal audit function. It also establishes the auditors’ right of access to information, records, personnel, and physical properties relevant to their work. The audit charter provides the basis for the auditors’ independence and accountability to the governing body and senior management. 

 A proper audit trail of changes to server start-up procedures would include evidence of operator overrides, which are actions taken by the system operator to bypass or modify the normal execution of the server start-up process. Operator overrides may indicate unauthorized or improper changes that could affect the security, availability, or performance of the server. Therefore, an audit trail should capture and document any operator overrides that occur during the server start-up process.

Evidence of subsystem structure, program execution, and security control options are not directly related to changes to server start-up procedures. Subsystem structure refers to the components and relationships of a subsystem within a larger system. Program execution refers to the process of running a software program on a computer. Security control options refer to the settings and parameters that define the security level and access rights for a system or application. These are all important aspects of auditing a server, but they do not provide evidence of changes to server start-up procedures.

Residual risk from the findings of previous audits should be the primary basis for prioritizing follow-up audits, because it reflects the level of exposure and potential impact that remains after management has implemented corrective actions or accepted the risk. Follow-up audits should focus on verifying whether the residual risk is within acceptable levels and whether the corrective actions are effective and sustainable. Audit cycle defined in the audit plan, complexity of management’s action plans, and recommendation from executive managementare not valid criteria for prioritizingfollow-up audits,because they do not consider the residual risk from previous audits. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 2, Section 2.4.3

 Version control is a process of managing changes to an application or a document. It ensures that only the latest approved version of the application is used by end-users, which reduces the risk of errors, inconsistencies, and unauthorized modifications. Version control also allows tracking the history of changes and restoring previous versions if needed. 

The best way to assess the effectiveness of changes made to processes and tools related to an organization’s BCP is to review the full test results of the BCP. Full test results can provide evidence of whether the changes have improved the BCP’s objectives, such as recovery time objectives (RTOs), recovery point objectives (RPOs), and business impact analysis (BIA). The other options are not as effective as reviewing the full test results, as they do not demonstrate the actual performance of the BCP under simulated disaster scenarios. Completed test plans are only documents that outline the scope, objectives, and procedures of the BCP testing, but they do not show the outcomes or issues encountered during the testing. Updated inventory of systems is a component of the BCP that identifies the critical systems and resources required for business continuity, but it does not measure the effectiveness of the BCP changes. Change management processes are controls that ensure that changes to the BCP are authorized, documented, and communicated, but they do not evaluate the impact or benefit of the changes. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 4, Section 4.2.3

 User requirements are statements that describe what the users expect from the software system in terms of functionality, quality, and usability. They are essential inputs for the software development process, as they guide the design, implementation, testing, and deployment of the system. Therefore, an IS auditor’s greatest concern when reviewing the early stages of a software development project would be the lack of acceptance criteria behind user requirements. Acceptance criteria are measurable conditions that define when a user requirement is met or satisfied. They help ensure that the user requirements are clear, complete, consistent, testable, and verifiable. Without acceptance criteria, it would be difficult to evaluate whether the system meets the user expectations and delivers value to the organization. Technical documentation, such as program code, is usually produced in later stages of the software development process. Completion of all requirements at the end of each sprint is not mandatory in agile software development methods, as long as there is a prioritized backlog of requirements that can be delivered incrementally. A detailed unit and system test plan is also important for ensuring software quality, but it depends on well-defined user requirements andacceptance criteria. References: Information Systems Acquisition, Development & Implementation, CISA ReviewManual (Digital Version)

 The most important thing to include in forensic data collection and preservation procedures is preserving data integrity. Data integrity is the property that ensures that data is accurate, complete, and consistent throughout its lifecycle. Preserving data integrity is essential for forensic data collection and preservation procedures because it ensures that the data can be used as valid and reliable evidence in legal proceedings or investigations. Preserving data integrity can be achieved by using methods such as hashing, checksums, digital signatures, write blockers, tamper-evident seals, or timestamps. The other options are not as important as preserving data integrity in forensic data collection and preservation procedures, as they do not affect the validity or reliability of the data. Assuring the physical security of devices is a security measure that protects devices from unauthorized access, theft, damage, or destruction, but it does not ensure that the data on the devices is accurate, complete, and consistent. Maintaining chain of custody is a documentation technique that records and tracks the handling and transfer of devices or data among different parties involved in forensic activities, but it does not ensure that the data on the devices is accurate, complete, and consistent. Determining tools to be used is a planning activity that selects and prepares the appropriate tools for forensic data collection and preservation procedures, but it does not ensure that the data collected and preserved by the tools is accurate, complete, and consistent. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.4

The best guard against the risk of attack by hackers is encryption. Encryption is the process of transforming data into an unreadable format using a secret key or algorithm. Encryption can protect data in transit and at rest from unauthorized access, modification, or disclosure by hackers. Encryption can also ensure the authenticity and integrity of data by using digital signatures or hashes.

Tunneling, message validation, and firewalls are not the best guards against the risk of attack by hackers. Tunneling is a technique that encapsulates one network protocol within another to create a secure connection between two endpoints. Message validation is a process that verifies the format, content, and origin of a message before accepting it. Firewalls are devices or software that filter network traffic based on predefined rules. These controls may help reduce the exposure or impact of hacker attacks, but they do not provide the same level of protection as encryption.

Moving validation controls from the server side into the browser would most likely increase the risk of a successful attack by structured query language (SQL) injection. SQL injection is a technique that exploits a security vulnerability in an application’s database layer by inserting malicious SQL statements into user input fields. Validation controls are used to check and filter user input before sending it to the database. If these controls are moved to the browser, they can be easily bypassed or modified by an attacker, who can then execute arbitrary SQL commands on the database. References: CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 361

 The most important thing for an IS auditor to examine when reviewing an organization’s privacy policy is its legitimate purpose for collecting personal data. A legitimate purpose is a clear and specific reason for collecting personal data that is necessary for the organization’s business operations or legal obligations, and that respects the rights and interests of the data subjects. A legitimate purpose is the basis for establishing a lawful and fair processing of personal data, and it should be communicated to the data subjects in the privacy policy. The other options are not as important as the legitimate purpose in reviewing the privacy policy. Explicit permission from regulators to collect personal data is not always required, as there may be other lawful bases for data collection, such as consent, contract, or public interest. Sharing of personal information with third-party service providers is not prohibited, as long as there are adequate safeguards and agreements in place to protect the data. The encryption mechanism selected by the organization for protecting personal data is a technical control that can enhance data security, but it does not determine the legality or fairness of data collection. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.3.2

 The first step that an IS auditor should take when finding that a business impact analysis (BIA) has not been performed is to evaluate the impact on current disaster recovery capability. A BIA is a process that identifies and analyzes the potential effects of disruptions to critical business functions and processes. A BIA helps determine the recovery priorities, objectives, and strategies for the organization. Without a BIA, the disaster recovery plan may not be aligned with the business needs and expectations, and may not provide adequate protection and recovery for the most critical assets and activities. Therefore, an IS auditor should assess how the lack of a BIA affects the current disaster recovery capability and identify any gaps or risks that need to be addressed.

Performing a BIA, issuing an intermediate report to management, and conducting additional compliance testing are not the first steps that an IS auditor should take when finding that a BIA has not been performed. These steps may be done later in the audit process, after evaluating the impact on current disaster recovery capability. Performing a BIA is not the responsibility of the IS auditor, but of the business owners and managers. Issuing an intermediate report to management may be premature without sufficient evidence and analysis. Conducting additional compliance testing may not be relevant ornecessary without a clear understanding of the disaster recovery requirements and objectives.

The first step in addressing a vulnerability is to evaluate the associated risk, which involves assessing the likelihood and impact of a potential exploit. Based on the risk assessment, the appropriate mitigation strategy can be determined, such as implementing a new system, addingfirewalls, or decommissioning the server. References: ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition, page 280

The most effective way to minimize downtime during system conversions is to use a parallel run. A parallel run is a method of system conversion where both the old and new systems operate simultaneously for a period of time until the new system is verified to be functioning correctly. Thisreduces the risk of errors, data loss, or system failure during conversion and allows for a smooth transition from one system to another. References: CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 467

The best indicator of whether a PIR performed by the PMO was effective is whether project outcomes have been realized. Project outcomes are the benefits or value that a project delivers to its stakeholders, such as improved efficiency, quality, customer satisfaction, or revenue. A PIR should evaluate whether project outcomes have been achieved in accordance with project objectives, scope, budget, and schedule. The other options are not as good as project outcomes in determining the effectiveness of a PIR. Lessons learned are valuable inputs for improving future projects, but they do not measure whether project outcomes have been realized. Management approval of the PIR report is a sign of acceptance and support for the PIR findings and recommendations, but it does not reflect whether project outcomes have been achieved. The review performed by an external provider is a way of ensuring objectivity and independence for the PIR, but it does not guarantee whether project outcomes have been realized. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3, Section 3.3

The most important control to assess in an audit of an organization’s accounts payable processes is segregation of duties between issuing purchase orders and making payments. Segregation of duties is a principle that requires different individuals or departments to perform different tasks or functions within a process, in order to prevent fraud, errors, or conflicts of interest. In the accounts payable process, segregation of duties between issuing purchase orders and making payments ensures that no one person can initiate and complete a transaction without proper authorization and verification. This reduces the risk of duplicate payments, overpayments, unauthorized payments, or payments to fictitious vendors.

Network topology diagrams are the most important for an IS auditor to review when evaluating the design of controls related to network monitoring, because they show how the network components are connected and configured, and what security measures are in place to protect the network from unauthorized access or attacks. Incident monitoring logs, the ISP service level agreement, and reports of network traffic analysis are useful for evaluating the effectiveness and performance of network monitoring, but not the design of controls. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.3.3

 If an IS auditor finds that management did not address a prior period audit finding, the next course of action should be to interview management to determine why the finding was not addressed, as this would help to understand the root cause, the impact, and the risk level of the issue. Noting the exception in a new report, recommending alternative solutions, or conducting a risk assessment are possible subsequent steps, but they should not precede interviewing management. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 1, Section 1.6

 A post-implementation review is a process of evaluating the outcome and benefits of a project or a system after it has been implemented. The main purpose of a post-implementation review is to determine to what extent the business requirements are being met by the new system. Therefore, the most likely aspect to be assessed is the results of line processing, which refers to the actual performance and functionality of the system in the operational environment.

 Write access to production program libraries presents the greatest risk when granted to a new member of the system development staff. Production program libraries contain executable code that runs on live systems and supports critical business functions. Write access allows a user to modify or delete existing programs, or add new programs to the library. If a user were to make unauthorized or erroneous changes to production programs, it could cause serious disruptions, errors, or security breaches in the organization’s operations. Therefore, writeaccess to production program libraries should be restricted to authorized personnel only, and subject to strict change management controls. 

The best way to protect sensitive information such as personally identifiable information (PII) stored in a particular data format while allowing the software developers to use it in development and test environments is data masking. Data masking is a technique that replaces or obscures sensitive data elements with fictitious or modified data elements that retain the original format and characteristics of the data. Data masking can help protect sensitive information such as PII stored in a particular data format while allowing the software developers to use it in development and test environments by preventing the exposure or disclosure of the real data values without affecting the functionality or performance of the software or application. The other options are not as effective as data masking in protecting sensitive information such as PII stored in a particular data format while allowing the software developers to use it in development and test environments, as they have different limitations or drawbacks. Data tokenization is a technique that replaces sensitive data elements with non-sensitive tokens that have no intrinsic value or meaning. Data tokenization can protect sensitive information such as PII from unauthorized access or theft, but it may not retain the original format and characteristics of the data, which may affect the functionality or performance of the software or application. Data encryption is a technique that transforms sensitive data elements into unreadable or unintelligible ciphertext using an algorithm and a key. Data encryption can protect sensitive information such as PII from unauthorized access or modification, but it requires decryption to restore the original data values, which may introduce additional complexity or overhead to the software development process. Data abstraction is a technique that hides the details or complexity of data structures or operations from users or programmers by providing a simplified representation or interface. Data abstraction can help improve the usability or maintainability of software or applications, but it does not protect sensitive information such as PII from exposure or disclosure. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.3.2

The primary factor to determine system criticality within an organization is the maximum allowable downtime (MAD). MAD is the maximum time frame during which recovery must become effective before an outage compromises the ability of an organization to achieve its business objectives and/or survival. MAD reflects the business impact of a system outage onthe organization’s operations, reputation, compliance, and finances. MAD can help to prioritize system recovery efforts, allocate resources, and establish recovery objectives.

 Changing the default configurations of a database system is a critical control for securing it from unauthorized access or exploitation. Default configurations often include weak passwords, unnecessary services, open ports, or known vulnerabilities that can be easily exploited by attackers. The other options are not as important as changing the default configurations, as they do not address the root cause of the security risks. Normalizing tables in the database is a design technique for improving data quality and performance, but it does not affect security. Changing the service port used by the database server is a form of security by obscurity, which can be easily bypassed by port scanning tools. Using the default administration account after changing the account password is still risky, as the account name may be known or guessed by attackers. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.2.4

 The strategy that would provide the greatest assurance of system quality at implementation is delivering only the core functionality on the initial target date. This strategy can help avoid compromising the quality of the system by focusing on the essential features that meet the user needs and expectations. Delivering only the core functionality can also help reduce the scope creep, complexity, and testing efforts of the system development project.

Implementing overtime pay and bonuses for all development staff, utilizing new system development tools to improve productivity, and recruiting IS staff to expedite system development are not strategies that would provide the greatest assurance of system quality at implementation. These strategies may help speed up the system development process, but they may also introduce new risks or challenges such as burnout, learning curve, integration issues, or communication gaps. These risks or challenges may adversely affect the quality of the system.

 The greatest concern for an IS auditor when evaluating an organization’s IT strategy and plans is that IT is not engaged in business strategic planning, as this indicates a lack of alignment between IT and business objectives, which could result in inefficient and ineffective use of IT resources and capabilities. The absence of a defined IT security policy, the nondistribution of business strategy meeting minutes, and the inadequate documentation of IT strategic planning are also issues that should be addressed by an IS auditor, but they are not as significant as IT’s noninvolvement in business strategic planning. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3, Section 3.1

The IS auditor’s most important course of action after finding that several similar incidents were logged during the audit period is to determine if a root cause analysis was conducted. A root cause analysis is a systematic process that identifies the underlying causes of system failures or incidents. A root cause analysis can help to prevent recurrence of similar incidents, improve system performance and reliability, and enhance incident management processes. The IS auditor should evaluate whether a root cause analysis was performed for each incident, whether it was timely and thorough, and whether it resulted in effective corrective actions.

Reviewing the performance against service level agreements (SLAs) would best determine whether the service provider continues to meet the organization’s objectives, as SLAs define the expected level of service, quality, availability, and responsibilities of both parties. Assessment of the personnel training processes of the provider, adequacy of the service provider’s insurance, and periodic audits of controls by an independent auditor are important aspects of outsourcing, but they do not directly measure the performance of the service provider against the organization’s objectives. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3, Section 3.5.2

 Carbon dioxide fire suppression systems need to be combined with an automatic switch to shut down the electricity supply in the event of activation. This is because carbon dioxide displaces oxygen in the air and can create a suffocation hazard for people in the protected area. Therefore, it is essential to cut off the power source before releasing carbon dioxide to avoid electrical shocks and sparks that could ignite the fire again. Carbon dioxide systems are typically used for total flooding applications in spaces that are not habitable, such as server rooms or data centers. 

The most important thing for an IS auditor to review when evaluating the accuracy of a spreadsheet that contains several macros is the formulas within macros. Macros are sequences of commands or instructions that can automate tasks or calculations in a spreadsheet. Formulas are expressions that perform calculations on values or data in a spreadsheet. The accuracy of a spreadsheet depends largely on whether the formulas within macros are correct, consistent, and complete. The IS auditor should review the formulas within macros to verify that they produce the expected results and do not contain any errors or inconsistencies. The other options are not as important as formulas within macros, as they do not directly affect the accuracy of a spreadsheet. Encryption of the spreadsheet is a security control that can protect the confidentiality and integrity of the spreadsheet, but it does not ensure its accuracy. Version history is a document control feature that can track and manage changes to the spreadsheet, but it does not verify its accuracy. Reconciliation of key calculations is a validation technique that can compare and confirm the results of calculations with other sources, but it does not evaluate the accuracy of formulas within macros. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3, Section 3.2

A post-implementation review (PIR) is an assessment conducted at the end of a project cycle to determine if the project was indeed successful and to identify any existing flaws in the project1. One of the main objectives of a PIR isto evaluate the outcome and functional value of a project1. Therefore, an IS auditor should be most concerned with whether the system meets the intended requirements and delivers the expected benefits to the stakeholders. A system that does not have a maintenance plan is a major risk, as it may not be able to cope with changing needs, fix errors, or prevent security breaches. A maintenance planis essential for ensuring the system’s reliability, availability, and performance in the long term2.

The other options are less critical for a PIR, as they are more related to the project management aspects than the system quality aspects. The system may contain several minor defects that do not affect its functionality or usability, and these can be resolved in future updates. The system deployment may be delayed by three weeks due to unforeseen circumstances or dependencies, but this does not necessarily mean that the system is faulty or ineffective. The system may be over budget by 15% due to various factors such as scope creep, resource constraints, or market fluctuations, but this does not imply that the system is not valuable or beneficial.

 The best metric to assure compliance with the policy of providing security awareness training to all new employees is the percentage of new hires that have completed the training, as this directly measures the extent to which the policy is implemented and enforced. The number of new hires who have violated enterprise security policies, the number of reported incidents by new hires, and the percentage of new hires who report incidents are not directly related to the policy, as they may depend on other factors such as the nature and frequency of threats, the effectiveness of security controls, and the reporting culture of the organization. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.7