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Isaca CISM Certified Information Security Manager Exam Practice Test

Demo: 290 questions
Total 967 questions

Certified Information Security Manager Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which of the following should be the FIRST step to gain approval for outsourcing to address a security gap?

Options:

A.

Collect additional metrics.

B.

Perform a cost-benefit analysis.

C.

Submit funding request to senior management.

D.

Begin due diligence on the outsourcing company.

Question 2

Which of the following presents the GREATEST challenge to a security operations center's wna GY of potential security breaches?

Options:

A.

IT system clocks are not synchronized with the centralized logging server.

B.

Operating systems are no longer supported by the vendor.

C.

The patch management system does not deploy patches in a timely manner.

D.

An organization has a decentralized data center that uses cloud services.

Question 3

What is the PRIMARY benefit to an organization that maintains an information security governance framework?

Options:

A.

Resources are prioritized to maximize return on investment (ROI)

B.

Information security guidelines are communicated across the enterprise_

C.

The organization remains compliant with regulatory requirements.

D.

Business risks are managed to an acceptable level.

Question 4

Which of the following factors would have the MOST significant impact on an organization's information security governance mode?

Options:

A.

Outsourced processes

B.

Security budget

C.

Number of employees

D.

Corporate culture

Question 5

An information security team has discovered that users are sharing a login account to an application with sensitive information, in violation of the access policy. Business management indicates that the practice creates operational efficiencies. What is the information security manager's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Enforce the policy.

B.

Modify the policy.

C.

Present the risk to senior management.

D.

Create an exception for the deviation.

Question 6

Capacity planning would prevent:

Options:

A.

file system overload arising from distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks.

B.

system downtime for scheduled security maintenance.

C.

application failures arising from insufficient hardware resources.

D.

software failures arising from exploitation of buffer capacity vulnerabilities.

Question 7

An information security manager is assessing security risk associated with a cloud service provider. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate reference to consult when performing this assessment?

Options:

A.

Previous provider service level agreements (SLAs)

B.

Security control frameworks

C.

Threat intelligence reports

D.

Penetration test results from the provider

Question 8

The results of a risk assessment for a potential network reconfiguration reveal a high likelihood of sensitive data being compromised. What is the information security manager's BEST course of

action?

Options:

A.

Recommend additional network segmentation.

B.

Seek an independent opinion to confirm the findings.

C.

Determine alignment with existing regulations.

D.

Report findings to key stakeholders.

Question 9

While responding to a high-profile security incident, an information security manager observed several deficiencies in the current incident response plan. When would be the BEST time to update the plan?

Options:

A.

While responding to the incident

B.

During a tabletop exercise

C.

During post-incident review

D.

After a risk reassessment

Question 10

An organization has decided to outsource IT operations. Which of the following should be the PRIMARY focus of the information security manager?

Options:

A.

Security requirements are included in the vendor contract

B.

External security audit results are reviewed.

C.

Service level agreements (SLAs) meet operational standards.

D.

Business continuity contingency planning is provided

Question 11

To prepare for a third-party forensics investigation following an incident involving malware, the incident response team should:

Options:

A.

isolate the infected systems.

B.

preserve the evidence.

C.

image the infected systems.

D.

clean the malware.

Question 12

Security administration efforts will be greatly reduced following the deployment of which of the following techniques?

Options:

A.

Discretionary access control

B.

Role-based access control

C.

Access control lists

D.

Distributed access control

Question 13

A business unit recently integrated the organization's new strong password policy into its business application which requires users to reset passwords every 30 days. The help desk is now flooded with password reset requests. Which of the following is the information security manager's BEST course of action to address this situation?

Options:

A.

Provide end-user training.

B.

Escalate to senior management.

C.

Continue to enforce the policy.

D.

Conduct a business impact analysis (BIA).

Question 14

Which of the following is MOST important to have in place for an organization's information security program to be effective?

Options:

A.

Documented information security processes

B.

A comprehensive IT strategy

C.

Senior management support

D.

Defined and allocated budget

Question 15

When performing a business impact analysis (BIA), who should calculate the recovery time and cost estimates?

Options:

A.

Business process owner

B.

Business continuity coordinator

C.

Senior management

D.

Information security manager

Question 16

Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern regarding an organization's security controls?

Options:

A.

Some controls are performing outside of an acceptable range.

B.

No key control indicators (KCIs) have been implemented.

C.

Control ownership has not been updated.

D.

Control gap analysis is outdated.

Question 17

Prior to implementing a bring your own device (BYOD) program, it is MOST important to:

Options:

A.

select mobile device management (MDM) software.

B.

survey employees for requested applications.

C.

develop an acceptable use policy.

D.

review currently utilized applications.

Question 18

Which of the following should have the MOST influence on an organization's response to a new industry regulation?

Options:

A.

The organization's control objectives

B.

The organization's risk management framework

C.

The organization's risk appetite

D.

The organization's risk control baselines

Question 19

Which of the following is MOST important to ensuring information stored by an organization is protected appropriately?

Options:

A.

Defining information stewardship roles

B.

Defining security asset categorization

C.

Assigning information asset ownership

D.

Developing a records retention schedule

Question 20

Which of the following is MOST appropriate to communicate to senior management regarding information risk?

Options:

A.

Emerging security technologies

B.

Risk profile changes

C.

Defined risk appetite

D.

Vulnerability scanning progress

Question 21

Which of the following MUST be defined in order for an information security manager to evaluate the appropriateness of controls currently in place?

Options:

A.

Security policy

B.

Risk management framework

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Security standards

Question 22

Which of the following should an information security manager do FIRST to address the risk associated with a new third-party cloud application that will not meet organizational security requirements?

Options:

A.

Include security requirements in the contract.

B.

Update the risk register.

C.

Consult with the business owner.

D.

Restrict application network access temporarily.

Question 23

Which of the following is the MOST critical consideration when shifting IT operations to an Infrastructure as a Service (laaS) model hosted in a foreign country?

Options:

A.

Labeling of data may help to ensure data is assigned to the correct cloud type.

B.

Laws and regulations of the origin country may not be applicable.

C.

There may be liabilities and penalties in the event of a security breach.

D.

Data may be stored in unknown locations and may not be easily retrievable.

Question 24

Which of the following is MOST important to have in place when conducting a security control assessment of a system?

Options:

A.

Control specifications

B.

Assurance test plan

C.

Scanning tools

D.

Security documentation

Question 25

Which of the following is MOST likely to reduce the effectiveness of a SIEM system?

Options:

A.

Complex user interface

B.

Misconfiguration of alert thresholds

C.

Weakly encrypted log files

D.

Lack of multi-factor authentication (MFA) for system access

Question 26

Which of the following roles has the PRIMARY responsibility to ensure the operating effectiveness of IT controls?

Options:

A.

Risk owner

B.

Control tester

C.

IT compliance leader

D.

Information security manager

Question 27

Which of the following is an example of a change to the external threat landscape?

Options:

A.

The information security program has been outsourced.

B.

A commonly used encryption algorithm has been compromised.

C.

Industry security standards have been modified.

D.

The organization has been purchased by another entity.

Question 28

An information security manager learns of a new standard related to an emerging technology the organization wants to implement. Which of the following should the information security manager recommend be done FIRST?

Options:

A.

Determine whether the organization can benefit from adopting the new standard.

B.

Obtain legal counsel's opinion on the standard's applicability to regulations,

C.

Perform a risk assessment on the new technology.

D.

Review industry specialists’ analyses of the new standard.

Question 29

Recovery time objectives (RTOs) are BEST determined by:

Options:

A.

business managers

B.

business continuity officers

C.

executive management

D.

database administrators (DBAs).

Question 30

Which of the following should be an information security manager's FIRST course of action when one of the organization's critical third-party providers experiences a data breach?

Options:

A.

Inform the public relations officer.

B.

Monitor the third party's response.

C.

Invoke the incident response plan.

D.

Inform customers of the breach.

Question 31

A risk owner has accepted a large amount of risk due to the high cost of controls. Which of the following should be the information security manager's PRIMARY focus in this situation?

Options:

A.

Establishing a strong ongoing risk monitoring process

B.

Presenting the risk profile for approval by the risk owner

C.

Conducting an independent review of risk responses

D.

Updating the information security standards to include the accepted risk

Question 32

Which of the following is the MOST effective defense against malicious insiders compromising confidential information?

Options:

A.

Regular audits of access controls

B.

Strong background checks when hiring staff

C.

Prompt termination procedures

D.

Role-based access control (RBAC)

Question 33

Which of the following is MOST important in order to obtain senior leadership support when presenting an information security strategy?

Options:

A.

The strategy aligns with management’s acceptable level of risk.

B.

The strategy addresses ineffective information security controls.

C.

The strategy aligns with industry benchmarks and standards.

D.

The strategy addresses organizational maturity and the threat environment.

Question 34

Which of the following is the MOST important detail to capture in an organization's risk register?

Options:

A.

Risk appetite

B.

Risk severity level

C.

Risk acceptance criteria

D.

Risk ownership

Question 35

Senior management has just accepted the risk of noncompliance with a new regulation What should the information security manager do NEX*P

Options:

A.

Report the decision to the compliance officer

B.

Update details within the risk register.

C.

Reassess the organization's risk tolerance.

D.

Assess the impact of the regulation.

Question 36

The PRIMARY objective of performing a post-incident review is to:

Options:

A.

re-evaluate the impact of incidents

B.

identify vulnerabilities

C.

identify control improvements.

D.

identify the root cause.

Question 37

An information security policy was amended recently to support an organization's new information security strategy. Which of the following should be the information security manager's NEXT step?

Options:

A.

Evaluate the alignment with business strategy.

B.

Review technical controls.

C.

Update standards and procedures.

D.

Refresh the security training program.

Question 38

An organization is MOST likely to accept the risk of noncompliance with a new regulatory requirement when:

Options:

A.

employees are resistant to the controls required by the new regulation.

B.

the regulatory requirement conflicts with business requirements.

C.

the risk of noncompliance exceeds the organization's risk appetite.

D.

the cost of complying with the regulation exceeds the potential penalties.

Question 39

An information security manager has been made aware of a new data protection regulation that will soon go into effect. Which of the following is the BEST way to manage the risk of noncompliance?

Options:

A.

Perform a gap analysis.

B.

Consult with senior management on the best course of action.

C.

Implement a program of work to comply with the new legislation.

D.

Understand the cost of noncompliance.

Question 40

Which of the following provides the MOST comprehensive insight into ongoing threats facing an organization?

Options:

A.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

B.

Risk register

C.

Penetration testing

D.

Vulnerability assessment

Question 41

An organization recently outsourced the development of a mission-critical business application. Which of the following would be the BEST way to test for the existence of backdoors?

Options:

A.

Scan the entire application using a vulnerability scanning tool.

B.

Run the application from a high-privileged account on a test system.

C.

Perform security code reviews on the entire application.

D.

Monitor Internet traffic for sensitive information leakage.

Question 42

The PRIMARY purpose for conducting cybersecurity risk assessments is to:

Options:

A.

Assist in security reporting to senior management

B.

Provide metrics to indicate cybersecurity program effectiveness

C.

Verify compliance across multiple sectors

D.

Understand the organization's current security posture

Question 43

Which of the following is the MOST important outcome of effective risk treatment?

Options:

A.

Elimination of risk

B.

Timely reporting of incidents

C.

Reduced cost of acquiring controls

D.

Implementation of corrective actions

Question 44

Which of the following is the BEST approach to make strategic information security decisions?

Options:

A.

Establish regular information security status reporting.

B.

Establish an information security steering committee.

C.

Establish business unit security working groups.

D.

Establish periodic senior management meetings.

Question 45

Which of the following is MOST helpful for protecting an enterprise from advanced persistent threats (APTs)?

Options:

A.

Updated security policies

B.

Defined security standards

C.

Threat intelligence

D.

Regular antivirus updates

Question 46

Which of the following is the MOST essential element of an information security program?

Options:

A.

Benchmarking the program with global standards for relevance

B.

Prioritizing program deliverables based on available resources

C.

Involving functional managers in program development

D.

Applying project management practices used by the business

Question 47

During the due diligence phase of an acquisition, the MOST important course of action for an information security manager is to:

Options:

A.

perform a risk assessment.

B.

review the state of security awareness.

C.

review information security policies.

D.

perform a gap analysis.

Question 48

An information security manager has identified that security risks are not being treated in a timely manner. Which of the following

Options:

A.

Provide regular updates about the current state of the risks.

B.

Re-perform risk analysis at regular intervals.

C.

Assign a risk owner to each risk

D.

Create mitigating controls to manage the risks.

Question 49

The BEST way to integrate information security governance with corporate governance is to ensure:

Options:

A.

the information security steering committee monitors compliance with security policies.

B.

management teams embed information security into business processes.

C.

awareness programs include industry best practice for information security governance.

D.

the information security program is included in regular external audits.

Question 50

What should be the NEXT course of action when an information security manager has identified a department that is repeatedly not following the security policy?

Options:

A.

Perform a vulnerability assessment on the systems within the department.

B.

Introduce additional controls to force compliance with policy.

C.

Require department users to repeat security awareness training.

D.

Report the policy violation to senior management.

Question 51

Which of the following is the BEST indication of effective information security governance?

Options:

A.

Information security is considered the responsibility of the entire information security team.

B.

Information security controls are assigned to risk owners.

C.

Information security is integrated into corporate governance.

D.

Information security governance is based on an external security framework.

Question 52

Following a breach where the risk has been isolated and forensic processes have been performed, which of the following should be done NEXT?

Options:

A.

Place the web server in quarantine.

B.

Rebuild the server from the last verified backup.

C.

Shut down the server in an organized manner.

D.

Rebuild the server with relevant patches from the original media.

Question 53

An organization has an ongoing security awareness training program. Employee participation has been decreasing over the year, while the number of malware and phishing incidents from email has been increasing. What is the information security manager's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Report the findings to senior management with recommendations.

B.

Implement a phishing reporting tool in the email system.

C.

Include regular phishing campaigns after each training session.

D.

Make the training program mandatory for all employees.

Question 54

Which of the following is the BEST approach to reduce unnecessary duplication of compliance activities?

Options:

A.

Documentation of control procedures

B.

Standardization of compliance requirements

C.

Automation of controls

D.

Integration of assurance efforts

Question 55

Management would like to understand the risk associated with engaging an Infrastructure-as-a-Service (laaS) provider compared to hosting internally. Which of the following would provide the BEST method of comparing risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Mapping risk scenarios according to sensitivity of data

B.

Reviewing mitigating and compensating controls for each risk scenario

C.

Mapping the risk scenarios by likelihood and impact on a chart

D.

Performing a risk assessment on the laaS provider

Question 56

An organization has updated its business goals in the middle of the fiscal year to respond to changes in market conditions. Which of the following is MOST important for the information security manager to update in support of the new goals?

Options:

A.

Information security threat profile

B.

Information security policy

C.

Information security objectives

D.

Information security strategy

Question 57

The department head of application development has decided to accept the risks identified in a recent assessment. No recommendations will be implemented, even though the recommendations are required by regulatory oversight. What should the information security manager do NEXT?

Options:

A.

Review the risk monitoring plan.

B.

Formally document the decision.

C.

Review the regulations.

D.

Advise the risk management team.

Question 58

Which of the following is established during the preparation phase of an incident response plan?

Options:

A.

Recovery time objectives (RTOs)

B.

Chain of custody procedures

C.

Stakeholder communication plan

D.

Mean time to respond (MTTR)

Question 59

Which of the following is the BEST indication of an effective information security awareness training program?

Options:

A.

An increase in the frequency of phishing tests

B.

An increase in positive user feedback

C.

An increase in the speed of incident resolution

D.

An increase in the identification rate during phishing simulations

Question 60

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of testing security controls within a critical infrastructure?

Options:

A.

Ensuring the continued resilience and security of IT services

B.

Decreasing the percentage of security deployments that cause failures in production

C.

Reducing the number of control assessments to optimize resources

D.

Identifying and addressing security team performance issues

Question 61

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for an information security manager to periodically review existing controls?

Options:

A.

To prioritize security initiatives

B.

To avoid redundant controls

C.

To align with emerging risk

D.

To address end-user control complaints

Question 62

Which of the following is MOST helpful for aligning security operations with the IT governance framework?

Options:

A.

Security risk assessment

B.

Security operations program

C.

Information security policy

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

Question 63

Which of the following is the BEST way to help ensure an organization's risk appetite will be considered as part of the risk treatment process?

Options:

A.

Establish key risk indicators (KRIs).

B.

Use quantitative risk assessment methods.

C.

Provide regular reporting on risk treatment to senior management

D.

Require steering committee approval of risk treatment plans.

Question 64

An organization has received complaints from users that some of their files have been encrypted. These users are receiving demands for money to decrypt the files. Which of the following would be the BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Conduct an impact assessment.

B.

Isolate the affected systems.

C.

Rebuild the affected systems.

D.

Initiate incident response.

Question 65

Which of the following is MOST important to consider when choosing a shared alternate location for computing facilities?

Options:

A.

The organization's risk tolerance

B.

The organization's mission

C.

Resource availability

D.

Incident response team training

Question 66

Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure the business continuity plan (BCP) is current?

Options:

A.

Manage business process changes.

B.

Update business impact analyses (BIAs) on a regular basis.

C.

Conduct periodic testing.

D.

Review and update emergency contact lists.

Question 67

Which of the following BEST determines an information asset's classification?

Options:

A.

Value of the information asset in the marketplace

B.

Criticality to a business process

C.

Risk assessment from the data owner

D.

Cost of producing the information asset

Question 68

Which of the following is MOST important when designing an information security governance framework?

Options:

A.

Aligning with the information security strategy

B.

Assessing the availability of information security resources

C.

Aligning with industry best practice frameworks

D.

Assessing the current state of information security

Question 69

In which cloud model does the cloud service buyer assume the MOST security responsibility?

Options:

A.

Disaster Recovery as a Service (DRaaS)

B.

Infrastructure as a Service (laaS)

C.

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

D.

Software as a Service (SaaS)

Question 70

An organization is experiencing a sharp increase in incidents related to phishing messages. The root cause is an outdated email filtering system that is no longer supported by the vendor. Which of the following should be the information security manager's FIRST course of action?

Options:

A.

Reinforce security awareness practices for end users.

B.

Temporarily outsource the email system to a cloud provider.

C.

Develop a business case to replace the system.

D.

Monitor outgoing traffic on the firewall.

Question 71

Which of the following is the GREATEST value provided by a security information and event management (SIEM) system?

Options:

A.

Maintaining a repository base of security policies

B.

Measuring impact of exploits on business processes

C.

Facilitating the monitoring of risk occurrences

D.

Redirecting event logs to an alternate location for business continuity plan

Question 72

What is the PRIMARY objective of performing a vulnerability assessment following a business system update?

Options:

A.

Determine operational losses.

B.

Improve the change control process.

C.

Update the threat landscape.

D.

Review the effectiveness of controls

Question 73

Which of the following is an information security manager's MOST important course of action when responding to a major security incident that could disrupt the business?

Options:

A.

Follow the escalation process.

B.

Identify the indicators of compromise.

C.

Notify law enforcement.

D.

Contact forensic investigators.

Question 74

Which of the following is the BEST approach to incident response for an organization migrating to a cloud-based solution?

Options:

A.

Adopt the cloud provider's incident response procedures.

B.

Transfer responsibility for incident response to the cloud provider.

C.

Continue using the existing incident response procedures.

D.

Revise incident response procedures to encompass the cloud environment.

Question 75

Management of a financial institution accepted an operational risk that consequently led to the temporary deactivation to a critical monitoring process. Which of the following should be the information security manager's GREATEST concern with this situation?

Options:

A.

Impact on compliance risk.

B.

Inability to determine short-term impact.

C.

Impact on the risk culture.

D.

Deviation from risk management best practices

Question 76

Which of the following is MOST important to consider when defining control objectives?

Options:

A.

Industry best practices

B.

An information security framework

C.

Control recommendations from a recent audit

D.

The organization's risk appetite

Question 77

An information security team is planning a security assessment of an existing vendor. Which of the following approaches is MOST helpful for properly scoping the assessment?

Options:

A.

Focus the review on the infrastructure with the highest risk

B.

Review controls listed in the vendor contract

C.

Determine whether the vendor follows the selected security framework rules

D.

Review the vendor's security policy

Question 78

Which of the following should be the FIRST step in developing an information security strategy?

Options:

A.

Perform a gap analysis based on the current state

B.

Create a roadmap to identify security baselines and controls.

C.

Identify key stakeholders to champion information security.

D.

Determine acceptable levels of information security risk.

Question 79

Which of the following is the BEST starting point for a newly hired information security manager who has been tasked with identifying and addressing network vulnerabilities?

Options:

A.

Controls analysis

B.

Emerging risk review

C.

Penetration testing

D.

Traffic monitoring

Question 80

A finance department director has decided to outsource the organization's budget application and has identified potential providers. Which of the following actions should be initiated FIRST by IN information security manager?

Options:

A.

Determine the required security controls for the new solution

B.

Review the disaster recovery plans (DRPs) of the providers

C.

Obtain audit reports on the service providers' hosting environment

D.

Align the roles of the organization's and the service providers' stats.

Question 81

Which of the following is the BEST reason for senior management to support a business case for developing a monitoring system for a critical application?

Options:

A.

An industry peer experienced a recent breach with a similar application.

B.

The system can be replicated for additional use cases.

C.

The cost of implementing the system is less than the impact of downtime.

D.

The solution is within the organization's risk tolerance.

Question 82

Which of the following is MOST helpful in the development of a cost-effective information security strategy that is aligned with business requirements?

Options:

A.

Enforcing data retention

B.

Developing policy standards

C.

Benchmarking against industry peers

D.

Categorizing information assets

Question 83

In order to understand an organization's security posture, it is MOST important for an organization's senior leadership to:

Options:

A.

evaluate results of the most recent incident response test.

B.

review the number of reported security incidents.

C.

ensure established security metrics are reported.

D.

assess progress of risk mitigation efforts.

Question 84

The PRIMARY goal to a post-incident review should be to:

Options:

A.

identify policy changes to prevent a recurrence.

B.

determine how to improve the incident handling process.

C.

establish the cost of the incident to the business.

D.

determine why the incident occurred.

Question 85

Which type of backup BEST enables an organization to recover data after a ransomware attack?

Options:

A.

Online backup

B.

Incremental backup

C.

Differential backup

D.

Offline backup

Question 86

During the due diligence phase of an acquisition, the MOST important course of action for an information security manager is to:

Options:

A.

Perform a risk assessment

B.

Perform a gap analysis

C.

Review information security policies

D.

Review the state of security awareness

Question 87

A PRIMARY benefit of adopting an information security framework is that it provides:

Options:

A.

credible emerging threat intelligence.

B.

security and vulnerability reporting guidelines.

C.

common exploitability indices.

D.

standardized security controls.

Question 88

What should an information security manager verify FIRST when reviewing an information asset management program?

Options:

A.

System owners have been identified.

B.

Key applications have been secured.

C.

Information assets have been classified.

D.

Information assets have been inventoried.

Question 89

Which of the following should be the MOST important consideration of business continuity management?

Options:

A.

Ensuring human safety

B.

Identifying critical business processes

C.

Ensuring the reliability of backup data

D.

Securing critical information assets

Question 90

A financial company executive is concerned about recently increasing cyberattacks and needs to take action to reduce risk. The organization would BEST respond by:

Options:

A.

increasing budget and staffing levels for the incident response team.

B.

implementing an intrusion detection system (IDS).

C.

revalidating and mitigating risks to an acceptable level.

D.

testing the business continuity plan (BCP).

Question 91

The PRIMARY consideration when responding to a ransomware attack should be to ensure:

Options:

A.

backups are available.

B.

the most recent patches have been applied.

C.

the ransomware attack is contained

D.

the business can operate

Question 92

Which of the following would BEST enable the timely execution of an incident response plan?

Options:

A.

The introduction of a decision support tool

B.

Definition of trigger events

C.

Clearly defined data classification process

D.

Centralized service desk

Question 93

The PRIMARY goal when conducting post-incident reviews is to identify:

Options:

A.

Additional cybersecurity budget needs

B.

Weaknesses in incident response plans

C.

Information to be shared with senior management

D.

Individuals that need additional training

Question 94

An organization's main product is a customer-facing application delivered using Software as a Service (SaaS). The lead security engineer has just identified a major security vulnerability at the primary cloud provider. Within the organization, who is PRIMARILY accountable for the associated task?

Options:

A.

The information security manager

B.

The data owner

C.

The application owner

D.

The security engineer

Question 95

Which of the following is the PRIMARY preventive method to mitigate risks associated with privileged accounts?

Options:

A.

Eliminate privileged accounts.

B.

Perform periodic certification of access to privileged accounts.

C.

Frequently monitor activities on privileged accounts.

D.

Provide privileged account access only to users who need it.

Question 96

Which of the following is the BEST evidence of alignment between corporate and information security governance?

Options:

A.

Security key performance indicators (KPIs)

B.

Project resource optimization

C.

Regular security policy reviews

D.

Senior management sponsorship

Question 97

Which of the following BEST illustrates residual risk within an organization?

Options:

A.

Heat map

B.

Risk management framework

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Balanced scorecard

Question 98

Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of implementing an information security governance framework?

Options:

A.

The framework defines managerial responsibilities for risk impacts to business goals.

B.

The framework provides direction to meet business goals while balancing risks and controls.

C.

The framework provides a roadmap to maximize revenue through the secure use of technology.

D.

The framework is able to confirm the validity of business goals and strategies.

Question 99

Which of the following is MOST important when defining how an information security budget should be allocated?

Options:

A.

Regulatory compliance standards

B.

Information security strategy

C.

Information security policy

D.

Business impact assessment

Question 100

Which of the following is the MOST important issue in a penetration test?

Options:

A.

Having an independent group perform the test

B.

Obtaining permission from audit

C.

Performing the test without the benefit of any insider knowledge

D.

Having a defined goal as well as success and failure criteria

Question 101

Which of the following provides the MOST assurance that a third-party hosting provider will be able to meet availability requirements?

Options:

A.

Right-to-audit clause

B.

The third party's incident response plan

C.

Service level agreement (SLA)

D.

The third party's business continuity plan (BCP)

Question 102

Which of the following is the BEST indicator of an organization's information security status?

Options:

A.

Intrusion detection log analysis

B.

Controls audit

C.

Threat analysis

D.

Penetration test

Question 103

Business objectives and organizational risk appetite are MOST useful inputs to the development of information security:

Options:

A.

strategy.

B.

risk assessments.

C.

key performance indicators (KPIs).

D.

standards.

Question 104

Which of the following is the BEST indicator of an emerging incident?

Options:

A.

A weakness identified within an organization's information systems

B.

Customer complaints about lack of website availability

C.

A recent security incident at an industry competitor

D.

Attempted patching of systems resulting in errors

Question 105

When analyzing the emerging risk and threat landscape, an information security manager should FIRST:

Options:

A.

determine the impact if threats materialize.

B.

determine the sources of emerging threats.

C.

review historical threats within the industry.

D.

map threats to business assets.

Question 106

Which of the following is MOST important to the successful implementation of an information security program?

Options:

A.

Adequate security resources are allocated to the program.

B.

Key performance indicators (KPIs) are defined.

C.

A balanced scorecard is approved by the steering committee.

D.

The program is developed using global security standards.

Question 107

A new information security reporting requirement will soon become effective. Which of the following should be the information security manager's FIRST action?

Options:

A.

Conduct a cost-benefit analysis related to noncompliance with the new requirement.

B.

Perform a gap assessment against the new requirement.

C.

Investigate to determine whether the new requirement applies to the business.

D.

Inform senior management of the new requirement.

Question 108

When testing an incident response plan for recovery from a ransomware attack, which of the following is MOST important to verify?

Options:

A.

Digital currency is immediately available.

B.

Network access requires two-factor authentication.

C.

Data backups are recoverable from an offsite location.

D.

An alternative network link is immediately available.

Question 109

A PRIMARY purpose of creating security policies is to:

Options:

A.

define allowable security boundaries.

B.

communicate management's security expectations.

C.

establish the way security tasks should be executed.

D.

implement management's security governance strategy.

Question 110

Which of the following should an organization do FIRST upon learning that a subsidiary is located in a country where civil unrest has just begun?

Options:

A.

Assess changes in the risk profile.

B.

Activate the disaster recovery plan (DRP).

C.

Invoke the incident response plan.

D.

Conduct security awareness training.

Question 111

Which of the following is the BEST approach for managing user access permissions to ensure alignment with data classification?

Options:

A.

Enable multi-factor authentication on user and admin accounts.

B.

Review access permissions annually or whenever job responsibilities change

C.

Lock out accounts after a set number of unsuccessful login attempts.

D.

Delegate the management of access permissions to an independent third party.

Question 112

When establishing an information security governance framework, it is MOST important for an information security manager to understand:

Options:

A.

information security best practices.

B.

risk management techniques.

C.

the threat environment.

D.

the corporate culture.

Question 113

An information security manager has been tasked with developing materials to update the board, regulatory agencies, and the media about a security incident. Which of the following should the information security manager do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Set up communication channels for the target audience.

B.

Determine the needs and requirements of each audience.

C.

Create a comprehensive singular communication

D.

Invoke the organization's incident response plan.

Question 114

Which of the following should be done FIRST when establishing an information security governance framework?

Options:

A.

Evaluate information security tools and skills relevant for the environment.

B.

Gain an understanding of the business and cultural attributes.

C.

Contract a third party to conduct an independent review of the program.

D.

Conduct a cost-benefit analysis of the framework.

Question 115

An organization wants to integrate information security into its HR management processes. Which of the following should be the FIRST step?

Options:

A.

Benchmark the processes with best practice to identify gaps.

B.

Calculate the return on investment (ROI).

C.

Provide security awareness training to HR.

D.

Assess the business objectives of the processes.

Question 116

Which of the following is an information security manager's BEST course of action when a penetration test reveals a security exposure due to a firewall that is not configured correctly?

Options:

A.

Ensure a plan with milestones is developed.

B.

Implement a distributed denial of service (DDoS) control.

C.

Engage the incident response team.

D.

Define new key performance indicators (KPIs).

Question 117

What will BEST facilitate the success of new security initiatives?

Options:

A.

Establish an IT security steering committee.

B.

Include business in security decision making.

C.

Update security policies on a regular basis

D.

Monitor post-implementation security metrics.

Question 118

Which of the following has the GREATEST influence on the successful integration of information security within the business?

Options:

A.

Organizational structure and culture

B.

Risk tolerance and organizational objectives

C.

The desired state of the organization

D.

Information security personnel

Question 119

Which of the following is MOST important in increasing the effectiveness of incident responders?

Options:

A.

Communicating with the management team

B.

Integrating staff with the IT department

C.

Testing response scenarios

D.

Reviewing the incident response plan annually

Question 120

Detailed business continuity plans (BCPs) should be PRIMARILY based on:

Options:

A.

strategies validated by senior management.

B.

capabilities of available local vendors.

C.

strategies that cover all applications.

D.

cost and resources needed to execute.

Question 121

An information security manager notes that security incidents are not being appropriately escalated by the help desk after tickets are logged. Which of the following is the BEST automated control to resolve this issue?

Options:

A.

Implementing automated vulnerability scanning in the help desk workflow

B.

Changing the default setting for all security incidents to the highest priority

C.

Integrating automated service level agreement (SLA) reporting into the help desk ticketing system

D.

Integrating incident response workflow into the help desk ticketing system

Question 122

A risk assessment exercise has identified the threat of a denial of service (DoS) attack Executive management has decided to take no further action related to this risk. The MO ST likely reason for this decision is

Options:

A.

the risk assessment has not defined the likelihood of occurrence

B.

the reported vulnerability has not been validated

C.

executive management is not aware of the impact potential

D.

the cost of implementing controls exceeds the potential financial losses.

Question 123

An organization has decided to implement an Internet of Things (IoT) solution to remain competitive in the market. Which of the following should information security do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Recalculate risk profile

B.

Implement compensating controls

C.

Reassess risk tolerance levels

D.

Update the security architecture

Question 124

The MOST effective tools for responding to new and advanced attacks are those that detect attacks based on:

Options:

A.

signature analysis.

B.

behavior analysis.

C.

penetration testing.

D.

data packet analysis.

Question 125

Which of the following BEST indicates the effectiveness of a recent information security awareness campaign delivered across the organization?

Options:

A.

Decrease in the number of security incidents

B.

Increase in the frequency of security incident escalations

C.

Reduction in the impact of security incidents

D.

Increase in the number of reported security incidents

Question 126

An organization has identified an increased threat of external brute force attacks in its environment. Which of the following is the MOST effective way to mitigate this risk to the organization's critical systems?

Options:

A.

Implement multi-factor authentication.

B.

Increase the frequency of log monitoring and analysis.

C.

Implement a security information and event management system (SIEM),

D.

Increase the sensitivity of intrusion detection systems (IDSs).

Question 127

Following an unsuccessful denial of service (DoS) attack, identified weaknesses should be:

Options:

A.

quickly resolved and eliminated regardless of cost.

B.

tracked and reported on until their final resolution.

C.

documented in security awareness programs.

D.

noted and re-examined later if similar weaknesses are found.

Question 128

Which of the following is MOST helpful in determining an organization's current capacity to mitigate risks?

Options:

A.

Capability maturity model

B.

Vulnerability assessment

C.

IT security risk and exposure

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

Question 129

An organization is creating a risk mitigation plan that considers redundant power supplies to reduce the business risk associated with critical system outages. Which type of control is being considered?

Options:

A.

Preventive

B.

Corrective

C.

Detective

D.

Deterrent

Question 130

Which of the following is the MOST important reason for an organization to communicate to affected parties that a security incident has occurred?

Options:

A.

To improve awareness of information security

B.

To disclose the root cause of the incident

C.

To increase goodwill toward the organization

D.

To comply with regulations regarding notification

Question 131

Which of the following is MOST important when responding to a major security incident?

Options:

A.

Contacting forensic investigators

B.

Following the escalation process

C.

Notifying law enforcement

D.

Identifying the indicators of compromise

Question 132

Which of the following BEST enables an organization to enhance its incident response plan processes and procedures?

Options:

A.

Security risk assessments

B.

Lessons learned analysis

C.

Information security audits

D.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

Question 133

Which of the following is MOST helpful to identify whether information security policies have been followed?

Options:

A.

Preventive controls

B.

Detective controls

C.

Directive controls

D.

Corrective controls

Question 134

Which of the following should be established FIRST when implementing an information security governance framework?

Options:

A.

Security architecture

B.

Security policies

C.

Security incident management team

D.

Security awareness training program

Question 135

Which of the following is the BEST way to build a risk-aware culture?

Options:

A.

Periodically change risk awareness messages.

B.

Ensure that threats are documented and communicated in a timely manner.

C.

Establish a channel for staff to report risks.

D.

Periodically test compliance with security controls.

Question 136

Which of the following is MOST effective in preventing the introduction of vulnerabilities that may disrupt the availability of a critical business application?

Options:

A.

A patch management process

B.

Version control

C.

Change management controls

D.

Logical access controls

Question 137

An information security manager determines there are a significant number of exceptions to a newly released industry-required security standard. Which of the following should be done NEXT?

Options:

A.

Document risk acceptances.

B.

Revise the organization's security policy.

C.

Assess the consequences of noncompliance.

D.

Conduct an information security audit.

Question 138

The PRIMARY objective of performing a post-incident review is to:

Options:

A.

re-evaluate the impact of incidents.

B.

identify vulnerabilities.

C.

identify control improvements.

D.

identify the root cause.

Question 139

The BEST way to ensure that frequently encountered incidents are reflected in the user security awareness training program is to include:

Options:

A.

results of exit interviews.

B.

previous training sessions.

C.

examples of help desk requests.

D.

responses to security questionnaires.

Question 140

Which of the following BEST indicates that an information security governance framework has been successfully implemented?

Options:

A.

The framework aligns internal and external resources.

B.

The framework aligns security processes with industry best practices.

C.

The framework aligns management and other functions within the security organization.

D.

The framework includes commercial off-the-shelf security solutions.

Question 141

Which of the following would be MOST important to include in a proposal justifying investments for an organization's information security program?

Options:

A.

Vulnerability scan results

B.

Competitor benchmark analysis

C.

Previous security budget

D.

Business requirements

Question 142

Spoofing should be prevented because it may be used to:

Options:

A.

gain illegal entry to a secure system by faking the sender's address,

B.

predict which way a program will branch when an option is presented

C.

assemble information, track traffic, and identify network vulnerabilities.

D.

capture information such as passwords traveling through the network

Question 143

A balanced scorecard MOST effectively enables information security:

Options:

A.

project management

B.

governance.

C.

performance.

D.

risk management.

Question 144

Which of the following BEST facilitates the effective execution of an incident response plan?

Options:

A.

The plan is based on risk assessment results.

B.

The response team is trained on the plan

C.

The plan is based on industry best practice.

D.

The incident response plan aligns with the IT disaster recovery plan (DRP).

Question 145

Which of the following would be of GREATEST assistance in determining whether to accept residual risk of a critical security system?

Options:

A.

Available annual budget

B.

Cost-benefit analysis of mitigating controls

C.

Recovery time objective (RTO)

D.

Maximum tolerable outage (MTO)

Question 146

Of the following, whose input is of GREATEST importance in the development of an information security strategy?

Options:

A.

Process owners

B.

End users

C.

Security architects.

D.

Corporate auditors

Question 147

During the implementation of a new system, which of the following processes proactively minimizes the likelihood of disruption, unauthorized alterations, and errors?

Options:

A.

Configuration management

B.

Password management

C.

Change management

D.

Version management

Question 148

Which of the following should an information security manager do FIRST after discovering that a business unit has implemented a newly purchased application and bypassed the change management process?

Options:

A.

Revise the procurement process.

B.

Update the change management process.

C.

Discuss the issue with senior leadership.

D.

Remove the application from production.

Question 149

Which of the following backup methods requires the MOST time to restore data for an application?

Options:

A.

Full backup

B.

Incremental

C.

Differential

D.

Disk mirroring

Question 150

A new type of ransomware has infected an organization's network. Which of the following would have BEST enabled the organization to detect this situation?

Options:

A.

Regular review of the threat landscape

B.

Periodic information security training for end users

C.

Use of integrated patch deployment tools

D.

Monitoring of anomalies in system behavior

Question 151

Which of the following is a function of the information security steering committee?

Options:

A.

Deliver external communication during incident response.

B.

Align the security framework with security standards.

C.

Align security strategy with business objectives.

D.

Monitor regulatory requirements.

Question 152

A multinational organization is required to follow governmental regulations with different security requirements at each of its operating locations. The chief information security officer (CISO) should be MOST concerned with:

Options:

A.

developing a security program that meets global and regional requirements.

B.

ensuring effective communication with local regulatory bodies.

C.

using industry best practice to meet local legal regulatory requirements.

D.

monitoring compliance with defined security policies and standards.

Question 153

An employee clicked on a link in a phishing email, triggering a ransomware attack Which of the following should be the information security?

Options:

A.

Wipe the affected system.

B.

Notify internal legal counsel.

C.

Notify senior management.

D.

Isolate the impacted endpoints.

Question 154

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason that an information security manager should restrict the use of generic administrator accounts in a multi-user environment?

Options:

A.

To ensure separation of duties is maintained

B.

To ensure system audit trails are not bypassed

C.

To prevent accountability issues

D.

To prevent unauthorized user access

Question 155

Which of the following is the BEST way to help ensure alignment of the information security program with organizational objectives?

Options:

A.

Establish an information security steering committee.

B.

Employ a process-based approach for information asset classification.

C.

Utilize an industry-recognized risk management framework.

D.

Provide security awareness training to board executives.

Question 156

Which of the following is MOST important for an information security manager to consider when reviewing a security investment plan?

Options:

A.

The plan has summarized IT costs for implementation.

B.

The plan resolves all potential threats to business processes.

C.

The plan focuses on meeting industry best practices and industry standards.

D.

The plan is based on a review of threats and vulnerabilities.

Question 157

Which of the following is the MOST important outcome of a post-incident review?

Options:

A.

The impact of the incident is reported to senior management.

B.

The system affected by the incident is restored to its prior state.

C.

The person responsible for the incident is identified.

D.

The root cause of the incident is determined.

Question 158

A small organization with limited budget hires a new information security manager who finds the same IT staff member is assigned the responsibility of system administrator, security administrator, database administrator (DBA), and application administrator What is the manager's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Automate user provisioning activities.

B.

Maintain strict control over user provisioning activities.

C.

Formally document IT administrator activities.

D.

Implement monitoring of IT administrator activities.

Question 159

An information security manager has identified that privileged employee access requests to production servers are approved; but user actions are not logged. Which of the following should be the GREATEST concern with this situation?

Options:

A.

Lack of availability

B.

Lack of accountability

C.

Improper authorization

D.

Inadequate authentication

Question 160

An information security manager is assisting in the development of the request for proposal (RFP) for a new outsourced service. This will require the third party to have access to critical business information. The security manager should focus PRIMARILY on defining:

Options:

A.

service level agreements (SLAs)

B.

security requirements for the process being outsourced.

C.

risk-reporting methodologies.

D.

security metrics

Question 161

Which of the following service offerings in a typical Infrastructure as a Service (laaS) model will BEST enable a cloud service provider to assist customers when recovering from a security incident?

Options:

A.

Availability of web application firewall logs.

B.

Capability of online virtual machine analysis

C.

Availability of current infrastructure documentation

D.

Capability to take a snapshot of virtual machines

Question 162

Which of the following is the BEST way to obtain support for a new organization-wide information security program?

Options:

A.

Benchmark against similar industry organizations

B.

Deliver an information security awareness campaign.

C.

Publish an information security RACI chart.

D.

Establish an information security strategy committee.

Question 163

Which of the following would be the MOST effective way to present quarterly reports to the board on the status of the information security program?

Options:

A.

A capability and maturity assessment

B.

Detailed analysis of security program KPIs

C.

An information security dashboard

D.

An information security risk register

Question 164

Which of the following should be the MOST important consideration when reviewing an information security strategy?

Options:

A.

Recent security incidents

B.

New business initiatives

C.

Industry security standards

D.

Internal audit findings

Question 165

Which of the following considerations is MOST important when selecting a third-party intrusion detection system (IDS) vendor?

Options:

A.

The vendor's proposal allows for contract modification during technology refresh cycles.

B.

The vendor's proposal aligns with the objectives of the organization.

C.

The vendor's proposal requires the provider to have a business continuity plan (BCP).

D.

The vendor's proposal allows for escrow in the event the third party goes out of business.

Question 166

A new application has entered the production environment with deficient technical security controls. Which of the following is MOST Likely the root cause?

Options:

A.

Inadequate incident response controls

B.

Lack of legal review

C.

Inadequate change control

D.

Lack of quality control

Question 167

Which of the following is MOST important to the effectiveness of an information security program?

Options:

A.

Security metrics

B.

Organizational culture

C.

IT governance

D.

Risk management

Question 168

Which of the following BEST indicates misalignment of security policies with business objectives?

Options:

A.

Low completion rate of employee awareness training

B.

Lack of adequate funding for the security program

C.

A large number of long-term policy exceptions

D.

A large number of user noncompliance incidents

Question 169

Which of the following is MOST important when designing security controls for new cloud-based services?

Options:

A.

Evaluating different types of deployment models according to the associated risks

B.

Understanding the business and IT strategy for moving resources to the cloud

C.

Defining an incident response policy to protect data moving between onsite and cloud applications

D.

Performing a business impact analysis (BIA) to gather information needed to develop recovery strategies

Question 170

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to document information security incidents that are reported across the organization?

Options:

A.

Evaluate the security posture of the organization.

B.

Identify unmitigated risk.

C.

Prevent incident recurrence.

D.

Support business investments in security.

Question 171

Which of the following should be the GREATEST consideration when determining the recovery time objective (RTO) for an in-house critical application, database, or server?

Options:

A.

Impact of service interruption

B.

Results of recovery testing

C.

Determination of recovery point objective (RPO)

D.

Direction from senior management

Question 172

An organization plans to leverage popular social network platforms to promote its products and services. Which of the following is the BEST course of action for the information security manager to support this initiative?

Options:

A.

Establish processes to publish content on social networks.

B.

Assess the security risk associated with the use of social networks.

C.

Conduct vulnerability assessments on social network platforms.

D.

Develop security controls for the use of social networks.

Question 173

Which of the following metrics is MOST appropriate for evaluating the incident notification process?

Options:

A.

Average total cost of downtime per reported incident

B.

Elapsed time between response and resolution

C.

Average number of incidents per reporting period

D.

Elapsed time between detection, reporting, and response

Question 174

An organization engages a third-party vendor to monitor and support a financial application under scrutiny by regulators. Which of the following controls would MOST effectively manage risk to the organization?

Options:

A.

Implementing separation of duties between systems and data

B.

Including penalty clauses for noncompliance in the vendor contract

C.

Disabling vendor access and only re-enabling when access is needed

D.

Monitoring key risk indicators (KRIs)

Question 175

Which of the following has the MOST influence on the information security investment process?

Options:

A.

IT governance framework

B.

Information security policy

C.

Organizational risk appetite

D.

Security key performance indicators (KPIs)

Question 176

Which of the following will result in the MOST accurate controls assessment?

Options:

A.

Mature change management processes

B.

Senior management support

C.

Well-defined security policies

D.

Unannounced testing

Question 177

Which of the following is the FIRST step in developing a business continuity plan (BCP)?

Options:

A.

Determine the business recovery strategy

B.

Determine available resources.

C.

Identify the applications with the shortest recovery time objectives (RTOs).

D.

Identify critical business processes.

Question 178

A data discovery project uncovers an unclassified process document. Of the following, who is BEST suited to determine the classification?

Options:

A.

Information security manager

B.

Security policy author

C.

Creator of the document

D.

Data custodian

Question 179

Which of the following is necessary to ensure consistent protection for an organization's information assets?

Options:

A.

Classification model

B.

Control assessment

C.

Data ownership

D.

Regulatory requirements

Question 180

Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit achieved when an information security governance framework is aligned with corporate governance?

Options:

A.

Protection of business value and assets

B.

Identification of core business strategiesC, Easier entrance into new businesses and technologies

C.

Improved regulatory compliance posture

Question 181

Which of the following BEST facilitates effective incident response testing?

Options:

A.

Including all business units in testing

B.

Simulating realistic test scenarios

C.

Reviewing test results quarterly

D.

Testing after major business changes

Question 182

The information security manager has been notified of a new vulnerability that affects key data processing systems within the organization Which of the following should be done FIRST?

Options:

A.

Inform senior management

B.

Re-evaluate the risk

C.

Implement compensating controls

D.

Ask the business owner for the new remediation plan

Question 183

When choosing the best controls to mitigate risk to acceptable levels, the information security manager's decision should be MAINLY driven by:

Options:

A.

best practices.

B.

control framework

C.

regulatory requirements.

D.

cost-benefit analysis,

Question 184

Which of the following is MOST important to complete during the recovery phase of an incident response process before bringing affected systems back online?

Options:

A.

Record and close security incident tickets.

B.

Test and verify that compromisedsystems are clean.

C.

Document recovery steps for senior management reporting.

D.

Capture and preserve forensic images of affected systems.

Question 185

In a business proposal, a potential vendor promotes being certified for international security standards as a measure of its security capability.

Before relying on this certification, it is MOST important that the information security manager confirms that the:

Options:

A.

current international standard was used to assess security processes.

B.

certification will remain current through the life of the contract.

C.

certification scope is relevant to the service being offered.

D.

certification can be extended to cover the client's business.

Question 186

A newly appointed information security manager of a retailer with multiple stores discovers an HVAC (heating, ventilation, and air conditioning) vendor has remote access to the stores to enable real-time monitoring and equipment diagnostics. Which of the following should be the information security manager's FIRST course of action?

Options:

A.

Conduct a penetration test of the vendor.

B.

Review the vendor's technical security controls

C.

Review the vendor contract

D.

Disconnect the real-time access

Question 187

Which of the following is the BEST way to compete for funding for an information security program in an organization with limited resources?

Options:

A.

Demonstrate the effectiveness of business continuity plans (BCPs).

B.

Report key performance indicator (KPI) trends.

C.

Demonstrate that the program enables business activities.

D.

Provide evidence of increased security events at peer organizations.

Question 188

When is the BEST time to verify that a production system's security mechanisms meet control objectives?

Options:

A.

During quality and acceptance checks

B.

On a continuous basis through monitoring activities and automated tooling

C.

After remediations recommended by penetration tests have been completed

D.

During annual internal and compliance audits

Question 189

Which of the following BEST facilitates an information security manager's efforts to obtain senior management commitment for an information security program?

Options:

A.

Presenting evidence of inherent risk

B.

Reporting the security maturity level

C.

Presenting compliance requirements

D.

Communicating the residual risk

Question 190

Which of the following components of an information security risk assessment is MOST valuable to senior management?

Options:

A.

Threat profile

B.

Residual risk

C.

Return on investment (ROI)

D.

Mitigation actions

Question 191

Which of the following is PRIMARILY influenced by a business impact analysis (BIA)?

Options:

A.

IT strategy

B.

Recovery strategy

C.

Risk mitigation strategy

D.

Security strategy

Question 192

Which of the following is the FIRST step when conducting a post-incident review?

Options:

A.

Identify mitigating controls.

B.

Assess the costs of the incident.

C.

Perform root cause analysis.

D.

Assign responsibility for corrective actions.

Question 193

When collecting admissible evidence, which of the following is the MOST important requirement?

Options:

A.

Need to know

B.

Preserving audit logs

C.

Due diligence

D.

Chain of custody

Question 194

Which of the following business units should own the data that populates an identity management system?

Options:

A.

Human resources (HR)

B.

Legal

C.

Information technology

D.

Information security

Question 195

Which of the following is the BEST reason to implement an information security architecture?

Options:

A.

Assess the cost-effectiveness of the integration.

B.

Fast-track the deployment of information security components.

C.

Serve as a post-deployment information security road map.

D.

Facilitate consistent implementation of security requirements.

Question 196

An organization has acquired a new system with strict maintenance instructions and schedules. Where should this information be documented?

Options:

A.

Standards

B.

Policies

C.

Guidelines

D.

Procedures

Question 197

An organization has identified IT failures in a call center application. Of the following, who should own this risk?

Options:

A.

Information security manager

B.

Head of the call center

C.

Chief executive officer (CEO)

D.

Head of the IT department

Question 198

Prior to conducting a forensic examination, an information security manager should:

Options:

A.

boot the original hard disk on a clean system.

B.

create an image of the original data on new media.

C.

duplicate data from the backup media.

D.

shut down and relocate the server.

Question 199

A technical vulnerability assessment on a personnel information management server should be performed when:

Options:

A.

the data owner leaves the organization unexpectedly.

B.

changes are made to the system configuration.

C.

the number of unauthorized access attempts increases.

D.

an unexpected server outage has occurred.

Question 200

Which of the following is the MOST important reason for logging firewall activity?

Options:

A.

Metrics reporting

B.

Firewall tuning

C.

Intrusion prevention

D.

Incident investigation

Question 201

Which of the following BEST enables an organization to effectively manage emerging cyber risk?

Options:

A.

Periodic internal and external audits

B.

Clear lines of responsibility

C.

Sufficient cyber budget allocation

D.

Cybersecurity policies

Question 202

A critical server for a hospital has been encrypted by ransomware. The hospital is unable to function effectively without this server Which of the following would MOST effectively allow the hospital to avoid paying the ransom?

Options:

A.

Employee training on ransomware

B.

A properly tested offline backup system

C.

A continual server replication process

D.

A properly configured firewall

Question 203

Which of the following will provide the MOST guidance when deciding the level of protection for an information asset?

Options:

A.

Impact on information security program

B.

Cost of controls

C.

Impact to business function

D.

Cost to replace

Question 204

A software vendor has announced a zero-day vulnerability that exposes an organization's critical business systems. The vendor has released an emergency patch. Which of the following should be the information security managers PRIMARY concern?

Options:

A.

Ability to test the patch prior to deployment

B.

Documentation of patching procedures

C.

Adequacy of the incident response plan

D.

Availability of resources to implement controls

Question 205

An organization has remediated a security flaw in a system. Which of the following should be done NEXT?

Options:

A.

Assess the residual risk.

B.

Share lessons learned with the organization.

C.

Update the system's documentation.

D.

Allocate budget for penetration testing.

Question 206

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY basis for establishing metrics that measure the effectiveness of an information security program?

Options:

A.

Residual risk

B.

Regulatory requirements

C.

Risk tolerance

D.

Control objectives

Question 207

Penetration testing is MOST appropriate when a:

Options:

A.

new system is about to go live.

B.

new system is being designed.

C.

security policy is being developed.

D.

security incident has occurred,

Question 208

When remote access is granted to a company's internal network, the MOST important consideration should be that access is provided:

Options:

A.

on a need-to-know basis subject to controls.

B.

subject to legal and regulatory requirements.

C.

by the use of a remote access server.

D.

if a robust IT infrastructure exists.

Question 209

An information security manager has been notified that two senior executives have the ability to elevate their own privileges in the corporate accounting system, in violation of policy. What is the FIRST step to address this issue?

Options:

A.

Immediately suspend the executives' access privileges.

B.

Notify the CISO of the security policy violation.

C.

Perform a full review of all system transactions over the past 90 days.

D.

Perform a system access review.

Question 210

Which of the following has the MOST influence on the inherent risk of an information asset?

Options:

A.

Risk tolerance

B.

Net present value (NPV)

C.

Return on investment (ROI)

D.

Business criticality

Question 211

Which of the following is the BEST way to evaluate the effectiveness of physical and environmental security controls implemented for fire-related disasters?

Options:

A.

Conduct evacuation exercises

B.

Review the disaster recovery plan (DRP)

C.

Conduct awareness sessions

D.

Review emergency management team procedures

Question 212

When developing an incident escalation process, the BEST approach is to classify incidents based on:

Options:

A.

estimated time to recover.

B.

information assets affected.

C.

recovery point objectives (RPOs).

D.

their root causes.

Question 213

Which of the following BEST supports the incident management process for attacks on an organization's supply chain?

Options:

A.

Including service level agreements (SLAs) in vendor contracts

B.

Establishing communication paths with vendors

C.

Requiring security awareness training for vendor staff

D.

Performing integration testing with vendor systems

Question 214

Which of the following is the BEST indication of a mature information security program?

Options:

A.

Security incidents are managed properly.

B.

Security spending is below budget.

C.

Security resources are optimized.

D.

Security audit findings are reduced.

Question 215

An organization is close to going live with the implementation of a cloud-based application. Independent penetration test results have been received that show a high-rated vulnerability. Which of the following would be the BEST way to proceed?

Options:

A.

Implement the application and request the cloud service provider to fix the vulnerability.

B.

Assess whether the vulnerability is within the organization's risk tolerance levels.

C.

Commission further penetration tests to validate initial test results,

D.

Postpone the implementation until the vulnerability has been fixed.

Question 216

Which of the following has the GREATEST impact on the ability to successfully execute a disaster recovery plan (DRP)?

Options:

A.

Conducting tabletop exercises of the plan

B.

Updating the plan periodically

C.

Communicating the plan to all stakeholders

D.

Reviewing escalation procedures

Question 217

To overcome the perception that security is a hindrance to business activities, it is important for an information security manager to:

Options:

A.

rely on senior management to enforce security.

B.

promote the relevance and contribution of security.

C.

focus on compliance.

D.

reiterate the necessity of security.

Question 218

Which of the following BEST demonstrates the added value of an information security program?

Options:

A.

Security baselines

B.

A gap analysis

C.

A SWOT analysis

D.

A balanced scorecard

Question 219

When defining a security baseline, it is MOST important that the baseline:

Options:

A.

can vary depending on the security classification of systems.

B.

is uniform for all assets of the same type.

C.

is developed based on stakeholder consensus.

D.

aligns to key risk indicators (KRIs).

Question 220

Which of the following is a viable containment strategy for a distributed denial of service (DDoS) attack?

Options:

A.

Block IP addresses used by the attacker

B.

Redirect the attacker's traffic

C.

Disable firewall ports exploited by the attacker.

D.

Power off affected servers

Question 221

An investigation of a recent security incident determined that the root cause was negligent handing of incident alerts by system admit manager to address this issue?

Options:

A.

Conduct a risk assessment and share the result with senior management.

B.

Revise the incident response plan-to align with business processes.

C.

Provide incident response training to data custodians.

D.

Provide incident response training to data owners.

Question 222

Which of the following would be MOST useful when determining the business continuity strategy for a large organization's data center?

Options:

A.

Stakeholder feedback analysis

B.

Business continuity risk analysis

C.

Incident root cause analysis

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

Question 223

Which of the following BEST supports investments in an information security program?

Options:

A.

Business cases

B.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

C.

Gap analysis results

D.

Risk assessment results

Question 224

Which of the following risk responses is an example of risk transfer?

Options:

A.

Purchasing cybersecurity insurance

B.

Moving risk ownership to another department

C.

Conducting off-site backups

D.

Utilizing third-party applications

Question 225

Which of the following is the BEST course of action when an online company discovers a network attack in progress?

Options:

A.

Dump all event logs to removable media

B.

Isolate the affected network segment

C.

Enable trace logging on ail events

D.

Shut off all network access points

Question 226

Which of the following should be an information security manager's FIRST course of action when a newly introduced privacy regulation affects the business?

Options:

A.

Consult with IT staff and assess the risk based on their recommendations

B.

Update the security policy based on the regulatory requirements

C.

Propose relevant controls to ensure the business complies with the regulation

D.

Identify and assess the risk in the context of business objectives

Question 227

Which of the following is an information security manager's BEST recommendation to senior management following a breach at the organization's Software as a Service (SaaS) vendor?

Options:

A.

Update the vendor risk assessment.

B.

Engage legal counsel.

C.

Renegotiate the vendor contract.

D.

Terminate the relationship with the vendor.

Question 228

Which of the following BEST indicates the organizational benefit of an information security solution?

Options:

A.

Cost savings the solution brings to the information security department

B.

Reduced security training requirements

C.

Alignment to security threats and risks

D.

Costs and benefits of the solution calculated over time

Question 229

Which of the following would be MOST useful to help senior management understand the status of information security compliance?

Options:

A.

Industry benchmarks

B.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA) results

D.

Risk assessment results

Question 230

Which of the following is the BEST method to protect the confidentiality of data transmitted over the Internet?

Options:

A.

Network address translation (NAT)

B.

Message hashing

C.

Transport Layer Security (TLS)

D.

Multi-factor authentication

Question 231

An organization is planning to outsource the execution of its disaster recovery activities. Which of the following would be MOST important to include in the outsourcing agreement?

Options:

A.

Definition of when a disaster should be declared

B.

Requirements for regularly testing backups

C.

Recovery time objectives (RTOs)

D.

The disaster recovery communication plan

Question 232

Which of the following BEST demonstrates that an anti-phishing campaign is effective?

Options:

A.

Improved staff attendance in awareness sessions

B.

Decreased number of phishing emails received

C.

Improved feedback on the anti-phishing campaign

D.

Decreased number of incidents that have occurred

Question 233

Which of the following is the BEST course of action when confidential information is inadvertently disseminated outside the organization?

Options:

A.

Review compliance requirements.

B.

Communicate the exposure.

C.

Declare an incident.

D.

Change the encryption keys.

Question 234

Data classification is PRIMARILY the responsibility of:

Options:

A.

senior management.

B.

the data custodian.

C.

the data owner.

D.

the security manager.

Question 235

Which of the following tasks would provide a newly appointed information security manager with the BEST view of the organization's existing security posture?

Options:

A.

Reviewing policies and procedures

B.

Performing a risk assessment

C.

Interviewing business managers and employees

D.

Performing a business impact analysis (BIA)

Question 236

Which of the following is MOST important for building 4 robust information security culture within an organization?

Options:

A.

Mature information security awareness training across the organization

B.

Strict enforcement of employee compliance with organizational security policies

C.

Security controls embedded within the development and operation of the IT environment

D.

Senior management approval of information security policies

Question 237

The fundamental purpose of establishing security metrics is to:

Options:

A.

increase return on investment (ROI)

B.

provide feedback on control effectiveness

C.

adopt security best practices

D.

establish security benchmarks

Question 238

Which of the following BEST facilitates the effectiveness of cybersecurity incident response?

Options:

A.

Utilizing a security information and event management (SIEM) tool.

B.

Utilizing industry-leading network penetration testing tools.

C.

Increasing communication with all incident response stakeholders.

D.

Continuously updating signatures of the anti-malware solution.

Question 239

Network isolation techniques are immediately implemented after a security breach to:

Options:

A.

preserve evidence as required for forensics

B.

reduce the extent of further damage.

C.

allow time for key stakeholder decision making.

D.

enforce zero trust architecture principles.

Question 240

An organization involved in e-commerce activities operating from its home country opened a new office in another country with stringent security laws. In this scenario, the overall security strategy should be based on:

Options:

A.

the security organization structure.

B.

international security standards.

C.

risk assessment results.

D.

the most stringent requirements.

Question 241

Which of the following BEST enables an organization to maintain an appropriate security control environment?

Options:

A.

Alignment to an industry security framework

B.

Budgetary support for security

C.

Periodic employee security training

D.

Monitoring of the threat landscape

Question 242

An information security manager has been asked to provide both one-year and five-year plans for the information security program. What is the PRIMARY purpose for the long-term plan?

Options:

A.

To facilitate the continuous improvement of the IT organization

B.

To ensure controls align with security needs

C.

To create and document required IT capabilities

D.

To prioritize security risks on a longer scale than the one-year plan

Question 243

Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of training service desk staff to recognize incidents?

Options:

A.

Incident response plan can be activated in a timely manner.

B.

Incident metrics can be communicated.

C.

Risk response options can be identified quickly.

D.

Incident classification times can be improved.

Question 244

The BEST way to report to the board on the effectiveness of the information security program is to present:

Options:

A.

a dashboard illustrating key performance metrics.

B.

a summary of the most recent audit findings.

C.

peer-group industry benchmarks.

D.

a report of cost savings from process improvements.

Question 245

An information security manager learns that a risk owner has approved exceptions to replace key controls with weaker compensating controls to improve process efficiency. Which of the following should be the GREATEST concern?

Options:

A.

Risk levels may be elevated beyond acceptable limits.

B.

Security audits may report more high-risk findings.

C.

The compensating controls may not be cost efficient.

D.

Noncompliance with industry best practices may result.

Question 246

Which of the following should be done FIRST after a ransomware incident has been successfully contained?

Options:

A.

Notify relevant stakeholders.

B.

Conduct forensic analysis.

C.

Perform lessons learned.

D.

Restore impacted systems.

Question 247

When designing a disaster recovery plan (DRP), which of the following MUST be available in order to prioritize system restoration?

Options:

A.

Business impact analysis (BIA) results

B.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

C.

Recovery procedures

D.

Systems inventory

Question 248

Which of the following would provide the BEST input to a business case for a technical solution to address potential system vulnerabilities?

Options:

A.

Risk assessment

B.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

C.

Penetration test results

D.

Vulnerability scan results

Question 249

Which of the following will ensure confidentiality of content when accessing an email system over the Internet?

Options:

A.

Multi-factor authentication

B.

Digital encryption

C.

Data masking

D.

Digital signatures

Question 250

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to assign a risk owner in an organization?

Options:

A.

To remediate residual risk

B.

To define responsibilities

C.

To ensure accountability

D.

To identify emerging risk

Question 251

A new regulatory requirement affecting an organization's information security program is released. Which of the following should be the information security manager's FIRST course of action?

Options:

A.

Perform a gap analysis.

B.

Conduct benchmarking.

C.

Notify the legal department.

D.

Determine the disruption to the business.

Question 252

An information security manager is updating the organization's incident response plan. Which of the following is the BEST way to validate that the process and procedures provided by IT and business units are complete, accurate, and known by all responsible teams?

Options:

A.

Review the test objectives with stakeholders.

B.

Conduct a data breach incident tabletop exercise.

C.

Conduct an incident response plan survey.

D.

Review data breach incident triage steps.

Question 253

Which of the following is the MOST important constraint to be considered when developing an information security strategy?

Options:

A.

Legal and regulatory requirements

B.

Established security policies and standards

C.

Compliance with an international security standard

D.

Information security architecture

Question 254

ACISO learns that a third-party service provider did not notify the organization of a data breach that affected the service provider's data center. Which of the following should the CISO do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Recommend canceling the outsourcing contract.

B.

Request an independent review of the provider's data center.

C.

Notify affected customers of the data breach.

D.

Determine the extent of the impact to the organization.

Question 255

Which of the following Is MOST useful to an information security manager when conducting a post-incident review of an attack?

Options:

A.

Cost of the attack to the organization

B.

Location of the attacker

C.

Method of operation used by the attacker

D.

Details from intrusion detection system (IDS) logs

Question 256

During which phase of an incident response plan is the root cause determined?

Options:

A.

Recovery

B.

Lessons learned

C.

Containment

D.

Eradication

Question 257

Which of the following should include contact information for representatives of equipment and software vendors?

Options:

A.

Information security program charter

B.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

C.

Service level agreements (SLAs)

D.

Business continuity plan (BCP)

Question 258

Which of the following is the GREATEST inherent risk when performing a disaster recovery plan (DRP) test?

Options:

A.

Poor documentation of results and lessons learned

B.

Lack of communication to affected users

C.

Disruption to the production environment

D.

Lack of coordination among departments

Question 259

Which of the following is the MOST important factor in successfully implementing Zero Trust?

Options:

A.

Preferring networks that have undergone penetration testing

B.

Focusing on logging and monitoring of user behavior

C.

Authenticating and authorizing strategic points of the architecture

D.

Understanding each component of the network

Question 260

An incident response team recently encountered an unfamiliar type of cyber event. Though the team was able to resolve the issue, it took a significant amount of time to identify. What is the BEST way to help ensure similar incidents are identified more quickly in the future?

Options:

A.

Establish performance metrics for the team

B.

Perform a post-incident review

C.

Implement a SIEM solution

D.

Perform a threat analysis

Question 261

Which of the following should an information security manager do FIRST after identifying suspicious activity on a PC that is not in the organization's IT asset inventory?

Options:

A.

Isolate the PC from the network

B.

Perform a vulnerability scan

C.

Determine why the PC is not included in the inventory

D.

Reinforce information security training

Question 262

The PRIMARY purpose for continuous monitoring of security controls is to ensure:

Options:

A.

control gaps are minimized.

B.

system availability.

C.

effectiveness of controls.

D.

alignment with compliance requirements.

Question 263

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY goal of information security?

Options:

A.

Information management

B.

Regulatory compliance

C.

Data governance

D.

Business alignment

Question 264

What is the role of the information security manager in finalizing contract negotiations with service providers?

Options:

A.

To perform a risk analysis on the outsourcing process

B.

To obtain a security standard certification from the provider

C.

To update security standards for the outsourced process

D.

To ensure that clauses for periodic audits are included

Question 265

A Seat a-hosting organization's data center houses servers, appli

BEST approach for developing a physical access control policy for the organization?

Options:

A.

Review customers’ security policies.

B.

Conduct a risk assessment to determine security risks and mitigating controls.

C.

Develop access control requirements for each system and application.

D.

Design single sign-on (SSO) or federated access.

Question 266

The PRIMARY objective of a post-incident review of an information security incident is to:

Options:

A.

update the risk profile

B.

minimize impact

C.

prevent recurrence.

D.

determine the impact

Question 267

Which of the following sources is MOST useful when planning a business-aligned information security program?

Options:

A.

Security risk register

B.

Information security policy

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Enterprise architecture (EA)

Question 268

Which of the following is the BEST way to assess the risk associated with using a Software as a Service (SaaS) vendor?

Options:

A.

Verify that information security requirements are included in the contract.

B.

Request customer references from the vendor.

C.

Require vendors to complete information security questionnaires.

D.

Review the results of the vendor's independent control reports.

Question 269

Which of the following is the BEST defense against a brute force attack?

Options:

A.

Time-of-day restrictions

B.

Mandatory access control

C.

Discretionary access control

D.

Multi-factor authentication (MFA)

Question 270

Which of the following would be MOST effective in gaining senior management approval of security investments in network infrastructure?

Options:

A.

Performing penetration tests against the network to demonstrate business vulnerability

B.

Highlighting competitor performance regarding network best security practices

C.

Demonstrating that targeted security controls tie to business objectives

D.

Presenting comparable security implementation estimates from several vendors

Question 271

Which of the following would be the BEST way to reduce the risk of disruption resulting from an emergency system change?

Options:

A.

Confirm the change implementation is scheduled.

B.

Verify the change request has been approved.

C.

Confirm rollback plans are in place.

D.

Notify users affected by the change.

Question 272

Which of the following is CRITICAL to ensure the appropriate stakeholder makes decisions during a cybersecurity incident?

Options:

A.

Stakeholder plan

B.

Escalation plan

C.

Up-to-date risk register

D.

Asset classification

Question 273

An experienced information security manager joins a new organization and begins by conducting an audit of all key IT processes. Which of the following findings about the vulnerability management program should be of GREATEST concern?

Options:

A.

Identified vulnerabilities are not published and communicated in awareness programs.

B.

Identified vulnerabilities are not logged and resolved in a timely manner.

C.

The number of vulnerabilities identified exceeds industry benchmarks. D. Vulnerabilities are identified by internal staff rather than by external consultants.

Question 274

In an organization with a rapidly changing environment, business management has accepted an information security risk. It is MOST important for the information security manager to ensure:

Options:

A.

change activities are documented.

B.

the rationale for acceptance is periodically reviewed.

C.

the acceptance is aligned with business strategy.

D.

compliance with the risk acceptance framework.

Question 275

An incident response team recently encountered an unfamiliar type of cyber event. Though the team was able to resolve the issue, it took a significant amount of time to identify. What is the BEST way to help ensure similar incidents are identified more quickly in the future?

Options:

A.

Implement a SIEM solution.

B.

Perform a threat analysis.

C.

Establish performance metrics for the team.

D.

Perform a post-incident review.

Question 276

An organization's disaster recovery plan (DRP) is documented and kept at a disaster recovery site. Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure the plan can be carried out in an emergency?

Options:

A.

Store disaster recovery documentation in a public cloud.

B.

Maintain an outsourced contact center in another country.

C.

Require disaster recovery documentation be stored with all key decision makers.

D.

Provide annual disaster recovery training to appropriate staff.

Question 277

Which of the following tools would be MOST helpful to an incident response team?

Options:

A.

Intrusion detection system (IDS)

B.

Endpoint detection and response (EDR) solution

C.

User and entity behavior analytics

D.

Vulnerability scanning tools

Question 278

After logging in to a web application, additional authentication is checked at various application points. Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for such an approach?

Options:

A.

To ensure access rights meet classification requirements

B.

To facilitate the analysis of application logs

C.

To ensure web application availability

D.

To support strong two-factor authentication protocols

Question 279

After a ransomware incident an organization's systems were restored. Which of the following should be of MOST concern to the information security manager?

Options:

A.

The service level agreement (SLA) was not met.

B.

The recovery time objective (RTO) was not met.

C.

The root cause was not identified.

D.

Notification to stakeholders was delayed.

Question 280

An information security team has started work to mitigate findings from a recent penetration test. Which of the following presents the GREATEST risk to the organization?

Options:

A.

Some findings were reclassified to low risk after evaluation

B.

Not all findings from the penetration test report were fixed

C.

The penetration testing report did not contain any high-risk findings

D.

Risk classification of penetration test findings was not performed

Question 281

During which of the following phases should an incident response team document actions required to remove the threat that caused the incident?

Options:

A.

Post-incident review

B.

Eradication

C.

Containment

D.

Identification

Question 282

Which of the following would be the BEST way for an information security manager to improve the effectiveness of an organization’s information security program?

Options:

A.

Focus on addressing conflicts between security and performance.

B.

Collaborate with business and IT functions in determining controls.

C.

Include information security requirements in the change control process.

D.

Obtain assistance from IT to implement automated security cantrals.

Question 283

During a post-incident review, it was determined that a known vulnerability was exploited in order to gain access to a system. The vulnerability was patched as part of the remediation on the offending system. Which of the following should be done NEXT?

Options:

A.

Install patches on all existing systems.

B.

Review the vulnerability management process.

C.

Report the root cause of the vulnerability to senior management.

D.

Scan to determine whether the vulnerability is present on other systems.

Question 284

When assigning a risk owner, the MOST important consideration is to ensure the owner has:

Options:

A.

adequate knowledge of risk treatment and related control activities.

B.

decision-making authority and the ability to allocate resources for risk.

C.

sufficient time for monitoring and managing the risk effectively.

D.

risk communication and reporting skills to enable decision-making.

Question 285

An organization requires that business-critical applications be recovered within 30 minutes in the event of a disaster. Which of the following metrics should be defined in the business continuity plan (BCP) to manage this requirement?

Options:

A.

Recovery time objective (RTO)

B.

Recovery point objective (RPO)

C.

Maximum tolerable downtime (MTD)

D.

Service level agreement (SLA)

Question 286

Which of the following is MOST important for the effective implementation of an information security governance program?

Options:

A.

Employees receive customized information security training

B.

The program budget is approved and monitored by senior management

C.

The program goals are communicated and understood by the organization.

D.

Information security roles and responsibilities are documented.

Question 287

Which type of system is MOST effective for monitoring cyber incidents based on impact and tracking them until they are closed?

Options:

A.

Endpoint detection and response (EDR)

B.

Network intrusion detection system (NIDS)

C.

Extended detection and response (XDR)

D.

Security information and event management (SIEM)

Question 288

An information security team has confirmed that threat actors are taking advantage of a newly announced critical vulnerability within an application. Which of the following should be done

FIRST?

Options:

A.

Install additional application controls.

B.

Notify senior management.

C.

Invoke the incident response plan.

D.

Prevent access to the application.

Question 289

Reevaluation of risk is MOST critical when there is:

Options:

A.

resistance to the implementation of mitigating controls.

B.

a management request for updated security reports.

C.

a change in security policy.

D.

a change in the threat landscape.

Question 290

Before approving the implementation of a new security solution, senior management requires a business case. Which of the following would BEST support the justification for investment?

Options:

A.

The solution contributes to business strategy.

B.

The solution improves business risk tolerance levels.

C.

The solution improves business resiliency.

D.

The solution reduces the cost of noncompliance with regulations.

Demo: 290 questions
Total 967 questions