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Isaca CISM Certified Information Security Manager Exam Practice Test

Demo: 276 questions
Total 920 questions

Certified Information Security Manager Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which of the following should be the NEXT step after a security incident has been reported?

Options:

A.

Recovery

B.

Investigation

C.

Escalation

D.

Containment

Question 2

Which of the following should an information security manager do FIRST when creating an organization's disaster recovery plan (DRP)?

Options:

A.

Conduct a business impact analysis (BIA)

B.

Identify the response and recovery learns.

C.

Review the communications plan.

D.

Develop response and recovery strategies.

Question 3

Which of the following is the BEST indication of a mature information security program?

Options:

A.

Security incidents are managed properly.

B.

Security spending is below budget.

C.

Security resources are optimized.

D.

Security audit findings are reduced.

Question 4

Spoofing should be prevented because it may be used to:

Options:

A.

gain illegal entry to a secure system by faking the sender's address,

B.

predict which way a program will branch when an option is presented

C.

assemble information, track traffic, and identify network vulnerabilities.

D.

capture information such as passwords traveling through the network

Question 5

To ensure the information security of outsourced IT services, which of the following is the MOST critical due diligence activity?

Options:

A.

Request the service provider comply with information security policy.

B.

Review a recent independent audit report of the service provider.

C.

Assess the level of security awareness of the service provider.

D.

Review samples of service level reports from the service provider.

Question 6

Which of the following is MOST important to include in a post-incident review following a data breach?

Options:

A.

An evaluation of the effectiveness of the information security strategy

B.

Evaluations of the adequacy of existing controls

C.

Documentation of regulatory reporting requirements

D.

A review of the forensics chain of custom

Question 7

A penetration test against an organization's external web application shows several vulnerabilities. Which of the following presents the GREATEST concern?

Options:

A.

A rules of engagement form was not signed prior to the penetration test

B.

Vulnerabilities were not found by internal tests

C.

Vulnerabilities were caused by insufficient user acceptance testing (UAT)

D.

Exploit code for one of the vulnerabilities is publicly available

Question 8

Which of the following should an organization do FIRST upon learning that a subsidiary is located in a country where civil unrest has just begun?

Options:

A.

Assess changes in the risk profile.

B.

Activate the disaster recovery plan (DRP).

C.

Invoke the incident response plan.

D.

Conduct security awareness training.

Question 9

Which of the following functions is MOST critical when initiating the removal of system access for terminated employees?

Options:

A.

Legal

B.

Information security

C.

Help desk

D.

Human resources (HR)

Question 10

An organization is selecting security metrics to measure security performance, and a firewall specialist suggests tracking the number of external attacks blocked by the firewalls. Which of the following is the GREATEST concern with using this metric?

Options:

A.

The number of blocked external attacks is not representative of the true threat profile.

B.

The number of blocked external attacks will vary by month, causing inconsistent graphs.

C.

The number of blocked external attacks is an indicator of the organization's popularity.

D.

The number of blocked external attacks over time does not explain the attackers' motivations.

Question 11

Which of the following is the MOST important constraint to be considered when developing an information security strategy?

Options:

A.

Legal and regulatory requirements

B.

Established security policies and standards

C.

Compliance with an international security standard

D.

Information security architecture

Question 12

Which of the following trends would be of GREATEST concern when reviewing the performance of an organization's intrusion detection systems (IDSs)?

Options:

A.

Decrease in false positives

B.

Increase in false positives

C.

Increase in false negatives

D.

Decrease in false negatives

Question 13

Which of the following would be MOST useful to a newly hired information security manager who has been tasked with developing and implementing an information security strategy?

Options:

A.

The capabilities and expertise of the information security team

B.

The organization's mission statement and roadmap

C.

A prior successful information security strategy

D.

The organization's information technology (IT) strategy

Question 14

Security administration efforts will be greatly reduced following the deployment of which of the following techniques?

Options:

A.

Discretionary access control

B.

Role-based access control

C.

Access control lists

D.

Distributed access control

Question 15

Which of the following BEST enables staff acceptance of information security policies?

Options:

A.

Strong senior management support

B.

Gomputer-based training

C.

Arobust incident response program

D.

Adequate security funding

Question 16

Which of the following will BEST facilitate timely and effective incident response?

Options:

A.

Including penetration test results in incident response planning

B.

Assessing the risk of compromised assets

C.

Classifying the severity of an incident

D.

Notifying stakeholders when invoking the incident response plan

Question 17

Which of the following is MOST important to maintain integration among the incident response plan, business continuity plan (BCP). and disaster recovery plan (DRP)?

Options:

A.

Asset classification

B.

Recovery time objectives (RTOs)

C.

Chain of custody

D.

Escalation procedures

Question 18

A post-incident review identified that user error resulted in a major breach. Which of the following is MOST important to determine during the review?

Options:

A.

The time and location that the breach occurred

B.

Evidence of previous incidents caused by the user

C.

The underlying reason for the user error

D.

Appropriate disciplinary procedures for user error

Question 19

Which of the following is the BEST starting point for a newly hired information security manager who has been tasked with identifying and addressing network vulnerabilities?

Options:

A.

Controls analysis

B.

Emerging risk review

C.

Penetration testing

D.

Traffic monitoring

Question 20

When designing a disaster recovery plan (DRP), which of the following MUST be available in order to prioritize system restoration?

Options:

A.

Business impact analysis (BIA) results

B.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

C.

Recovery procedures

D.

Systems inventory

Question 21

Which of the following should an organization do FIRST when confronted with the transfer of personal data across borders?

Options:

A.

Define policies and standards for data processing.

B.

Implement applicable privacy principles

C.

Assess local or regional regulations

D.

Research cyber insurance policies

Question 22

To inform a risk treatment decision, which of the following should the information security manager compare with the organization's risk appetite?

Options:

A.

Gap analysis results

B.

Level of residual risk

C.

Level of risk treatment

D.

Configuration parameters

Question 23

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to conduct interviews as part of the business impact analysis (BIA) process?

Options:

A.

To facilitate a qualitative risk assessment following the BIA

B.

To increase awareness of information security among key stakeholders

C.

To ensure the stakeholders providing input own the related risk

D.

To obtain input from as many relevant stakeholders as possible

Question 24

Which of the following BEST indicates the organizational benefit of an information security solution?

Options:

A.

Cost savings the solution brings to the information security department

B.

Reduced security training requirements

C.

Alignment to security threats and risks

D.

Costs and benefits of the solution calculated over time

Question 25

Which of the following is the FIRST step to establishing an effective information security program?

Options:

A.

Conduct a compliance review.

B.

Assign accountability.

C.

Perform a business impact analysis (BIA).

D.

Create a business case.

Question 26

During which of the following development phases is it MOST challenging to implement security controls?

Options:

A.

Post-implementation phase

B.

Implementation phase

C.

Development phase

D.

Design phase

Question 27

Which of the following sources is MOST useful when planning a business-aligned information security program?

Options:

A.

Security risk register

B.

Information security policy

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Enterprise architecture (EA)

Question 28

An information security manager has confirmed the organization's cloud provider has unintentionally published some of the organization's business data. Which of the following should be done NEXT?

Options:

A.

Identify users associated with the exposed data.

B.

Initiate the organization's data loss prevention (DLP) processes.

C.

Review the cloud provider's service level agreement (SLA).

D.

Invoke the incident response plan.

Question 29

Which of the following presents the GREATEST risk associated with the use of an automated security information and event management (SIEM) system?

Options:

A.

Low number of false positives

B.

Low number of false negatives

C.

High number of false positives

D.

High number of false negatives

Question 30

Which of the following should have the MOST influence on an organization's response to a new industry regulation?

Options:

A.

The organization's control objectives

B.

The organization's risk management framework

C.

The organization's risk appetite

D.

The organization's risk control baselines

Question 31

When developing an asset classification program, which of the following steps should be completed FIRST?

Options:

A.

Categorize each asset.

B.

Create an inventory. &

C.

Create a business case for a digital rights management tool.

D.

Implement a data loss prevention (OLP) system.

Question 32

Which of the following should be given the HIGHEST priority during an information security post-incident review?

Options:

A.

Documenting actions taken in sufficient detail

B.

Updating key risk indicators (KRIs)

C.

Evaluating the performance of incident response team members

D.

Evaluating incident response effectiveness

Question 33

Which of the following presents the GREATEST challenge to the recovery of critical systems and data following a ransomware incident?

Options:

A.

Lack of encryption for backup data in transit

B.

Undefined or undocumented backup retention policies

C.

Ineffective alert configurations for backup operations

D.

Unavailable or corrupt data backups

Question 34

Which of the following is MOST important for an organization to have in place to determine the effectiveness of information security governance?

Options:

A.

Program metrics

B.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

C.

Risk register

D.

Security strategy

Question 35

An organization plans to offer clients a new service that is subject to regulations. What should the organization do FIRST when developing a security strategy in support of this new service?

Options:

A.

Determine security controls for the new service.

B.

Establish a compliance program,

C.

Perform a gap analysis against the current state

D.

Hire new resources to support the service.

Question 36

A security review identifies that confidential information on the file server has been accessed by unauthorized users in the organization. Which of the following should the information security manager do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Invoke the incident response plan

B.

Implement role-based access control (RBAC)

C.

Remove access to the information

D.

Delete the information from the file server

Question 37

While conducting a test of a business continuity plan (BCP), which of the following is the MOST important consideration?

Options:

A.

The test is scheduled to reduce operational impact.

B.

The test involves IT members in the test process.

C.

The test addresses the critical components.

D.

The test simulates actual prime-time processing conditions.

Question 38

Which risk is introduced when using only sanitized data for the testing of applications?

Options:

A.

Data loss may occur during the testing phase.

B.

Data disclosure may occur during the migration event

C.

Unexpected outcomes may arise in production

D.

Breaches of compliance obligations will occur.

Question 39

To improve the efficiency of the development of a new software application, security requirements should be defined:

Options:

A.

based on code review.

B.

based on available security assessment tools.

C.

after functional requirements.

D.

concurrently with other requirements.

Question 40

Which of the following should be the FIRST consideration when developing a strategy for protecting an organization's data?

Options:

A.

Classification

B.

Encryption

C.

Access monitoring

D.

Access rights

Question 41

A business continuity plan (BCP) should contain:

Options:

A.

information about eradication activities.

B.

hardware and software inventories.

C.

data restoration procedures.

D.

criteria for activation.

Question 42

Which of the following is MOST appropriate to communicate to senior management regarding information risk?

Options:

A.

Emerging security technologies

B.

Risk profile changes

C.

Defined risk appetite

D.

Vulnerability scanning progress

Question 43

Which of the following provides the BEST assurance that security policies are applied across business operations?

Options:

A.

Organizational standards are included in awareness training.

B.

Organizational standards are enforced by technical controls.

C.

Organizational standards are required to be formally accepted.

D.

Organizational standards are documented in operational procedures.

Question 44

Which of the following will BEST enable an organization to meet incident response requirements when outsourcing its incident response function?

Options:

A.

Including response times in service level agreements (SLAs)

B.

Including a right-to-audit clause in service level agreements (SLAs)

C.

Contracting with a well-known incident response provider

D.

Requiring comprehensive response applications and tools

Question 45

Which of the following BEST enables the assignment of risk and control ownership?

Options:

A.

Aligning to an industry-recognized control framework

B.

Adopting a risk management framework

C.

Obtaining senior management buy-in

D.

Developing an information security strategy

Question 46

The PRIMARY advantage of performing black-box control tests as opposed to white-box control tests is that they:

Options:

A.

cause fewer potential production issues.

B.

require less IT staff preparation.

C.

simulate real-world attacks.

D.

identify more threats.

Question 47

To confirm that a third-party provider complies with an organization's information security requirements, it is MOST important to ensure:

Options:

A.

security metrics are included in the service level agreement (SLA).

B.

contract clauses comply with the organization's information security policy.

C.

the information security policy of the third-party service provider is reviewed.

D.

right to audit is included in the service level agreement (SLA).

Question 48

A recent audit found that an organization's new user accounts are not set up uniformly. Which of the following is MOST important for the information security manager to review?

Options:

A.

Automated controls

B.

Security policies

C.

Guidelines

D.

Standards

Question 49

Which of the following is an example of risk mitigation?

Options:

A.

Purchasing insurance

B.

Discontinuing the activity associated with the risk

C.

Improving security controls

D.

Performing a cost-benefit analysis

Question 50

Which of the following has the GREATEST influence on the successful integration of information security within the business?

Options:

A.

Organizational structure and culture

B.

Risk tolerance and organizational objectives

C.

The desired state of the organization

D.

Information security personnel

Question 51

Which of the following is MOST effective for communicating forward-looking trends within security reporting?

Options:

A.

Key control indicator (KCIs)

B.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

C.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

D.

Key goal indicators (KGIs)

Question 52

An incident management team is alerted ta a suspected security event. Before classifying the suspected event as a security incident, it is MOST important for the security manager to:

Options:

A.

notify the business process owner.

B.

follow the business continuity plan (BCP).

C.

conduct an incident forensic analysis.

D.

follow the incident response plan.

Question 53

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for an information security manager to periodically review existing controls?

Options:

A.

To prioritize security initiatives

B.

To avoid redundant controls

C.

To align with emerging risk

D.

To address end-user control complaints

Question 54

Which of the following should be done FIRST when a SIEM flags a potential event?

Options:

A.

Validate the event is not a false positive.

B.

Initiate the incident response plan.

C.

Escalate the event to the business owner.

D.

Implement compensating controls.

Question 55

Which of the following is the BEST course of action for an information security manager to align security and business goals?

Options:

A.

Conducting a business impact analysis (BIA)

B.

Reviewing the business strategy

C.

Defining key performance indicators (KPIs)

D.

Actively engaging with stakeholders

Question 56

Which of the following is MOST useful to an information security manager when determining the need to escalate an incident to senior?

Options:

A.

Incident management procedures

B.

Incident management policy

C.

System risk assessment

D.

Organizational risk register

Question 57

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of including incident classification criteria within an incident response plan?

Options:

A.

Ability to monitor and control incident management costs

B.

More visibility to the impact of disruptions

C.

Effective protection of information assets

D.

Optimized allocation of recovery resources

Question 58

Of the following, whose input is of GREATEST importance in the development of an information security strategy?

Options:

A.

Process owners

B.

End users

C.

Security architects.

D.

Corporate auditors

Question 59

Following a breach where the risk has been isolated and forensic processes have been performed, which of the following should be done NEXT?

Options:

A.

Place the web server in quarantine.

B.

Rebuild the server from the last verified backup.

C.

Shut down the server in an organized manner.

D.

Rebuild the server with relevant patches from the original media.

Question 60

During which phase of an incident response plan is the root cause determined?

Options:

A.

Recovery

B.

Lessons learned

C.

Containment

D.

Eradication

Question 61

An information security manager has been asked to provide both one-year and five-year plans for the information security program. What is the PRIMARY purpose for the long-term plan?

Options:

A.

To facilitate the continuous improvement of the IT organization

B.

To ensure controls align with security needs

C.

To create and document required IT capabilities

D.

To prioritize security risks on a longer scale than the one-year plan

Question 62

An incident response team recently encountered an unfamiliar type of cyber event. Though the team was able to resolve the issue, it took a significant amount of time to identify. What is the BEST way to help ensure similar incidents are identified more quickly in the future?

Options:

A.

Implement a SIEM solution.

B.

Perform a threat analysis.

C.

Establish performance metrics for the team.

D.

Perform a post-incident review.

Question 63

Which of the following is the MOST important factor in an organization's selection of a key risk indicator (KRI)?

Options:

A.

Return on investment (ROI)

B.

Compliance requirements

C.

Target audience

D.

Criticality of information

Question 64

Which of the following documents should contain the INITIAL prioritization of recovery of services?

Options:

A.

IT risk analysis

B.

Threat assessment

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Business process map

Question 65

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to influence organizational culture to align with security guidelines?

Options:

A.

Adhere to regulatory requirements

B.

Conduct security awareness

C.

Document and distribute security procedures

D.

Communicate and enforce security policies

Question 66

Which of the following is the BEST way to determine if an information security profile is aligned with business requirements?

Options:

A.

Review the key performance indicator (KPI) dashboard

B.

Review security-related key risk indicators (KRIs)

C.

Review control self-assessment (CSA) results

D.

Review periodic security audits

Question 67

The GREATEST challenge when attempting data recovery of a specific file during forensic analysis is when:

Options:

A.

the partition table on the disk has been deleted.

B.

the tile has been overwritten.

C.

all files in the directory have been deleted.

D.

high-level disk formatting has been performed.

Question 68

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to demonstrate alignment of information security strategy with business objectives?

Options:

A.

Balanced scorecard

B.

Risk matrix

C.

Benchmarking

D.

Heat map

Question 69

Management would like to understand the risk associated with engaging an Infrastructure-as-a-Service (laaS) provider compared to hosting internally. Which of the following would provide the BEST method of comparing risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Mapping risk scenarios according to sensitivity of data

B.

Reviewing mitigating and compensating controls for each risk scenario

C.

Mapping the risk scenarios by likelihood and impact on a chart

D.

Performing a risk assessment on the laaS provider

Question 70

The MAIN benefit of implementing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution is to:

Options:

A.

enhance the organization's antivirus controls.

B.

eliminate the risk of data loss.

C.

complement the organization's detective controls.

D.

reduce the need for a security awareness program.

Question 71

The PRIMARY reason to create and externally store the disk hash value when performing forensic data acquisition from a hard disk is to:

Options:

A.

validate the confidentiality during analysis.

B.

reinstate original data when accidental changes occur.

C.

validate the integrity during analysis.

D.

provide backup in case of media failure.

Question 72

Which of the following should an information security manager do NEXT after creating a roadmap to execute the strategy for an information security program?

Options:

A.

Obtain consensus on the strategy from the executive board.

B.

Review alignment with business goals.

C.

Define organizational risk tolerance.

D.

Develop a project plan to implement the strategy.

Question 73

Which of the following is the BEST indicator of a successful intrusion into an organization's systems?

Options:

A.

Decrease in internal network traffic

B.

Increase in the number of failed login attempts

C.

Increase in the number of irregular application requests

D.

Decrease in available storage space

Question 74

Which of the following BEST enables the restoration of operations after a limited ransomware incident occurs?

Options:

A.

Reliable image backups

B.

Impact assessment

C.

Documented eradication procedures

D.

Root cause analysis

Question 75

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to ensure information security is aligned with the organization's strategy?

Options:

A.

To identify the organization's risk tolerance

B.

To improve security processes

C.

To align security roles and responsibilities

D.

To optimize security risk management

Question 76

Which of the following is the MOST important security consideration when developing an incident response strategy with a cloud provider?

Options:

A.

Escalation processes

B.

Technological capabilities

C.

Recovery time objective (RTO)

D.

Security audit reports

Question 77

Which of the following security processes will BEST prevent the exploitation of system vulnerabilities?

Options:

A.

Intrusion detection

B.

Log monitoring

C.

Patch management

D.

Antivirus software

Question 78

Company A, a cloud service provider, is in the process of acquiring Company B to gain new benefits by incorporating their technologies within its cloud services.

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY focus of Company A's information security manager?

Options:

A.

The organizational structure of Company B

B.

The cost to align to Company A's security policies

C.

Company A's security architecture

D.

Company B's security policies

Question 79

Which of the following BEST minimizes information security risk in deploying applications to the production environment?

Options:

A.

Integrating security controls in each phase of the life cycle

B.

Conducting penetration testing post implementation

C.

Having a well-defined change process

D.

Verifying security during the testing process

Question 80

Which of the following should be the KEY consideration when creating an information security communication plan with industry peers?

Options:

A.

Balancing the benefits of information sharing with the drawbacks of sharing sensitive information

B.

Reducing the costs associated with information sharing by automating the process

C.

Ensuring information is detailed enough to be of use to other organizations

D.

Notifying the legal department whenever incident-related information is shared

Question 81

Internal audit has reported a number of information security issues that are not in compliance with regulatory requirements. What should the information security manager do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Create a security exception.

B.

Perform a gap analysis to determine needed resources.

C.

Perform a vulnerability assessment.

D.

Assess the risk to business operations.

Question 82

An information security manager has been notified about a compromised endpoint device Which of the following is the BEST course of action to prevent further damage?

Options:

A.

Wipe and reset the endpoint device.

B.

Isolate the endpoint device.

C.

Power off the endpoint device.

D.

Run a virus scan on the endpoint device.

Question 83

Which of the following is MOST important for the information security manager to include when presenting changes in the security risk profile to senior management?

Options:

A.

Industry benchmarks

B.

Security training test results

C.

Performance measures for existing controls

D.

Number of false positives

Question 84

The PRIMARY benefit of integrating information security activities into change management processes is to:

Options:

A.

protect the organization from unauthorized changes.

B.

ensure required controls are included in changes.

C.

provide greater accountability for security-related changes in the business.

D.

protect the business from collusion and compliance threats.

Question 85

An organization is in the process of acquiring a new company Which of the following would be the BEST approach to determine how to protect newly acquired data assets prior to integration?

Options:

A.

Include security requirements in the contract

B.

Assess security controls.

C.

Perform a risk assessment

D.

Review data architecture.

Question 86

An organization has been penalized by regulatory authorities for failing to notify them of a major security breach that may have compromised customer data. Which of the following is MOST likely in need of review and updating to prevent similar penalties in the future?

Options:

A.

Information security policies and procedures

B.

Business continuity plan (BCP)

C.

Incident communication plan

D.

Incident response training program

Question 87

Application data integrity risk is MOST directly addressed by a design that includes:

Options:

A.

reconciliation routines such as checksums, hash totals, and record counts.

B.

strict application of an authorized data dictionary.

C.

application log requirements such as field-level audit trails and user activity logs.

D.

access control technologies such as role-based entitlements.

Question 88

In order to gain organization-wide support for an information security program, which of the following is MOST important to consider?

Options:

A.

Maturity of the security policy

B.

Clarity of security roles and responsibilities

C.

Corporate culture

D.

Corporate risk framework

Question 89

Which of the following is MOST critical when creating an incident response plan?

Options:

A.

Identifying vulnerable data assets

B.

Identifying what constitutes an incident

C.

Documenting incident notification and escalation processes

D.

Aligning with the risk assessment process

Question 90

Which of the following is the MOST important characteristic of an effective information security metric?

Options:

A.

The metric expresses residual risk relative to risk tolerance.

B.

The metric is frequently reported to senior management.

C.

The metric directly maps to an industry risk management framework.

D.

The metric compares the organization's inherent risk against its risk appetite.

Question 91

Which of the following is the PRIMARY responsibility of an information security manager in an organization that is implementing the use of company-owned mobile devices in its operations?

Options:

A.

Require remote wipe capabilities for devices.

B.

Conduct security awareness training.

C.

Review and update existing security policies.

D.

Enforce passwords and data encryption on the devices.

Question 92

Which of the following has the GREATEST impact on efforts to improve an organization's security posture?

Options:

A.

Regular reporting to senior management

B.

Supportive tone at the top regarding security

C.

Automation of security controls

D.

Well-documented security policies and procedures

Question 93

Which of the following provides the BEST indication of the return on information security investment?

Options:

A.

Increased annualized loss expectancy (ALE)

B.

Increased number of reported incidents

C.

Reduced annualized loss expectancy (ALE)

D.

Decreased number of reported incidents

Question 94

Which type of control is an incident response team?

Options:

A.

Preventive

B.

Detective

C.

Corrective

D.

Directive

Question 95

What is the MOST important consideration for an organization operating in a highly regulated market when new regulatory requirements with high impact to the business need to be implemented?

Options:

A.

Engaging an external audit

B.

Establishing compensating controls

C.

Enforcing strong monitoring controls

D.

Conducting a gap analysis

Question 96

Senior management has expressed concern that the organization's intrusion prevention system (IPS) may repeatedly disrupt business operations Which of the following BEST indicates that the information security manager has tuned the system to address this concern?

Options:

A.

Increasing false negatives

B.

Decreasing false negatives

C.

Decreasing false positives

D.

Increasing false positives

Question 97

An information security manager has identified that privileged employee access requests to production servers are approved; but user actions are not logged. Which of the following should be the GREATEST concern with this situation?

Options:

A.

Lack of availability

B.

Lack of accountability

C.

Improper authorization

D.

Inadequate authentication

Question 98

An information security manager has been tasked with developing materials to update the board, regulatory agencies, and the media about a security incident. Which of the following should the information security manager do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Set up communication channels for the target audience.

B.

Determine the needs and requirements of each audience.

C.

Create a comprehensive singular communication

D.

Invoke the organization's incident response plan.

Question 99

Which of the following should be an information security manager's PRIMARY concern when an organization is expanding business to a new country?

Options:

A.

Compliance with local regulations

B.

Changes in IT infrastructure

C.

Cultural differences in the new country

D.

Ability to gather customer data

Question 100

An incident response plan is being developed for servers hosting sensitive information. In the event of a breach, who should make the decision to shut down the system?

Options:

A.

Operations manager

B.

Service owner

C.

Information security manager

D.

Incident response team

Question 101

An organization is close to going live with the implementation of a cloud-based application. Independent penetration test results have been received that show a high-rated vulnerability. Which of the following would be the BEST way to proceed?

Options:

A.

Implement the application and request the cloud service provider to fix the vulnerability.

B.

Assess whether the vulnerability is within the organization's risk tolerance levels.

C.

Commission further penetration tests to validate initial test results,

D.

Postpone the implementation until the vulnerability has been fixed.

Question 102

Which of the following service offerings in a typical Infrastructure as a Service (laaS) model will BEST enable a cloud service provider to assist customers when recovering from a security incident?

Options:

A.

Availability of web application firewall logs.

B.

Capability of online virtual machine analysis

C.

Availability of current infrastructure documentation

D.

Capability to take a snapshot of virtual machines

Question 103

Which of the following should an information security manager do FIRST upon confirming a privileged user's unauthorized modifications to a security application?

Options:

A.

Report the risk associated with the policy breach.

B.

Enforce the security configuration and require the change to be reverted.

C.

Implement compensating controls to address the risk.

D.

Implement a privileged access management system.

Question 104

An organization recently updated and published its information security policy and standards. What should the information security manager do NEXT?

Options:

A.

Conduct a risk assessment.

B.

Communicate the changes to stakeholders.

C.

Update the organization's risk register.

D.

Develop a policy exception process.

Question 105

Which of the following BEST indicates the effectiveness of a recent information security awareness campaign delivered across the organization?

Options:

A.

Decrease in the number of security incidents

B.

Increase in the frequency of security incident escalations

C.

Reduction in the impact of security incidents

D.

Increase in the number of reported security incidents

Question 106

Which of the following BEST facilitates the reporting of useful information about the effectiveness of the information security program?

Options:

A.

Risk heat map.

B.

Security benchmark report.

C.

Security metrics dashboard.

D.

Key risk indicators (KRIs).

Question 107

An information security manager is reporting on open items from the risk register to senior management. Which of the following is MOST important to communicate with regard to these risks?

Options:

A.

Responsible entities

B.

Key risk indicators (KRIS)

C.

Compensating controls

D.

Potential business impact

Question 108

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to determine the alignment of an information security program with the business strategy?

Options:

A.

Evaluate the results of business continuity testing.

B.

Review key performance indicators (KPIs).

C.

Evaluate the business impact of incidents.

D.

Engage business process owners.

Question 109

An organization permits the storage and use of its critical and sensitive information on employee-owned smartphones. Which of the following is the BEST security control?

Options:

A.

Establishing the authority to remote wipe

B.

Developing security awareness training

C.

Requiring the backup of the organization's data by the user

D.

Monitoring how often the smartphone is used

Question 110

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to review the firewall logs when an external network-based attack is reported by the intrusion detection system (IDS)?

Options:

A.

To validate the incident

B.

To review network configurations

C.

To validate the payload signature

D.

To devise the incident response strategy

Question 111

An organization has multiple data repositories across different departments. The information security manager has been tasked with creating an enterprise strategy for protecting data. Which of the following information security initiatives should be the HIGHEST priority for the organization?

Options:

A.

Data masking

B.

Data retention strategy

C.

Data encryption standards

D.

Data loss prevention (DLP)

Question 112

While classifying information assets an information security manager notices that several production databases do not have owners assigned to them What is the BEST way to address this situation?

Options:

A.

Assign responsibility to the database administrator (DBA).

B.

Review the databases for sensitive content.

C.

Prepare a report of the databases for senior management.

D.

Assign the highest classification level to those databases.

Question 113

A startup company deployed several new applications with vulnerabilities into production because security reviews were not conducted. What will BEST help to ensure effective application risk management going forward?

Options:

A.

Conduct automated scans on applications before deployment.

B.

Supplement existing development teams with security engineers.

C.

Integrate information security into existing change management.

D.

Create a new governance council for application security.

Question 114

Which of the following would BEST ensure that security is integrated during application development?

Options:

A.

Employing global security standards during development processes

B.

Providing training on secure development practices to programmers

C.

Performing application security testing during acceptance testing

D.

Introducing security requirements during the initiation phase

Question 115

The MOST important element in achieving executive commitment to an information security governance program is:

Options:

A.

a defined security framework.

B.

a process improvement model

C.

established security strategies.

D.

identified business drivers.

Question 116

A newly appointed information security manager of a retailer with multiple stores discovers an HVAC (heating, ventilation, and air conditioning) vendor has remote access to the stores to enable real-time monitoring and equipment diagnostics. Which of the following should be the information security manager's FIRST course of action?

Options:

A.

Conduct a penetration test of the vendor.

B.

Review the vendor's technical security controls

C.

Review the vendor contract

D.

Disconnect the real-time access

Question 117

What should be an information security manager’s FIRST course of action upon learning a business unit is bypassing an existing control in order to increase operational efficiency?

Options:

A.

Report the noncompliance to senior management.

B.

Assess the risk of noncompliance.

C.

Activate the incident response plan.

D.

Evaluate possible compensating controls.

Question 118

The BEST way to report to the board on the effectiveness of the information security program is to present:

Options:

A.

a dashboard illustrating key performance metrics.

B.

a summary of the most recent audit findings.

C.

peer-group industry benchmarks.

D.

a report of cost savings from process improvements.

Question 119

Which of the following BEST enables an organization to identify and contain security incidents?

Options:

A.

Risk assessments

B.

Threat modeling

C.

Continuous monitoring

D.

Tabletop exercises

Question 120

An organization plans to leverage popular social network platforms to promote its products and services. Which of the following is the BEST course of action for the information security manager to support this initiative?

Options:

A.

Establish processes to publish content on social networks.

B.

Assess the security risk associated with the use of social networks.

C.

Conduct vulnerability assessments on social network platforms.

D.

Develop security controls for the use of social networks.

Question 121

A business impact analysis (BIA) BEST enables an organization to establish:

Options:

A.

annualized loss expectancy (ALE).

B.

recovery methods.

C.

total cost of ownership (TCO).

D.

restoration priorities.

Question 122

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when defining a recovery strategy in a business continuity plan (BCP)?

Options:

A.

Legal and regulatory requirements

B.

Likelihood of a disaster

C.

Organizational tolerance to service interruption

D.

Geographical location of the backup site

Question 123

Which of the following is the BEST course of action when confidential information is inadvertently disseminated outside the organization?

Options:

A.

Review compliance requirements.

B.

Communicate the exposure.

C.

Declare an incident.

D.

Change the encryption keys.

Question 124

Which of the following would provide the MOST value to senior management when presenting the results of a risk assessment?

Options:

A.

Mapping the risks to the security classification scheme

B.

Illustrating risk on a heat map

C.

Mapping the risks to existing controls

D.

Providing a technical risk assessment report

Question 125

Capacity planning would prevent:

Options:

A.

file system overload arising from distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks.

B.

system downtime for scheduled security maintenance.

C.

application failures arising from insufficient hardware resources.

D.

software failures arising from exploitation of buffer capacity vulnerabilities.

Question 126

Which of the following should an information security manager do FIRST after discovering that a business unit has implemented a newly purchased application and bypassed the change management process?

Options:

A.

Revise the procurement process.

B.

Update the change management process.

C.

Discuss the issue with senior leadership.

D.

Remove the application from production.

Question 127

An incident response team has established that an application has been breached. Which of the following should be done NEXT?

Options:

A.

Maintain the affected systems in a forensically acceptable state

B.

Conduct a risk assessment on the affected application

C.

Inform senior management of the breach.

D.

Isolate the impacted systems from the rest of the network

Question 128

Which of the following BEST enables an organization to effectively manage emerging cyber risk?

Options:

A.

Periodic internal and external audits

B.

Clear lines of responsibility

C.

Sufficient cyber budget allocation

D.

Cybersecurity policies

Question 129

Following an information security risk assessment of a critical system, several significant issues have been identified. Which of the following is MOST important for the information security manager to confirm?

Options:

A.

The risks are reported to the business unit’s senior management

B.

The risks are escalated to the IT department for remediation

C.

The risks are communicated to the central risk function

D.

The risks are entered in the organization's risk register

Question 130

A critical server for a hospital has been encrypted by ransomware. The hospital is unable to function effectively without this server Which of the following would MOST effectively allow the hospital to avoid paying the ransom?

Options:

A.

Employee training on ransomware

B.

A properly tested offline backup system

C.

A continual server replication process

D.

A properly configured firewall

Question 131

Predetermined containment methods to be used in a cybersecurity incident response should be based PRIMARILY on the:

Options:

A.

number of impacted users.

B.

capability of incident handlers.

C.

type of confirmed incident.

D.

predicted incident duration.

Question 132

Which of the following is the MOST appropriate action during the containment phase of a cyber incident response?

Options:

A.

Determine the final root cause of the incident.

B.

Remove all instances of the incident from the network.

C.

Mitigate exploited vulnerabilities to prevent future incidents.

D.

Isolate affected systems to prevent the spread of damage.

Question 133

Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure the capability to restore clean data after a ransomware attack?

Options:

A.

Purchase cyber insurance

B.

Encrypt sensitive production data

C.

Perform Integrity checks on backups

D.

Maintain multiple offline backups

Question 134

The effectiveness of an information security governance framework will BEST be enhanced if:

Options:

A.

consultants review the information security governance framework.

B.

a culture of legal and regulatory compliance is promoted by management.

C.

risk management is built into operational and strategic activities.

D.

IS auditors are empowered to evaluate governance activities

Question 135

Who has the PRIMARY authority to decide if additional risk treatments are required to mitigate an identified risk?

Options:

A.

Information security manager

B.

IT risk manager

C.

Internal auditor

D.

Risk owner

Question 136

An information security manager is assisting in the development of the request for proposal (RFP) for a new outsourced service. This will require the third party to have access to critical business information. The security manager should focus PRIMARILY on defining:

Options:

A.

service level agreements (SLAs)

B.

security requirements for the process being outsourced.

C.

risk-reporting methodologies.

D.

security metrics

Question 137

Which of the following is the MOST important function of an information security steering committee?

Options:

A.

Assigning data classifications to organizational assets

B.

Developing organizational risk assessment processes

C.

Obtaining multiple perspectives from the business

D.

Defining security standards for logical access controls

Question 138

Of the following, who is accountable for data loss in the event of an information security incident at a third-party provider?

Options:

A.

The information security manager

B.

The service provider that hosts the data

C.

The incident response team

D.

The business data owner

Question 139

Which of the following is MOST important to the successful implementation of an information security program?

Options:

A.

Adequate security resources are allocated to the program.

B.

Key performance indicators (KPIs) are defined.

C.

A balanced scorecard is approved by the steering committee.

D.

The program is developed using global security standards.

Question 140

Which of the following plans should be invoked by an organization in an effort to remain operational during a disaster?

Options:

A.

Disaster recovery plan (DRP)

B.

Incident response plan

C.

Business continuity plan (BCP)

D.

Business contingency plan

Question 141

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to regularly update business continuity and disaster recovery documents?

Options:

A.

To enforce security policy requirements

B.

To maintain business asset inventories

C.

To ensure audit and compliance requirements are met

D.

To ensure the availability of business operations

Question 142

Which of the following is MOST important to ensure the alignment of an information security program with the organizational strategy?

Options:

A.

Benchmarking against industry peers

B.

Adoption of an industry recognized framework

C.

Approval from senior management

D.

Identification of business-specific risk factors

Question 143

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to monitor key risk indicators (KRIs) related to information security?

Options:

A.

To alert on unacceptable risk

B.

To identify residual risk

C.

To reassess risk appetite

D.

To benchmark control performance

Question 144

When assigning a risk owner, the MOST important consideration is to ensure the owner has:

Options:

A.

adequate knowledge of risk treatment and related control activities.

B.

decision-making authority and the ability to allocate resources for risk.

C.

sufficient time for monitoring and managing the risk effectively.

D.

risk communication and reporting skills to enable decision-making.

Question 145

Which of the following factors has the GREATEST influence on the successful implementation of information security strategy goals?

Options:

A.

Regulatory requirements

B.

Compliance acceptance

C.

Management support

D.

Budgetary approval

Question 146

Which of the following factors would have the MOST significant impact on an organization's information security governance mode?

Options:

A.

Outsourced processes

B.

Security budget

C.

Number of employees

D.

Corporate culture

Question 147

Which of the following is the BEST way lo monitor for advanced persistent threats (APT) in an organization?

Options:

A.

Network with peers in the industry to share information.

B.

Browse the Internet to team of potential events

C.

Search for anomalies in the environment

D.

Search for threat signatures in the environment.

Question 148

Which of the following would BEST guide the development and maintenance of an information security program?

Options:

A.

A business impact assessment

B.

A comprehensive risk register

C.

An established risk assessment process

D.

The organization's risk appetite

Question 149

Relationships between critical systems are BEST understood by

Options:

A.

evaluating key performance indicators (KPIs)

B.

performing a business impact analysis (BIA)

C.

developing a system classification scheme

D.

evaluating the recovery time objectives (RTOs)

Question 150

The information security manager of a multinational organization has been asked to consolidate the information security policies of its regional locations. Which of the following would be of

GREATEST concern?

Options:

A.

Varying threat environments

B.

Disparate reporting lines

C.

Conflicting legal requirements

D.

Differences in work culture

Question 151

Which of the following business units should own the data that populates an identity management system?

Options:

A.

Human resources (HR)

B.

Legal

C.

Information technology

D.

Information security

Question 152

Which of the following considerations is MOST important when selecting a third-party intrusion detection system (IDS) vendor?

Options:

A.

The vendor's proposal allows for contract modification during technology refresh cycles.

B.

The vendor's proposal aligns with the objectives of the organization.

C.

The vendor's proposal requires the provider to have a business continuity plan (BCP).

D.

The vendor's proposal allows for escrow in the event the third party goes out of business.

Question 153

The use of a business case to obtain funding for an information security investment is MOST effective when the business case:

Options:

A.

relates the investment to the organization's strategic plan.

B.

translates information security policies and standards into business requirements.

C.

articulates management's intent and information security directives in clear language.

D.

realigns information security objectives to organizational strategy.

Question 154

The executive management of a domestic organization has announced plans to expand operations to multiple international locations. Which of the following should be the information security manager's FIRST step upon learning of these plans?

Options:

A.

Perform a gap analysis against international information security standards

B.

Update security training and awareness resources accordingly

C.

Research legal and regulatory requirements impacting the new locations

D.

Prepare localized information security policies for each new location

Question 155

Which of the following BEST facilitates the effective execution of an incident response plan?

Options:

A.

The plan is based on risk assessment results.

B.

The response team is trained on the plan

C.

The plan is based on industry best practice.

D.

The incident response plan aligns with the IT disaster recovery plan (DRP).

Question 156

Which of the following presents the GREATEST challenge to a security operations center's wna GY of potential security breaches?

Options:

A.

IT system clocks are not synchronized with the centralized logging server.

B.

Operating systems are no longer supported by the vendor.

C.

The patch management system does not deploy patches in a timely manner.

D.

An organization has a decentralized data center that uses cloud services.

Question 157

The PRIMARY purpose of conducting a business impact analysis (BIA) is to determine the:

Options:

A.

scope of the business continuity program.

B.

resources needed for business recovery.

C.

recovery time objective (RTO).

D.

scope of the incident response plan.

Question 158

A business continuity plan (BCP) should contain:

Options:

A.

Hardware and software inventories

B.

Data restoration procedures

C.

Information about eradication activities

D.

Criteria for activation

Question 159

Who is accountable for approving an information security governance framework?

Options:

A.

The board of directors

B.

The chief information security officer (ClSO)

C.

The enterprise risk committee

D.

The chief information officer (CIO)

Question 160

Which of the following is a PRIMARY responsibility of the information security goxernance function?

Options:

A.

Administering information security awareness training

B.

Defining security strategies to support organizational programs

C.

Ensuring adequate support for solutions using emerging technologies

D.

Advising senior management on optimal levels of risk appetite and tolerance

Question 161

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY objective when establishing a new information security program?

Options:

A.

Executing the security strategy

B.

Minimizing organizational risk

C.

Optimizing resources

D.

Facilitating operational security

Question 162

An organization's research department plans to apply machine learning algorithms on a large data set containing customer names and purchase history. The risk of personal data leakage is considered high impact. Which of the following is the BEST risk treatment option in this situation?

Options:

A.

Accept the risk, as the benefits exceed the potential consequences.

B.

Mitigate the risk by applying anonymization on the data set.

C.

Transfer the risk by purchasing insurance.

D.

Mitigate the risk by encrypting the customer names in the data set.

Question 163

From a business perspective, the GREATEST benefit of an incident response plan is that it:

Options:

A.

Promotes efficiency by providing predefined response procedures

B.

Improves security responsiveness to disruptive events

C.

Limits the negative impact of disruptive events

D.

Ensures compliance with regulatory requirements

Question 164

The MOST important information for influencing management’s support of information security is:

Options:

A.

an demonstration of alignment with the business strategy.

B.

An identification of the overall threat landscape.

C.

A report of a successful attack on a competitor.

D.

An identification of organizational risks.

Question 165

Which of the following BEST helps to ensure the effective execution of an organization's disaster recovery plan (DRP)?

Options:

A.

The plan is reviewed by senior and IT operational management.

B.

The plan is based on industry best practices.

C.

Process steps are documented by the disaster recovery team.

D.

Procedures are available at the primary and failover location.

Question 166

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of incorporating information security governance into the corporate governance framework?

Options:

A.

Heightened awareness of information security strategies

B.

Improved process resiliency in the event of attacks

C.

Promotion of security-by-design principles to the business

D.

Management accountability for information security

Question 167

Which of the following is the GREATEST value provided by a security information and event management (SIEM) system?

Options:

A.

Maintaining a repository base of security policies

B.

Measuring impact of exploits on business processes

C.

Facilitating the monitoring of risk occurrences

D.

Redirecting event logs to an alternate location for business continuity plan

Question 168

Of the following, who is BEST suited to own the risk discovered in an application?

Options:

A.

Information security manager

B.

Senior management

C.

System owner

D.

Control owner

Question 169

An organization's quality process can BEST support security management by providing:

Options:

A.

security configuration controls.

B.

assurance that security requirements are met.

C.

guidance for security strategy.

D.

a repository for security systems documentation.

Question 170

The PRIMARY advantage of involving end users in continuity planning is that they:

Options:

A.

have a better understanding of specific business needs.

B.

are more objective than information security management.

C.

can see the overall impact to the business.

D.

can balance the technical and business risks.

Question 171

What should be an information security manager's FIRST step when developing a business case for a new intrusion detection system (IDS) solution?

Options:

A.

Define the issues to be addressed.

B.

Perform a cost-benefit analysis.

C.

Calculate the total cost of ownership (TCO).

D.

Conduct a feasibility study.

Question 172

During the due diligence phase of an acquisition, the MOST important course of action for an information security manager is to:

Options:

A.

perform a risk assessment.

B.

review the state of security awareness.

C.

review information security policies.

D.

perform a gap analysis.

Question 173

Which of the following is the BEST way to determine the effectiveness of an incident response plan?

Options:

A.

Reviewing previous audit reports

B.

Conducting a tabletop exercise

C.

Benchmarking the plan against best practices

D.

Performing a penetration test

Question 174

Which of the following BEST helps to enable the desired information security culture within an organization?

Options:

A.

Information security awareness training and campaigns

B.

Effective information security policies and procedures

C.

Delegation of information security roles and responsibilities

D.

Incentives for appropriate information security-related behavior

Question 175

When collecting admissible evidence, which of the following is the MOST important requirement?

Options:

A.

Need to know

B.

Preserving audit logs

C.

Due diligence

D.

Chain of custody

Question 176

Which of the following BEST enables an organization to maintain legally admissible evidence7

Options:

A.

Documented processes around forensic records retention

B.

Robust legal framework with notes of legal actions

C.

Chain of custody forms with points of contact

D.

Forensic personnel training that includes technical actions

Question 177

Which of the following is MOST important when responding to a major security incident?

Options:

A.

Contacting forensic investigators

B.

Following the escalation process

C.

Notifying law enforcement

D.

Identifying the indicators of compromise

Question 178

An employee of an organization has reported losing a smartphone that contains sensitive information The BEST step to address this situation is to:

Options:

A.

disable the user's access to corporate resources.

B.

terminate the device connectivity.

C.

remotely wipe the device

D.

escalate to the user's management

Question 179

Which of the following is MOST important when developing an information security strategy?

Options:

A.

Engage stakeholders.

B.

Assign data ownership.

C.

Determine information types.

D.

Classify information assets.

Question 180

Which of the following is BEST used to determine the maturity of an information security program?

Options:

A.

Security budget allocation

B.

Organizational risk appetite

C.

Risk assessment results

D.

Security metrics

Question 181

Which of the following is the BEST indication of an effective information security awareness training program?

Options:

A.

An increase in the frequency of phishing tests

B.

An increase in positive user feedback

C.

An increase in the speed of incident resolution

D.

An increase in the identification rate during phishing simulations

Question 182

What is the PRIMARY objective of performing a vulnerability assessment following a business system update?

Options:

A.

Determine operational losses.

B.

Improve the change control process.

C.

Update the threat landscape.

D.

Review the effectiveness of controls

Question 183

Which of the following is the BEST indicator of the maturity level of a vendor risk management process?

Options:

A.

Average time required to complete the vendor risk management process

B.

Percentage of vendors that have gone through the vendor onboarding process

C.

Percentage of vendors that are regularly reviewed against defined criteria

D.

Number of vendors rejected because of security review results

Question 184

After a recovery from a successful malware attack, instances of the malware continue to be discovered. Which phase of incident response was not successful?

Options:

A.

EradicationB Recovery

B.

Lessons learned review

C.

Incident declaration

Question 185

The PRIMARY objective of a post-incident review of an information security incident is to:

Options:

A.

update the risk profile

B.

minimize impact

C.

prevent recurrence.

D.

determine the impact

Question 186

An organization is transitioning to a Zero Trust architecture. Which of the following is the information security manager's BEST approach for communicating the implications of this transition to the board of directors?

Options:

A.

Present a diagram of core Zero Trust logical components to help visualize the architectural changes

B.

Summarize the training plan and end user feedback in an internal portal and send the link to the board

C.

Prepare a report on the Zero Trust implementation that includes a status dashboard and timeline

D.

Provide an outline of the business impact in terms of risk reduction and changes in user experience

Question 187

A technical vulnerability assessment on a personnel information management server should be performed when:

Options:

A.

the data owner leaves the organization unexpectedly.

B.

changes are made to the system configuration.

C.

the number of unauthorized access attempts increases.

D.

an unexpected server outage has occurred.

Question 188

What should an information security manager verify FIRST when reviewing an information asset management program?

Options:

A.

System owners have been identified.

B.

Key applications have been secured.

C.

Information assets have been classified.

D.

Information assets have been inventoried.

Question 189

Which of the following has the MOST influence on the inherent risk of an information asset?

Options:

A.

Risk tolerance

B.

Net present value (NPV)

C.

Return on investment (ROI)

D.

Business criticality

Question 190

Who should be responsible for determining the level of data classification required for an application related to a new line of business?

Options:

A.

Data owners

B.

Data analyst

C.

Data custodian

D.

Information security officer (ISO)

Question 191

After a ransomware incident an organization's systems were restored. Which of the following should be of MOST concern to the information security manager?

Options:

A.

The service level agreement (SLA) was not met.

B.

The recovery time objective (RTO) was not met.

C.

The root cause was not identified.

D.

Notification to stakeholders was delayed.

Question 192

If civil litigation is a goal for an organizational response to a security incident, the PRIMARY step should be to:

Options:

A.

contact law enforcement.

B.

document the chain of custody.

C.

capture evidence using standard server-backup utilities.

D.

reboot affected machines in a secure area to search for evidence.

Question 193

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to involve external forensics experts in evidence collection when responding to a major security breach?

Options:

A.

To ensure evidence is handled by qualified resources

B.

To validate the incident response process

C.

To provide the response team with expert training on evidence handling

D.

To prevent evidence from being disclosed to any internal staff members

Question 194

Which of the following should be done FIRST when establishing an information security governance framework?

Options:

A.

Evaluate information security tools and skills relevant for the environment.

B.

Gain an understanding of the business and cultural attributes.

C.

Contract a third party to conduct an independent review of the program.

D.

Conduct a cost-benefit analysis of the framework.

Question 195

Which of the following is the BEST way to assess the risk associated with using a Software as a Service (SaaS) vendor?

Options:

A.

Verify that information security requirements are included in the contract.

B.

Request customer references from the vendor.

C.

Require vendors to complete information security questionnaires.

D.

Review the results of the vendor's independent control reports.

Question 196

Which of the following metrics is MOST appropriate for evaluating the incident notification process?

Options:

A.

Average total cost of downtime per reported incident

B.

Elapsed time between response and resolution

C.

Average number of incidents per reporting period

D.

Elapsed time between detection, reporting, and response

Question 197

An organization wants to integrate information security into its HR management processes. Which of the following should be the FIRST step?

Options:

A.

Benchmark the processes with best practice to identify gaps.

B.

Calculate the return on investment (ROI).

C.

Provide security awareness training to HR.

D.

Assess the business objectives of the processes.

Question 198

Which of the following should be the MOST important consideration of business continuity management?

Options:

A.

Ensuring human safety

B.

Identifying critical business processes

C.

Ensuring the reliability of backup data

D.

Securing critical information assets

Question 199

Which of the following is the BEST defense-in-depth implementation for protecting high value assets or for handling environments that have trust concerns?

Options:

A.

Compartmentalization

B.

Overlapping redundancy

C.

Continuous monitoring

D.

Multi-factor authentication

Question 200

A business requires a legacy version of an application to operate but the application cannot be patched. To limit the risk exposure to the business, a firewall is implemented in front of the legacy application. Which risk treatment option has been applied?

Options:

A.

Mitigate

B.

Accept

C.

Transfer

D.

Avoid

Question 201

ACISO learns that a third-party service provider did not notify the organization of a data breach that affected the service provider's data center. Which of the following should the CISO do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Recommend canceling the outsourcing contract.

B.

Request an independent review of the provider's data center.

C.

Notify affected customers of the data breach.

D.

Determine the extent of the impact to the organization.

Question 202

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY area of focus when mitigating security risks associated with emerging technologies?

Options:

A.

Compatibility with legacy systems

B.

Application of corporate hardening standards

C.

Integration with existing access controls

D.

Unknown vulnerabilities

Question 203

Which of the following BEST determines the data retention strategy and subsequent policy for an organization?

Options:

A.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

B.

Business requirements

C.

Supplier requirements

D.

Risk appetite

Question 204

Which of the following BEST facilitates the effectiveness of cybersecurity incident response?

Options:

A.

Utilizing a security information and event management (SIEM) tool.

B.

Utilizing industry-leading network penetration testing tools.

C.

Increasing communication with all incident response stakeholders.

D.

Continuously updating signatures of the anti-malware solution.

Question 205

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY basis for determining the value of assets?

Options:

A.

Cost of replacing the assets

B.

Business cost when assets are not available

C.

Original cost of the assets minus depreciation

D.

Total cost of ownership (TCO)

Question 206

Which of the following should be the GREATEST consideration when determining the recovery time objective (RTO) for an in-house critical application, database, or server?

Options:

A.

Impact of service interruption

B.

Results of recovery testing

C.

Determination of recovery point objective (RPO)

D.

Direction from senior management

Question 207

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of a cyber resilience strategy?

Options:

A.

Business continuity

B.

Regulatory compliance

C.

Employee awareness

D.

Executive support

Question 208

Which of the following is MOST important to consider when choosing a shared alternate location for computing facilities?

Options:

A.

The organization's risk tolerance

B.

The organization's mission

C.

Resource availability

D.

Incident response team training

Question 209

Which of the following is the BEST approach to make strategic information security decisions?

Options:

A.

Establish regular information security status reporting.

B.

Establish an information security steering committee.

C.

Establish business unit security working groups.

D.

Establish periodic senior management meetings.

Question 210

Which of the following is MOST relevant for an information security manager to communicate to the board of directors?

Options:

A.

The level of inherent risk

B.

Vulnerability assessments

C.

The level of exposure

D.

Threat assessments

Question 211

After updating password standards, an information security manager is alerted by various application administrators that the applications they support are incapable of enforcing these standards. The information security manager's FIRST course of action should be to:

Options:

A.

determine the potential impact.

B.

reevaluate the standards.

C.

implement compensating controls.

D.

evaluate the cost of replacing the applications.

Question 212

An information security team must obtain approval from the information security steering committee to implement a key control. Which of the following is the MOST important input to assist the committee in making this decision?

Options:

A.

IT strategy

B.

Security architecture

C.

Business case

D.

Risk assessment

Question 213

To ensure that a new application complies with information security policy, the BEST approach is to:

Options:

A.

review the security of the application before implementation.

B.

integrate functionality the development stage.

C.

perform a vulnerability analysis.

D.

periodically audit the security of the application.

Question 214

Which of the following BEST enables the capability of an organization to sustain the delivery of products and services within acceptable time frames and at predefined capacity during a disruption?

Options:

A.

Service level agreement (SLA)

B.

Business continuity plan (BCP)

C.

Disaster recovery plan (DRP)

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

Question 215

An organization experienced a loss of revenue during a recent disaster. Which of the following would BEST prepare the organization to recover?

Options:

A.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

B.

Business continuity plan (BCP)

C.

Incident response plan

D.

Disaster recovery plan (DRP)

Question 216

Once a suite of security controls has been successfully implemented for an organization's business units, it is MOST important for the information security manager to:

Options:

A.

hand over the controls to the relevant business owners.

B.

ensure the controls are regularly tested for ongoing effectiveness.

C.

perform testing to compare control performance against industry levels.

D.

prepare to adapt the controls for future system upgrades.

Question 217

Which of the following BEST indicates misalignment of security policies with business objectives?

Options:

A.

Low completion rate of employee awareness training

B.

Lack of adequate funding for the security program

C.

A large number of long-term policy exceptions

D.

A large number of user noncompliance incidents

Question 218

Which of the following is MOST helpful for determining which information security policies should be implemented by an organization?

Options:

A.

Risk assessment

B.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

C.

Vulnerability assessment

D.

Industry best practices

Question 219

Reviewing which of the following would be MOST helpful when a new information security manager is developing an information security strategy for a non-regulated organization?

Options:

A.

Management's business goals and objectives

B.

Strategies of other non-regulated companies

C.

Risk assessment results

D.

Industry best practices and control recommendations

Question 220

An employee has just reported the loss of a personal mobile device containing corporate information. Which of the following should the information security manager do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Initiate incident response.

B.

Disable remote

C.

Initiate a device reset.

D.

Conduct a risk assessment.

Question 221

Which of the following activities is designed to handle a control failure that leads to a breach?

Options:

A.

Risk assessment

B.

Incident management

C.

Root cause analysis

D.

Vulnerability management

Question 222

The ULTIMATE responsibility for ensuring the objectives of an information security framework are being met belongs to:

Options:

A.

the internal audit manager.

B.

the information security officer.

C.

the steering committee.

D.

the board of directors.

Question 223

What is the BEST way to reduce the impact of a successful ransomware attack?

Options:

A.

Perform frequent backups and store them offline.

B.

Purchase or renew cyber insurance policies.

C.

Include provisions to pay ransoms ih the information security budget.

D.

Monitor the network and provide alerts on intrusions.

Question 224

An organization has updated its business goals in the middle of the fiscal year to respond to changes in market conditions. Which of the following is MOST important for the information security manager to update in support of the new goals?

Options:

A.

Information security threat profile

B.

Information security policy

C.

Information security objectives

D.

Information security strategy

Question 225

Which of the following MUST happen immediately following the identification of a malware incident?

Options:

A.

Preparation

B.

Recovery

C.

Containment

D.

Eradication

Question 226

A newly appointed information security manager has been asked to update all security-related policies and procedures that have been static for five years or more. What should be done NEXT?

Options:

A.

Update in accordance with the best business practices.

B.

Perform a risk assessment of the current IT environment.

C.

Gain an understanding of the current business direction.

D.

Inventory and review current security policies.

Question 227

A cloud application used by an organization is found to have a serious vulnerability. After assessing the risk, which of the following would be the information security manager's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Instruct the vendor to conduct penetration testing.

B.

Suspend the connection to the application in the firewall

C.

Report the situation to the business owner of the application.

D.

Initiate the organization's incident response process.

Question 228

Which of the following is the BEST approach to incident response for an organization migrating to a cloud-based solution?

Options:

A.

Adopt the cloud provider's incident response procedures.

B.

Transfer responsibility for incident response to the cloud provider.

C.

Continue using the existing incident response procedures.

D.

Revise incident response procedures to encompass the cloud environment.

Question 229

How does an incident response team BEST leverage the results of a business impact analysis (BIA)?

Options:

A.

Assigning restoration priority during incidents

B.

Determining total cost of ownership (TCO)

C.

Evaluating vendors critical to business recovery

D.

Calculating residual risk after the incident recovery phase

Question 230

Which of the following should an information security manager do FIRST after identifying suspicious activity on a PC that is not in the organization's IT asset inventory?

Options:

A.

Isolate the PC from the network

B.

Perform a vulnerability scan

C.

Determine why the PC is not included in the inventory

D.

Reinforce information security training

Question 231

Which of the following would BEST demonstrate the status of an organization's information security program to the board of directors?

Options:

A.

Information security program metrics

B.

Results of a recent external audit

C.

The information security operations matrix

D.

Changes to information security risks

Question 232

In which cloud model does the cloud service buyer assume the MOST security responsibility?

Options:

A.

Disaster Recovery as a Service (DRaaS)

B.

Infrastructure as a Service (laaS)

C.

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

D.

Software as a Service (SaaS)

Question 233

Which of the following is the PRIMARY advantage of an organization using Disaster Recovery as a Service (DRaaS) to help manage its disaster recovery program?

Options:

A.

It offers the organization flexible deployment options using cloud infrastructure.

B.

It allows the organization to prioritize its core operations.

C.

It is more secure than traditional data backup architecture.

D.

It allows the use of a professional response team at a lower cost.

Question 234

To help ensure that an information security training program is MOST effective, its contents should be:

Options:

A.

based on recent incidents.

B.

based on employees’ roles.

C.

aligned to business processes.

D.

focused on information security policy.

Question 235

Which of the following BEST supports investments in an information security program?

Options:

A.

Business cases

B.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

C.

Gap analysis results

D.

Risk assessment results

Question 236

An organization is planning to outsource the execution of its disaster recovery activities. Which of the following would be MOST important to include in the outsourcing agreement?

Options:

A.

Definition of when a disaster should be declared

B.

Requirements for regularly testing backups

C.

Recovery time objectives (RTOs)

D.

The disaster recovery communication plan

Question 237

Which of the following is the BEST indication of effective information security governance?

Options:

A.

Information security is considered the responsibility of the entire information security team.

B.

Information security controls are assigned to risk owners.

C.

Information security is integrated into corporate governance.

D.

Information security governance is based on an external security framework.

Question 238

Which of the following is MOST important to include in security incident escalation procedures?

Options:

A.

Key objectives of the security program

B.

Recovery procedures

C.

Notification criteria

D.

Containment procedures

Question 239

Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit achieved when an information security governance framework is aligned with corporate governance?

Options:

A.

Protection of business value and assets

B.

Identification of core business strategiesC, Easier entrance into new businesses and technologies

C.

Improved regulatory compliance posture

Question 240

A project team member notifies the information security manager of a potential security risk that has not been included in the risk register. Which of the following should the information security manager do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Implement compensating controls.

B.

Analyze the identified risk.

C.

Prepare a risk mitigation plan.

D.

Add the risk to the risk register.

Question 241

A KEY consideration in the use of quantitative risk analysis is that it:

Options:

A.

aligns with best practice for risk analysis of information assets.

B.

assigns numeric values to exposures of information assets.

C.

applies commonly used labels to information assets.

D.

is based on criticality analysis of information assets.

Question 242

Which of the following is the MOST essential element of an information security program?

Options:

A.

Benchmarking the program with global standards for relevance

B.

Prioritizing program deliverables based on available resources

C.

Involving functional managers in program development

D.

Applying project management practices used by the business

Question 243

When remote access to confidential information is granted to a vendor for analytic purposes, which of the following is the MOST important security consideration?

Options:

A.

Data is encrypted in transit and at rest at the vendor site.

B.

Data is subject to regular access log review.

C.

The vendor must be able to amend data.

D.

The vendor must agree to the organization's information security policy,

Question 244

Which of the following is the PRIMARY responsibility of an information security governance committee?

Options:

A.

Discussing upcoming information security projects

B.

Reviewing the information security risk register

C.

Approving changes to the information security strategy

D.

Reviewing monthly information security metrics

Question 245

Of the following, who is BEST positioned to be accountable for risk acceptance decisions based on risk appetite?

Options:

A.

Information security manager

B.

Chief risk officer (CRO)

C.

Information security steering committee

D.

Risk owner

Question 246

Which of the following is MOST important to include in monthly information security reports to the board?

Options:

A.

Trend analysis of security metrics

B.

Risk assessment results

C.

Root cause analysis of security incidents

D.

Threat intelligence

Question 247

Which of the following is a PRIMARY benefit of managed security solutions?

Options:

A.

Wider range of capabilities

B.

Easier implementation across an organization

C.

Greater ability to focus on core business operations

D.

Lower cost of operations

Question 248

Recommendations for enterprise investment in security technology should be PRIMARILY based on:

Options:

A.

adherence to international standards

B.

availability of financial resources

C.

the organization s risk tolerance

D.

alignment with business needs

Question 249

When determining an acceptable risk level which of the following is the MOST important consideration?

Options:

A.

Threat profiles

B.

System criticalities

C.

Vulnerability scores

D.

Risk matrices

Question 250

Which of the following MUST be established to maintain an effective information security governance framework?

Options:

A.

Security controls automation

B.

Defined security metrics

C.

Change management processes

D.

Security policy provisions

Question 251

When analyzing the emerging risk and threat landscape, an information security manager should FIRST:

Options:

A.

determine the impact if threats materialize.

B.

determine the sources of emerging threats.

C.

review historical threats within the industry.

D.

map threats to business assets.

Question 252

A new application has entered the production environment with deficient technical security controls. Which of the following is MOST Likely the root cause?

Options:

A.

Inadequate incident response controls

B.

Lack of legal review

C.

Inadequate change control

D.

Lack of quality control

Question 253

What should be the NEXT course of action when an information security manager has identified a department that is repeatedly not following the security policy?

Options:

A.

Perform a vulnerability assessment on the systems within the department.

B.

Introduce additional controls to force compliance with policy.

C.

Require department users to repeat security awareness training.

D.

Report the policy violation to senior management.

Question 254

Of the following, who would provide the MOST relevant input when aligning the information security strategy with organizational goals?

Options:

A.

Enterprise risk committee

B.

Information security steering committee

C.

Data privacy officer (DPO)

D.

Chief information security officer (CISO)

Question 255

What will BEST facilitate the success of new security initiatives?

Options:

A.

Establish an IT security steering committee.

B.

Include business in security decision making.

C.

Update security policies on a regular basis

D.

Monitor post-implementation security metrics.

Question 256

An organization has purchased an Internet sales company to extend the sales department. The information security manager's FIRST step to ensure the security policy framework encompasses the new business model is to:

Options:

A.

perform a gap analysis.

B.

implement both companies' policies separately

C.

merge both companies' policies

D.

perform a vulnerability assessment

Question 257

Which of the following should an information security manager do FIRST after a new cybersecunty regulation has been introduced?

Options:

A.

Conduct a cost-benefit analysis.

B.

Consult corporate legal counsel

C.

Update the information security policy.

D.

Perform a gap analysis.

Question 258

Which of the following is the BEST approach when creating a security policy for a global organization subject to varying laws and regulations?

Options:

A.

Incorporate policy statements derived from third-party standards and benchmarks.

B.

Adhere to a unique corporate privacy and security standard

C.

Establish baseline standards for all locations and add supplemental standards as required

D.

Require that all locations comply with a generally accepted set of industry

Question 259

When developing an information security strategy for an organization, which of the following is MOST helpful for understanding where to focus efforts?

Options:

A.

Gap analysis

B.

Project plans

C.

Vulnerability assessment

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

Question 260

Which of the following should include contact information for representatives of equipment and software vendors?

Options:

A.

Information security program charter

B.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

C.

Service level agreements (SLAs)

D.

Business continuity plan (BCP)

Question 261

A proposal designed to gain buy-in from senior management for a new security project will be MOST effective if it includes:

Options:

A.

analysis of current threat landscape.

B.

historical data of reported incidents.

C.

projected return on investment (ROI).

D.

industry benchmarking gap analysis.

Question 262

Which of the following should be done FIRST once a cybersecurity attack has been confirmed?

Options:

A.

Isolate the affected system.

B.

Notify senior management.

C.

Power down the system.

D.

Contact legal authorities.

Question 263

Information security controls should be designed PRIMARILY based on:

Options:

A.

a business impact analysis (BIA).

B.

regulatory requirements.

C.

business risk scenarios,

D.

a vulnerability assessment.

Question 264

Which of the following is BEST to include in a business case when the return on investment (ROI) for an information security initiative is difficult to calculate?

Options:

A.

Projected Increase in maturity level

B.

Estimated reduction in risk

C.

Projected costs over time

D.

Estimated increase in efficiency

Question 265

Which of the following BEST provides an information security manager with sufficient assurance that a service provider complies with the organization's information security requirements?

Options:

A.

Alive demonstration of the third-party supplier's security capabilities

B.

The ability to i third-party supplier's IT systems and processes

C.

Third-party security control self-assessment (CSA) results

D.

An independent review report indicating compliance with industry standards

Question 266

Which of the following is the BEST reason to implement an information security architecture?

Options:

A.

Assess the cost-effectiveness of the integration.

B.

Fast-track the deployment of information security components.

C.

Serve as a post-deployment information security road map.

D.

Facilitate consistent implementation of security requirements.

Question 267

An organization's security policy is to disable access to USB storage devices on laptops and desktops. Which of the following is the STRONGEST justification for granting an exception to the policy?

Options:

A.

The benefit is greater than the potential risk.

B.

USB storage devices are enabled based on user roles.

C.

Users accept the risk of noncompliance.

D.

Access is restricted to read-only.

Question 268

Which of the following would be MOST effective in gaining senior management approval of security investments in network infrastructure?

Options:

A.

Performing penetration tests against the network to demonstrate business vulnerability

B.

Highlighting competitor performance regarding network best security practices

C.

Demonstrating that targeted security controls tie to business objectives

D.

Presenting comparable security implementation estimates from several vendors

Question 269

Which of the following should be implemented to BEST reduce the likelihood of a security breach?

Options:

A.

A data forensics program

B.

A configuration management program

C.

A layered security program

D.

An incident response program

Question 270

Which of the following is the sole responsibility of the client organization when adopting a Software as a Service (SaaS) model?

Options:

A.

Host patching

B.

Penetration testing

C.

Infrastructure hardening

D.

Data classification

Question 271

Which of the following is the BEST approach for data owners to use when defining access privileges for users?

Define access privileges based on user roles.

Adopt user account settings recommended by the vendor.

Perform a risk assessment of the users' access privileges.

Options:

A.

Implement an identity and access management (IDM) tool.

Question 272

Senior management recently approved a mobile access policy that conflicts with industry best practices. Which of the following is the information security manager's BEST course of action when developing security standards for mobile access to the organization's network?

Options:

A.

Align the standards with the organizational policy.

B.

Align the standards with industry best practices.

C.

Resolve the discrepancy before developing the standards.

D.

Perform a cost-benefit analysis of aligning the standards to policy.

Question 273

A data loss prevention (DLP) tool has flagged personally identifiable information (Pll) during transmission. Which of the following should the information security manager do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Validate the scope and impact with the business process owner.

B.

Initiate the incident response plan.

C.

Review and validate the rules within the DLP system.

D.

Escalate the issue to senior management.

Question 274

Which of the following is PRIMARILY influenced by a business impact analysis (BIA)?

Options:

A.

IT strategy

B.

Recovery strategy

C.

Risk mitigation strategy

D.

Security strategy

Question 275

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to document information security incidents that are reported across the organization?

Options:

A.

Evaluate the security posture of the organization.

B.

Identify unmitigated risk.

C.

Prevent incident recurrence.

D.

Support business investments in security.

Question 276

Which of the following is the MOST important detail to capture in an organization's risk register?

Options:

A.

Risk appetite

B.

Risk severity level

C.

Risk acceptance criteria

D.

Risk ownership

Demo: 276 questions
Total 920 questions