Which of the following is the BEST way for an organization to enable risk treatment decisions?
Allocate sufficient funds for risk remediation.
Promote risk and security awareness.
Establish clear accountability for risk.
Develop comprehensive policies and standards.
Establishing clear accountability for risk is the best way for an organization to enable risk treatment decisions, as it ensures that the risk owners and stakeholders have the authority and responsibility to manage and mitigate the risks that they are assigned to. Establishing clear accountability for risk also facilitates communication and collaboration among the risk owners and stakeholders, and enables them to monitor and report the risk status and performance. Establishing clear accountability for risk also supports the risk governance and culture of the organization, and aligns the risk management process with the organization’s strategy and objectives. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, Question 250. CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, Question 250. CRISC Sample Questions 2024, Question 250. CRISC by Isaca Actual Free Exam Q&As, Question 9.
Which of the following is the BEST indication of an effective risk management program?
Risk action plans are approved by senior management.
Residual risk is within the organizational risk appetite
Mitigating controls are designed and implemented.
Risk is recorded and tracked in the risk register
An effective risk management program is a systematic and consistent process of identifying, analyzing, evaluating, treating, monitoring, and communicating risks that may affect the achievement of the organization’s objectives12.
The best indication of an effective risk management program is that the residual risk, which is the risk remaining after risk treatment, is within the organizational risk appetite, which is the amount and type of risk that the organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives12.
This indicates that the organization has successfully implemented appropriate risk responses that align with its risk strategy and criteria, and that the organization is able to balance the potential benefits and costs of taking risks12.
The other options are not the best indication, but rather components or outcomes of an effective risk management program. For example:
Risk action plans are approved by senior management is an outcome of an effective risk management program that demonstrates the commitment and accountability of the leadership for risk management12.
Mitigating controls are designed and implemented is a component of an effective risk management program that involves reducing the likelihood or impact of a risk event12.
Risk is recorded and tracked in the risk register is a component of an effective risk management program that involves documenting and updating the risk information and status12. References =
1: Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2009
2: IT Risk Management Framework, University of Toronto, 2017
Several network user accounts were recently created without the required management approvals. Which of the following would be the risk practitioner's BEST recommendation to address this situation?
Conduct a comprehensive compliance review.
Develop incident response procedures for noncompliance.
Investigate the root cause of noncompliance.
Declare a security breach and Inform management.
Several network user accounts were recently created without the required management approvals. This indicates that there is a risk of unauthorized access, use, disclosure, modification, or destruction of the network resources or data, which may affect the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the network.
The best recommendation to address this situation is to investigate the root cause of noncompliance. This means that the risk practitioner should analyze the factors or reasons that led to the creation of the network user accounts without the required management approvals, such as human error, negligence, malice, system failure, process flaw, etc.
Investigating the root cause of noncompliance helps to identify and correct the source of the problem, prevent or reduce the recurrence of the problem, and improve the compliance and security of the network user accounts.
The other options are not the best recommendations to address this situation. They are either secondary or not effective for noncompliance.
The references for this answer are:
Risk IT Framework, page 31
Information Technology & Security, page 25
Risk Scenarios Starter Pack, page 23
Analyzing trends in key control indicators (KCIs) BEST enables a risk practitioner to proactively identify impacts on an organization's:
risk classification methods
risk-based capital allocation
risk portfolio
risk culture
A risk portfolio is a collection of risks that an organization faces or may face in the future. Analyzing trends in key control indicators (KCIs) best enables a risk practitioner to proactively identify impacts on an organization’s risk portfolio, as KCIs measure and monitor the performance and effectiveness of the risk controls that are implemented to mitigate the risks. By analyzing the trends in KCIs, a risk practitioner can assess the current and potential risk exposure of the organization, and identify any changes or emerging risks that may affect the risk portfolio. Analyzing trends in KCIs can also help to evaluate the cost and benefit of the risk controls, and to determine the need for enhancing, modifying, or implementing new controls. References = CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, Question 246. Most Asked CRISC Exam Questions and Answers, Question 10. ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, Question 246. CRISC by Isaca Actual Free Exam Q&As, Question 9.
An organization's risk management team wants to develop IT risk scenarios to show the impact of collecting and storing credit card information. Which of the following is the MOST comprehensive approach to capture this scenario?
Top-down analysis
Event tree analysis
Control gap analysis
Bottom-up analysis
According to the ISACA Risk and Information Systems Control study guide and handbook, the most comprehensive approach to capture the risk scenario of collecting and storing credit card information is event tree analysis (ETA). ETA is a forward, top-down, logical modeling technique that explores the responses and outcomes of a single initiating event, such as a data breach or a cyberattack. ETA can help to identify all possible consequences of the scenario, such as financial losses, reputational damages, legal liabilities, regulatory penalties, and customer dissatisfaction. ETA can also help to assess the probabilities of the outcomes and the effectiveness of the controls and mitigation strategies12
1: ISACA Risk and Information Systems Control Study Guide, 4th Edition, page 33 2: ISACA Risk and Information Systems Control Handbook, 1st Edition, page 25
Which of the following changes would be reflected in an organization's risk profile after the failure of a critical patch implementation?
Risk tolerance is decreased.
Residual risk is increased.
Inherent risk is increased.
Risk appetite is decreased
A critical patch is a software update that fixes a security vulnerability or a bug that may affect the performance, functionality, or reliability of a system or a network. A critical patch implementation is a process that applies the software update to the system or network in a timely and effective manner. The failure of a critical patch implementation is a situation where the software update is not applied or not applied correctly, which may expose the system or networkto various threats, such as data theft, data corruption, data leakage, or denial of service. The failure of a critical patch implementation would be reflected in an organization’s risk profile by increasing the residual risk. Residual risk is the risk that remains after the risk response, which means the risk that is not avoided, transferred, or mitigated by the existing controls or measures. The failure of a critical patch implementation would increase the residual risk, as it would reduce the effectiveness or efficiency of the existing controls or measures that are supposed to address the security vulnerability or the bug. The failure of a critical patch implementation would also increase the likelihood or impact of the potential threats, as well as the exposure or consequences of the system or network. The other options are not the correct changes that would be reflected in an organization’s risk profile after the failure of a critical patch implementation, although they may be affected or related. Risk tolerance is the degree of variation from the risk appetite that the organization is not willing to accept. Risk tolerance may be decreased by the failure of a critical patch implementation, as the organization may become more cautious or conservative in accepting the risk, but it is not a direct or immediate change in the risk profile. Inherent risk is the risk that exists in the absence of any controls or measures, which means the risk that is inherent to the system or network or the environment. Inherent risk may be increased by the failure of a critical patch implementation, as the system or network may become more vulnerable or susceptible to the threats, but it is not a change in the risk profile, as the risk profile considers the existing controls or measures. Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that the organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. Risk appetite may be decreasedby the failure of a critical patch implementation, as the organization may become less willing orable to accept the risk, but it is not a change in the risk profile, as the risk profile reflects the actual or current risk level, not the desired or expected risk level. References = CRISC Review Manual, pages 32-331; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, page 972; What is a Critical Patch? - Definition from Techopedia3; What is Residual Risk? - Definition from Techopedia4
Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of a risk awareness program?
To demonstrate senior management support
To enhance organizational risk culture
To increase awareness of risk mitigation controls
To clearly define ownership of risk
A risk awareness program is a set of activities and communication methods that aim to increase the understanding and knowledge of risk among the stakeholders of an organization. The primary objective of a risk awareness program is to enhance the organizational risk culture, which is the shared values, beliefs, and attitudes that influence how risk is perceived and managed in the organization. A risk awareness program can help to promote a risk-aware culture by:
•Educating stakeholders on the concepts and benefits of risk management
•Aligning risk management with the organization’s vision, mission, and objectives
•Encouraging stakeholder participation and collaboration in risk management processes
•Fostering a positive attitude towards risk taking and learning from failures
•Reinforcing risk management roles and responsibilities
•Recognizing and rewarding good risk management practices
An organization's control environment is MOST effective when:
controls perform as intended.
controls operate efficiently.
controls are implemented consistent
control designs are reviewed periodically
The control environment is the set of standards, processes, and structures that provide the basis for carrying out internal control across the organization. The control environment is most effective when the controls perform as intended, meaning that they achieve their objectives, mitigate the risks, and comply with the policies and regulations. The other options are desirable attributes of the controls, but they do not necessarily indicate the effectiveness of the control environment. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.3: IT Control Assessment, page 69.
Which of the following offers the SIMPLEST overview of changes in an organization's risk profile?
A risk roadmap
A balanced scorecard
A heat map
The risk register
A heat map is a graphical representation of the organization’s risk profile that shows the relative level of risk for each risk category or event. A heat map uses colors, shapes, or symbols to indicate the magnitude and likelihood of each risk, as well as its trend and status. A heat map offers the simplest overview of changes in the organization’s risk profile, as it allows the risk decision-makers to quickly identify the most significant risks, theareas of improvement or deterioration, and the gaps or overlaps in risk management. A heat map can also be used to communicate the risk profile to senior management and other stakeholders in a clear and concise manner. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.3: IT Risk Assessment Methods and Techniques, Page 77; Future Risks: How organizations see changes in risk management - Aon.
An organization has just started accepting credit card payments from customers via the corporate website. Which of the following is MOST likely to increase as a result of this new initiative?
Risk tolerance
Risk appetite
Inherent risk
Residual risk
Inherent risk is the most likely to increase as a result of the new initiative, because it is the risk that exists before any controls or mitigating factors are applied. Inherent risk reflects the natural or raw level of exposure that the organization faces from a given risk source or scenario. Accepting credit card payments from customers via the corporate website introduces new sources and types of risk, such as fraud, theft, data breach, or non-compliance, that increase the inherent risk level of the organization. Risk tolerance, risk appetite, and residual risk are all related to the risk management process, but they are not the most likely to increase as a result of the new initiative, as they depend on the organization’s risk strategy, objectives, and controls. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2, Section 2.3.1, page 51
A control for mitigating risk in a key business area cannot be implemented immediately. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action when a compensating control needs to be applied?
Obtain the risk owner's approval.
Record the risk as accepted in the risk register.
Inform senior management.
update the risk response plan.
A compensating control is a temporary or alternative control that is implemented when the primary control for mitigating a risk is not feasible or available. A compensating control should provide a similar level of protection and assurance as the primary control, and should be aligned with the risk appetite and tolerance of the organization. The risk practitioner’s best course of action when a compensating control needs to be applied is to obtain the risk owner’s approval. The risk owner is the person who has the authority and accountability for managing a specific risk, and who is responsible for ensuring that the risk is within the acceptable level. The risk practitioner should consult with the risk owner to explain the situation, proposethe compensating control, and seek their approval before implementing it. This way, the risk practitioner can ensure that the compensating control is appropriate, effective, and acceptable for the risk owner, and that the risk owner is aware of and agrees with the change in the risk treatment. The other options are not the best course of action, as they do not involve the risk owner’s approval or input. Recording the risk as accepted in the risk register implies that the risk is not treated or reduced, which may not be the case with a compensating control. Informing senior management may be a good practice, but it does not ensure that the risk owner is involved or agrees with the compensating control. Updating the risk response plan may be a necessary step after implementing the compensating control, but it does not require the risk owner’s approval or consultation. References = 5 Key Risk Mitigation Strategies (With Examples), Risk Management 101: Process, Examples, Strategies
Which of the following is the ULTIMATE objective of utilizing key control indicators (KCIs) in the risk management process?
To provide a basis for determining the criticality of risk mitigation controls
To provide early warning signs of a potential change in risk level
To provide benchmarks for assessing control design effectiveness against industry peers
To provide insight into the effectiveness of the intemnal control environment
Key control indicators (KCIs) are metrics that measure the performance of a control in reducing the causes, consequences, or likelihood of a risk. They help to evaluate the adequacy and efficiency of the internal control environment, which is the set of policies, procedures, and practices that support the achievement of organizational objectives and the management of risks. By monitoring KCIs, organizations can identify and address any gaps or weaknesses in their internal controls and ensure that they are operating as intended.
References
•ISACA CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, Domain 3: Risk Response, Section 3.2.2: Control Design and Implementation
•KRI Framework for Operational Risk Management | Workiva
•What is the difference between key risk indicators and key control indicators?
Which of the following is MOST important to understand when determining an appropriate risk assessment approach?
Complexity of the IT infrastructure
Value of information assets
Management culture
Threats and vulnerabilities
When determining an appropriate risk assessment approach, the most important factor to understand is the value of information assets. This is because the value of information assets determines the potential impact of risks and the level of protection required. The value of information assets can be assessed based on their confidentiality, integrity, availability, and relevance to the business objectives and processes. A risk assessment approach should be aligned with the value of information assets and the risk appetite of the organization. The other options are not the most important factors to understand when determining a risk assessment approach, although they may influence the choice of methods and tools. The complexity of the IT infrastructure may affect the scope and depth of the risk assessment, but it does not indicate the level of risk or the priority of risk management. The management culture may affect the risk tolerance and the risk communication, but it does not reflect the value of information assets or the risk exposure. The threats and vulnerabilities may affect the likelihood and severity of risks, but they do not measure the value of information assets or the risk acceptance. References = CRISC Review Manual, pages 38-391; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, page 582
Mitigating technology risk to acceptable levels should be based PRIMARILY upon:
organizational risk appetite.
business sector best practices.
business process requirements.
availability of automated solutions
Mitigating technology risk to acceptable levels means that the organization implements and maintains appropriate controls to reduce the likelihood and impact of potential threats or losses that may arise from the use of technology, such as IT systems, applications, networks, devices, etc.
The primary factor that should guide the mitigation of technology risk is the organizational risk appetite. This means that the organization defines and communicates the amount and type of risk that it is willing to accept or pursue in order to achieve its objectives and strategy.
The organizational risk appetite helps to determine the risk tolerance and thresholds for different risk categories and scenarios, prioritize the risks, select the most suitable risk responses, allocate the resources and budget for risk management, and monitor and report the risk performance and outcomes.
The other options are not the primary factors that should guide the mitigation of technology risk. They are either secondary or not essential for risk management.
The references for this answer are:
Risk IT Framework, page 25
Information Technology & Security, page 19
Risk Scenarios Starter Pack, page 17
Which of the following BEST indicates whether security awareness training is effective?
User self-assessment
User behavior after training
Course evaluation
Quality of training materials
Security awareness training is a process of educating and informing the users about the security policies, procedures, and best practices of the organization, and the potential threats and risks that may affect the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the information and systems.
The best indicator of whether security awareness training is effective is user behavior after training. This means that the users demonstrate and apply the knowledge and skills that they have learned from the training, such as following the security rules and guidelines, reporting any security incidents or issues, avoiding any risky or malicious actions, etc.
User behavior after training helps to measure the actual impact and outcome of the training, compare them with the expected or desired objectives and standards, identify any gaps or issuesthat may affect the training effectiveness or efficiency, and take appropriate actions to address them.
The other options are not the best indicators of whether security awareness training is effective. They are either subjective or not essential for security awareness training.
The references for this answer are:
Risk IT Framework, page 30
Information Technology & Security, page 24
Risk Scenarios Starter Pack, page 22
During a risk assessment of a financial institution, a risk practitioner discovers that tellers can initiate and approve transactions of significant value. This team is also responsible for ensuring transactions are recorded and balances are reconciled by the end of the day. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST recommendation to mitigate the associated risk?
Implement continuous monitoring.
Require a second level of approval.
Implement separation of duties.
Require a code of ethics.
A data center has recently been migrated to a jurisdiction where heavy fines will be imposed should leakage of customer personal data occur. Assuming no other changes to the operating environment, which factor should be updated to reflect this situation as an input to scenario development for this particular risk event?
Risk likelihood
Risk impact
Risk capacity
Risk appetite
The migration to a jurisdiction with heavy fines for data leakage primarily affects the potential impact of a risk event. This change should be reflected in the risk impact factor, as the financial consequences of a risk event would be significantly higher.
An organization has experienced several incidents of extended network outages that have exceeded tolerance. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's FIRST step to address this situation?
Recommend additional controls to address the risk.
Update the risk tolerance level to acceptable thresholds.
Update the incident-related risk trend in the risk register.
Recommend a root cause analysis of the incidents.
The first step for the risk practitioner to address the situation of extended network outages that have exceeded tolerance is to recommend a root cause analysis of the incidents. A root cause analysis is a process of identifying and resolving the underlying causes of a problem or an event. By performing a root cause analysis, the risk practitioner can determine why the network outages occurred, what factors contributed to them, and how they can be prevented or reduced in the future. Recommending additional controls, updating the risk tolerance level, and updating the incident-related risk trend are possible steps that may follow the root cause analysis, but they are not the first step. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 4; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 153.
Which of the following is the BEST indication of an enhanced risk-aware culture?
Users have read and agreed to comply with security policies.
Risk issues are openly discussed within the organization.
Scores have improved on risk awareness quizzes.
There is a decrease in the number of reported incidents.
A strong risk-aware culture is reflected by transparent communication about risks. Open discussions signify employee engagement and ownership of risk-related issues.
Which of the following should management consider when selecting a risk mitigation option?
Maturity of the enterprise architecture
Cost of control implementation
Reliability of key performance indicators (KPIs)
Reliability of key risk indicators (KPIs)
When selecting a risk mitigation option, management should consider the cost of control implementation, as well as the benefits and residual risks. The cost of control implementation includes the direct costs of acquiring, installing, and maintaining the control, as well as the indirect costs of potential side effects, suchas reduced performance, increased complexity, or decreased user satisfaction. The cost of control implementation should be balanced with theexpected reduction in risk exposure and the alignment with the enterprise’s risk appetite and tolerance. The maturity of the enterprise architecture, the reliability of key performance indicators (KPIs), and the reliability of key risk indicators (KRIs) are relevant factors for risk identification and assessment, but not for risk response selection. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk Response, page 149.
A root because analysis indicates a major service disruption due to a lack of competency of newly hired IT system administrators Who should be accountable for resolving the situation?
HR training director
Business process owner
HR recruitment manager
Chief information officer (CIO)
The person who should be accountable for resolving the situation where a root cause analysis indicates a major service disruption due to a lack of competency of newly hired IT system administrators is the chief information officer (CIO). The CIO is the senior executive who is responsible for the overall management and governance of the IT function within the organization, including the IT strategy, objectives, policies, processes, and resources. The CIO is also accountable for the performance and value of the IT services and systems, and for ensuring that they meet the needs and expectations of the business and its stakeholders. The CIO should be accountable for resolving the situation, because it involves a major IT service disruption that could affect the organization’s operations and reputation, and because it is related to the IT staff competency and capability, which are under the CIO’s authority and responsibility. The other options are not as accountable as the CIO, although they may have some roles or involvement inthe situation. The HR training director, the business process owner, and the HR recruitment manager are not directly responsible for the IT function or the IT service delivery, and they may not have the authority or the expertise to resolve the situation. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2, Section 2.1.1, page 2-3.
What is the BEST approach for determining the inherent risk of a scenario when the actual likelihood of the risk is unknown?
Use the severity rating to calculate risk.
Classify the risk scenario as low-probability.
Use the highest likelihood identified by risk management.
Rely on range-based estimates provided by subject-matter experts.
When likelihood is unknown, range-based estimates from subject-matter experts provideinformed and realistic insights into potential risk exposure. This approach helps approximate the inherent risk based on experience and expertise, supporting effective decision-making.
Which of the following is the PRIMARY factor in determining a recovery time objective (RTO)?
Cost of offsite backup premises
Cost of downtime due to a disaster
Cost of testing the business continuity plan
Response time of the emergency action plan
A recovery time objective (RTO) is the maximum acceptable time or duration that a business process or function can be disrupted or unavailable due to a disaster or incident, before it causes unacceptable or intolerable consequences for the organization. It is usually expressed in hours, days, or weeks, and it is aligned with the organization’s business continuity and disaster recovery objectives and requirements.
The primary factor in determining a RTO is the cost of downtime due to a disaster, which is the estimated loss or damage that the organization may suffer if a business process or function is disrupted or unavailable for a certain period of time. The cost of downtime can be expressed in terms of financial, operational, reputational, or legal consequences, and it can help the organization to assess the impact and urgency of the disaster, and to decide on the appropriate recovery strategy and resources.
The other options are not the primary factors in determining a RTO, because they do not address the fundamental question of how long the organization can tolerate the disruption or unavailability of a business process or function.
The cost of offsite backup premises is the cost of acquiring, maintaining, or using an alternative or secondary location or facility that can be used to resume or continue the business process or function in case of a disaster or incident. The cost of offsite backup premises is important to consider when selecting or implementing a recovery strategy, but it is not the primary factor in determining a RTO, because it does not indicate the impact or urgency of the disaster, and it may not reflect the organization’s business continuity and disaster recovery objectives and requirements.
The cost of testing the business continuity plan is the cost of conducting, evaluating, or improving the tests or exercises that are performed to verify or validate the effectiveness and efficiency of the business continuity plan, which is the document that describes the actions and procedures that the organization will take to recover or restore the business process or function in case of a disaster or incident. The cost of testing the business continuity plan is important to consider when developing or updating the business continuity plan, but it is not the primary factor in determining a RTO, because it does not indicate the impact or urgency of the disaster, and it may not reflect the organization’s business continuity and disaster recovery objectives and requirements.
The response time of the emergency action plan is the time or duration that it takes for the organization to initiate or execute the emergency action plan, which is the document that describes the immediate actions and procedures that the organization will take to protect the life, health, and safety of the people, and to minimize the damage or loss of the assets,in case of adisaster or incident. The response time of the emergency action plan is important to consider when preparing or reviewing the emergency action plan, but it is not the primary factor in determining a RTO, because it does not indicate the impact or urgency of the disaster, and it may not reflect the organization’s business continuity and disaster recovery objectives and requirements. References =
ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, pp. 62-63, 66-67, 70-71, 74-75, 78-79
ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 165
CRISC Practice Quiz and Exam Prep
A department allows multiple users to perform maintenance on a system using a single set of credentials. A risk practitioner determined this practice to be high-risk. Which of the following is the MOST effective way to mitigate this risk?
Single sign-on
Audit trail review
Multi-factor authentication
Data encryption at rest
Multi-factor authentication is the most effective way to mitigate the risk of unauthorized access to the system, as it requires the users to provide more than one piece of evidence to prove their identity, such as a password, a token, a biometric feature, etc. This reduces the likelihood of compromising the credentials and ensures that only authorized users can perform maintenance on the system.
Single sign-on is a convenience feature that allows users to access multiple systems with one set of credentials, but it does not address the risk of sharing credentials among multiple users.
Audit trail review is a detective control that can help identify and investigate unauthorized access to the system, but it does not prevent or mitigate the risk of credential compromise.
Data encryption at rest is a security measure that protects the data stored on the system from unauthorized access, but it does not prevent or mitigate the risk of credential compromise. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, ISACA, 2020, page 107-108.
Which of the following would MOST likely cause a risk practitioner to change the likelihood rating in the risk register?
Risk appetite
Control cost
Control effectiveness
Risk tolerance
The likelihood rating in the risk register is a measure of how probable it is that a risk event will occur, given the current conditions and controls. The risk practitioner should change the likelihood rating if there is a significant change in the effectiveness of the controls that are implemented to prevent or reduce the risk. For example, if a control becomes obsolete, ineffective, or bypassed, the likelihood rating should increase, as the risk event becomes more likely to happen. Conversely, if a control becomes more efficient, reliable, or robust, the likelihood rating should decrease, as the risk event becomes less likely to happen. The other options are not likely to cause a change in the likelihood rating, as they are not directly related to the probability of the risk event. Risk appetite is the amount of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. Control cost is the amount of resources that are required to implement and maintain a control. Risk tolerance is the acceptable level of variation that an organization is willing to allow for a risk to deviate from its desired level or expected outcome. These factors may influence the risk response or the risk acceptance, but not the likelihood rating. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1: IT Risk Identification, Section 1.4: Risk Register, p. 25-26.
A maturity model is MOST useful to an organization when it:
benchmarks against other organizations
defines a qualitative measure of risk
provides a reference for progress
provides risk metrics.
A maturity model is a framework that describes the stages or levels of development and improvement of a certain domain, such as a process, a function, or an organization. A maturity model is most useful to an organization when it provides a reference for progress, meaning that it helps the organization to assess its current state, identify its strengths and weaknesses, set its goals and objectives, and measure itsperformance and improvement over time. A maturity model can also help the organization to compare itself with best practices and standards, but benchmarking against other organizations is not its primary purpose. A maturity model can also help the organization to manage its risks, but defining a qualitative measure of risk or providingrisk metrics is not its main function. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.3.2.1, p. 118-119
Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose for ensuring senior management understands the organization’s risk universe in relation to the IT risk management program?
To define effective enterprise IT risk appetite and tolerance levels
To execute the IT risk management strategy in support of business objectives
To establish business-aligned IT risk management organizational structures
To assess the capabilities and maturity of the organization’s IT risk management efforts
Ensuring senior management understands the organization’s risk universe in relation to the IT risk management program is primarily to define effective enterprise IT risk appetite andtolerance levels. This understanding is essential for setting the boundaries within which the organization is willing to operate regarding IT risks.
Defining Effective IT Risk Appetite and Tolerance Levels (Answer A):
Purpose: Senior management needs to understand the range and nature of IT risks to set appropriate risk appetite and tolerance levels.
Impact: This enables the organization to make informed decisions about which risks to accept, mitigate, transfer, or avoid.
Alignment: It ensures that the IT risk management strategy is aligned with the overall business objectives and risk posture of the organization.
Comparison with Other Options:
B. To execute the IT risk management strategy in support of business objectives:
Purpose: While important, it follows the definition of risk appetite and tolerance.
Limitation: Without understanding the risk universe, execution may be misaligned.
C. To establish business-aligned IT risk management organizational structures:
Purpose: Structural alignment is crucial but secondary to setting risk appetite and tolerance.
D. To assess the capabilities and maturity of the organization’s IT risk management efforts:
Purpose: This is part of the ongoing process but not the primary purpose of understanding the risk universe.
Which of the following roles is BEST suited to help a risk practitioner understand the impact of IT-related events on business objectives?
IT management
Internal audit
Process owners
Senior management
Process owners are the best suited to help a risk practitioner understand the impact of IT-related events on business objectives, as they have the responsibility and authority over the design, execution, and performance of business processes. Process owners are also accountable for the risks and controls associated with their processes, and they can provide valuable input and feedback on the likelihood and impact of IT-related events on the process outcomes and objectives.
The other options are not the best suited to help a risk practitioner understand the impact of IT-related events on business objectives. IT management is responsible for the delivery and support of IT services and solutions, but they may not have the full visibility or understanding of the business objectives and processes. Internal audit is responsible for providing independent and objective assurance and consulting services on the effectiveness and efficiency of governance, risk management, and control processes, but they may not have the direct involvement or influence on the business objectives and processes. Senior management is responsible for settingthe strategic direction and objectives of the organization, but they maynot have the detailed knowledge or experience of the business processes and their risks and controls. References = IT Risk Manager: Skills and Roles & Responsibilities, IT Risk Resources | ISACA, Managing information technology risk | Business Queensland
When of the following 15 MOST important when developing a business case for a proposed security investment?
identification of control requirements
Alignment to business objectives
Consideration of new business strategies
inclusion of strategy for regulatory compliance
Alignment to business objectives is the most important factor when developing a business case for a proposed security investment, because it demonstrates how the investment will support the enterprise’s mission, vision, and goals. A business case should show how the security investment will contribute to the value creation, risk reduction, and performance improvement of the enterprise. The other options are not the most important factors, although they may also be included in the business case. The identification of control requirements, the consideration of new business strategies, and the inclusion of strategy for regulatory compliance are secondary factors that depend on the alignment to business objectives. References = Most Asked CRISC Exam Questions and Answers
Which of the following provides the MOST useful information to determine risk exposure following control implementations?
Strategic plan and risk management integration
Risk escalation and process for communication
Risk limits, thresholds, and indicators
Policies, standards, and procedures
Risk limits, thresholds, and indicators provide the most useful information to determine risk exposure following control implementations, as they help to measure and monitor the current and residual risk levels and compare them with the desired and acceptable risk levels. Risk limits, thresholds, and indicators are defined as follows:
Risk limits are the maximum amount of risk that an organization is willing to accept for a given activity, process, or objective. Risk limits are derived from the organizational risk appetite and tolerance, and they help to guide the risk response and control selection.
Risk thresholds are the points or levels at which the risk or performance is acceptable or unacceptable. Risk thresholds are used to trigger alerts, actions, or escalation when the risk or performance deviates from the expected or planned range.
Risk indicators are metrics or measures that provide information on the current or potential risk exposure or performance. Risk indicators can be classified into key risk indicators (KRIs), whichmeasure the likelihood and impact of risk events, and key performance indicators (KPIs), which measure the effectiveness and efficiency of controls and processes.
Risk limits, thresholds, and indicators help to determine risk exposure following control implementations by providing quantitative and qualitative data and feedback on the risk and control environment. They also help to identify and prioritize the areas for improvement and enhancement of the risk and control environment. Risk limits, thresholds, and indicators also facilitate the communication, collaboration, and accountability among the stakeholders involved in the risk management and control processes.
The other options are not the most useful information to determine risk exposure following control implementations. Strategic plan and risk management integration is the process of aligning the organizational strategy and objectives with the risk management framework and activities, but it does not provide specific information on the risk exposure or control effectiveness. Risk escalation and process for communication is the process of reporting and escalating the risk issues and incidents to the appropriate authority and stakeholders, but it doesnot provide comprehensive information on the risk exposure or control performance. Policies, standards, and procedures are the documents that define the principles, rules, and guidelines for the risk management and control processes, but they do not provide actual information on the risk exposure or control implementation. References = Risk Limits, Thresholds and Indicators - ISACA, IT Risk Resources | ISACA, Risk Management: Risk Indicators and Risk Appetite
A control owner responsible for the access management process has developed a machine learning model to automatically identify excessive access privileges. What is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?
Review the design of the machine learning model against control objectives.
Adopt the machine learning model as a replacement for current manual access reviews.
Ensure the model assists in meeting regulatory requirements for access controls.
Discourage the use of emerging technologies in key processes.
The risk practitioner’s best course of action is to review the design of the machine learning model against the control objectives, because this will help to evaluate the suitability, effectiveness, and reliability of the model as a control measure. A machine learning model is a type of artificial intelligence that can learn from data and make predictions or decisions based on the data. A machine learning model can be used to automate or enhance the access management process, such as by identifying excessive access privileges, detecting unauthorized access, or recommending access rights. However, a machine learning model also introduces new risks and challenges, such as data quality, model accuracy, model bias, model explainability, model security, and model governance. Therefore, the risk practitioner should review the design of the machine learning model against the control objectives, which are the specific goals or outcomes that the control is intended to achieve. The control objectives can be derived from the IT riskmanagement strategy, the IT governance framework, the IT policies and standards, and the regulatory requirements. The review of the machine learning model should cover the following aspects: - The data sources and inputs: The risk practitioner should verify that the data used to train and test the machine learning model is relevant, complete, accurate, consistent, and representative of the access management process and the access rights. The risk practitioner should also check that the data is collected, stored, processed, and transmitted in a secure and compliant manner, and that the data privacy and confidentiality are protected. - The model algorithms and outputs: The risk practitioner should validate that the model algorithms are appropriate, robust, and transparent for the access management process and the control objectives. The risk practitioner should also evaluate that the model outputs are accurate, reliable, and interpretable, and that they provide meaningful and actionable insights orrecommendations for the access management process and the control objectives. - The model performance and monitoring: The riskpractitioner should measure and monitor the model performance and effectiveness against the control objectives and the predefined metrics and indicators. The risk practitioner should also ensure that the model is updated and maintained regularly to reflect the changes in the access management process and the access rights, and that the model is audited and reviewed periodically to ensure its compliance and quality. By reviewing the design of the machine learning model against the control objectives, the risk practitioner can ensure that the model is fit for purpose and adds value to the access management process and the control objectives. The risk practitioner can also identify and mitigate any potential risks or issues that may arise from the use of the machine learning model as a control measure. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: Risk Response and Mitigation, Section 3.3: Control Design and Implementation, pp. 124-1271, Manage roles in your workspace - Azure Machine Learning2, Dataset Inference: Ownership Resolution in Machine Learning3
Which of the following situations would BEST justify escalation to senior management?
Residual risk exceeds acceptable limits.
Residual risk is inadequately recorded.
Residual risk remains after controls have been applied.
Residual risk equals current risk.
Residual risk exceeds acceptable limits, because it indicates that the risk level is higher than the organization’s risk appetite or tolerance, and that the risk responses and controls are insufficient or ineffective. Residual risk is the level of risk remaining in a process or procedure following the implementation of risk controls to limit or remove it. Escalation is a process that increases theawareness and involvement of higher-level stakeholders or authorities in a risk issue or situation. Escalation is appropriate when the risk issue or situation is outside the scope or authority of the current risk owner or manager, and requires the attention or action of the senior management or the board of directors. Residual risk exceeding acceptable limits is the best situation to justify escalation, as it implies that the current risk owner or manager cannot manage the risk within the predefined boundaries or expectations, and that the senior management or the board of directors need to intervene or approve the risk acceptance or transfer.
Residual risk being inadequately recorded, residual risk remaining after controls have been applied, and residual risk equaling current risk are all possible situations that may require escalation, but they are not the best situations, as they do not necessarily indicate that the risk level is higher than the acceptable limits, and that the senior management or the board of directors need to be involved.
An assessment of information security controls has identified ineffective controls. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action?
Determine whether the impact is outside the risk appetite.
Request a formal acceptance of risk from senior management.
Report the ineffective control for inclusion in the next audit report.
Deploy a compensating control to address the identified deficiencies.
The risk practitioner’s first course of action when an assessment of information security controls has identified ineffective controls should be A. Determine whether the impact is outside the risk appetite1
According to the CRISC Review Manual, risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. Risk appetite reflects the organization’s risk culture, strategy, and values2
When an assessment of information security controls has identified ineffective controls, it means that the controls are not providing the expected level of protection or assurance for the information assets or processes. This may result in increased exposure or vulnerability to threats, or reduced ability to achieve objectives. Therefore, the risk practitioner should first determine whether the impact of the ineffective controls is outside the risk appetite, as this would indicate the need for urgent action or escalation3
The other options are not the first course of action when an assessment of information security controls has identified ineffective controls, because:
•B. Requesting a formal acceptance of risk from senior management may be appropriate if the impact of the ineffective controls is within the risk appetite, and the organization decides to accept the risk as it is. However, this should not be the first course of action, as it may not address the root cause of the ineffective controls, or the potential consequences or opportunities for improvement4
•C. Reporting the ineffective control for inclusion in the next audit report may be part of the risk communication and reporting process, but it should not be the first course of action, as it may delay the resolution or mitigation of the issue, or the implementation of corrective actions. Moreover, the next audit report may not be timely or relevant for the decision-makers or stakeholders who need to be informed of the ineffective controls5
•D. Deploying a compensating control to address the identified deficiencies may be a possible risk response option, but it should not be the first course of action, as it may require further analysis, evaluation, and approval. Moreover, deploying a compensating control may not be the most effective or efficient solution, as it may introduce additional complexity, cost, or risk.
1: CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, Question ID: 100003 2: CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 28 3: CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 223 4: CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 224 5: CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 225 : CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 226
Which of the following is the MOST important course of action to foster an ethical, risk-aware culture?
Implement a fraud detection and prevention framework.
Ensure the alignment of the organization's policies and standards to the defined risk appetite.
Establish an enterprise-wide ethics training and awareness program.
Perform a comprehensive review of all applicable legislative frameworks and requirements.
According to the CRISC Review Manual, an enterprise-wide ethics training and awareness program is one of the key elements of a strong risk culture, as it helps to promote ethical behavior, raise awareness of risk management principles and practices, and foster a culture of accountability and transparency2
1: Developing Collective Risk Leadership Through CRISC - ISACA 2: CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 23
Which of the following is the BEST method for assessing control effectiveness?
Ad hoc control reporting
Control self-assessment
Continuous monitoring
Predictive analytics
Control effectiveness is the degree to which a control achieves its intended objective and mitigates the risk that it is designed to address. It is measured by comparing the actual performance and outcome of the control with the expected or desired performance and outcome.
The best method for assessing control effectiveness is continuous monitoring, which is the process of collecting, analyzing, and reporting on the performance and outcome of the controls on an ongoing basis. Continuous monitoring provides timely and accurate information on the status and results of the controls, and enables the identification and correction of any issues or gaps in the control environment.
Continuous monitoring can be performed using various techniques, such as automated tools, dashboards, indicators, metrics, logs, audits, reviews, etc. Continuous monitoring can also be integrated with the risk management process, and aligned with the organization’s objectives and risk appetite.
The other options are not the best methods for assessing control effectiveness, because they do not provide the same level of timeliness, accuracy, and completeness of information on the performance and outcome of the controls.
Ad hoc control reporting is the process of collecting, analyzing, and reporting on the performance and outcome of the controls on an irregular or occasional basis. Ad hoc control reporting may be triggered by specific events, requests, or incidents, and it may not cover all the relevant or critical controls. Ad hoc control reporting may not provide sufficient or consistentinformation on the control effectiveness, and it may not enable the timely and proactive identification and correction of any issues or gaps in the control environment.
Control self-assessment is the process of allowing the control owners or operators to evaluate and report on the performance and outcome of their own controls. Control self-assessment can provide useful insights and feedback from the control owners or operators, and it can enhance their awareness and accountability for the control effectiveness. However, control self-assessment may not be objective, reliable, or independent, and it may not cover all the relevant or critical controls. Control self-assessment may not provide sufficient or consistent information on the control effectiveness, and it may not enable the timely and proactive identification and correction of any issues or gaps in the control environment.
Predictive analytics is the process of using statistical techniques and models to analyze historical and current data, and to make predictions or forecasts about future events or outcomes. Predictive analytics can provide useful insights and trends on the potential performance and outcome of the controls, and it can support the decision making and planning for the control effectiveness. However, predictive analytics may not be accurate, valid, or reliable, and it may not reflect the actual or current performance and outcome of the controls. Predictive analytics may not provide sufficient or consistent information on the control effectiveness, and it may not enable the timely and proactive identification and correction of any issues or gaps in the control environment. References =
ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, pp. 40-41, 47-48, 54-55, 58-59, 62-63
ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 150
CRISC Practice Quiz and Exam Prep
Which of the following is MOST likely to cause a key risk indicator (KRI) to exceed thresholds?
Occurrences of specific events
A performance measurement
The risk tolerance level
Risk scenarios
Occurrences of specific events are the most likely to cause a key risk indicator (KRI) to exceed thresholds, as they represent the actual or potential realization of the risk. A KRI is a metric that measures the level of risk exposure and the effectiveness of risk response strategies, and it has predefined thresholds that indicate the acceptable or unacceptable risk status. When a specific event occurs that affects the risk, such as a security breach, a system failure, or a compliance violation, the KRI value may change and exceed the thresholds, triggering an alert or an action. A performance measurement, the risk tolerance level, and risk scenarios are not the most likely to cause a KRI to exceed thresholds, as they do not reflect the actual or potential occurrence of the risk, but rather the expected or desired outcome, limit, or simulation of the risk. References = [CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version)], page 121; CRISC by Isaca Actual Free Exam Q&As, question 217.
Which of the following will BEST help ensure that risk factors identified during an information systems review are addressed?
Informing business process owners of the risk
Reviewing and updating the risk register
Assigning action items and deadlines to specific individuals
Implementing new control technologies
A risk factor is a condition or event that may increase the likelihood or impact of a risk, which is the effect of uncertainty on objectives1. An information systems review is a process that involves examining and evaluating the adequacy and effectiveness of the information systems and their related controls, policies, and procedures2. The purpose of an information systems review is to identify and report the risk factors that may affect the confidentiality, integrity, availability, and performance of the information systems and their outputs3. The best way to ensure that the risk factors identified during an information systems review are addressed is to assign action items and deadlines to specific individuals, who are responsible and accountable for implementing the appropriate risk responses. A risk response is an action taken or plannedto mitigate or eliminate the risk, such as avoiding, transferring, reducing, or accepting the risk4. By assigning action items and deadlines to specific individuals, the organization can ensure that the risk factors are properly and promptly addressed, and that the progress and results of the risk responses are monitored and reported5. Informing business process owners of the risk, reviewing and updating the risk register, and implementing new control technologies are not the best ways to ensure that the risk factors identified during an information systems review are addressed, as they do not provide the same level of accountability and effectiveness as assigning action items anddeadlines to specific individuals. Informing business process owners of the risk is a process that involves communicating and sharing the risk information with the persons who have the authority and accountability for a business process that is supported or enabled by the information systems6. Informing business process owners of the risk can help to raise their awareness and understanding of the risk, but it does not ensure that they will take the necessary actions to address the risk. Reviewing and updating the risk register is a process that involves checking and verifying that the risk register, which is a document that records and tracks the risks and their related information, is current, complete, and consistent7. Reviewing and updating the risk register can help to reflect the changes and updates in the risk factors and their status, but it does not ensure that the risk factors are resolved or reduced. Implementing new control technologies is a process that involves introducing or applying new software or hardware that can help to prevent, detect, or correct the risk factors affecting the information systems8. Implementing new control technologies can help to improve the security and performance of the information systems, but it does not ensure that the risk factors are eliminated or mitigated. References = 1: Risk Factors - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics2: InformationSystems Audit and Control Association (ISACA) - ISACA3: Information Systems Audit: The Basics4: Risk Response Strategy and Contingency Plans - ProjectManagement.com5: Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: Risk Response, Section 3.1: Risk Response Options, pp. 113-115.6: [Business Process Owner - Gartner IT Glossary] 7: Risk Register: A Project Manager’s Guide with Examples [2023] • Asana8: Technology Control Automation: Improving Efficiency, Reducing … - ISACA : [Business Process Owner - Roles and Responsibilities] : [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.1: Risk Identification, pp. 57-59.] : [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.2: Risk Monitoring, pp. 189-191.]
An organization's senior management is considering whether to acquire cyber insurance. Which of the following is the BEST way for the risk practitioner to enable management’s decision?
Perform a cost-benefit analysis.
Conduct a SWOT analysis.
Provide data on the number of risk events from the last year.
Report on recent losses experienced by industry peers.
Acost-benefit analysisevaluates the financial implications of acquiring cyber insurance versus the potential loss exposure. This approach enables informed decision-making by comparing the insurance cost with the potential savings from covered risks.
Which of the following is the BEST way to validate privileged access to database accounts?
Regular reviews of privileged access
Confirmation from users with privileged access
Management approval of access requests
Confirmation from the database administrator (DBA)
Regular reviewshelp detect inappropriate, outdated, or excessive access rights. This is a fundamental part of access control governance and supports the principle of least privilege.
A risk assessment has identified that departments have installed their own WiFi access points on the enterprise network. Which of the following would be MOST important to include in a report to senior management?
The network security policy
Potential business impact
The WiFi access point configuration
Planned remediation actions
A risk assessment is a process of identifying, analyzing, and evaluating the risks that may affect the enterprise’s objectives and operations. It involves determining the likelihood and impact of various risk scenarios, and prioritizing them based on their significance and urgency.
A WiFi access point is a device that allows wireless devices to connect to a wired network using radio signals. It can provide convenience and flexibility for users, but it can also introduce security risks, such as unauthorized access, data leakage, malware infection, or denial of service attacks.
If departments have installed their own WiFi access points on the enterprise network, without proper authorization, configuration, or monitoring, it means that they have bypassed the network security policy and controls, and created potential vulnerabilities and exposures for the enterprise.
The most important information to include in a report to senior management is the potential business impact of this risk, which is the estimated loss or damage that the enterprise may suffer if the risk materializes. The potential business impact can be expressed in terms of financial, operational, reputational, or legal consequences, and it can help senior management to understand the severity and urgency of the risk, and to decide on the appropriate risk response and allocation of resources.
The other options are not the most important information to include in a report to senior management, because they do not convey the magnitude and significance of the risk, and they may not be relevant or actionable for senior management.
The network security policy is the set of rules and guidelines that define the security objectives, requirements, and responsibilities for the enterprise network. It is important to have a clear and comprehensive network security policy, and to ensure that it is communicated, enforced, and monitored across the enterprise, but it is not the most important information to include in a report to senior management, because it does not indicate the actual or potential impact of the risk, and it may not reflect the current or desired state of the network security.
The WiFi access point configuration is the set of parameters and settings that define the functionality, performance, and security of the WiFi access point. It is important to have a secure and consistent WiFi access point configuration, and to follow the best practices and standards for wireless network security, but it is not the most important information to include in a report to senior management, because it does not indicate the actual or potential impact of the risk, and it may not be relevant or understandable for senior management.
The planned remediation actions are the steps and measures that are intended to mitigate, transfer, avoid, or accept the risk, and to restore the normal operation and security of the enterprise network. It is important to have a feasible and effective plan for remediation actions, and to implement and monitor them in a timely and efficient manner, but it is not the most important information to include in a report to senior management, because it does not indicate the actual or potential impact of the risk, and it may not be feasible or appropriate without senior management’s approval or support. References =
ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, pp. 19-20, 23-24, 27-28, 31-32, 40-41, 47-48
ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 146
The PRIMARY reason for establishing various Threshold levels for a set of key risk indicators (KRIs) is to:
highlight trends of developing risk.
ensure accurate and reliable monitoring.
take appropriate actions in a timely manner.
set different triggers for each stakeholder.
The primary reason for establishing various threshold levels for a set of key risk indicators (KRIs) is to take appropriate actions in a timely manner. KRIs are metrics that provide information on the level of exposure to a given risk or the effectiveness of the controls in place. Threshold levels are predefined values that indicate when the risk level is acceptable, tolerable, or unacceptable. By establishing various threshold levels for a set of KRIs, the enterprise can monitor the risk situation and trigger the necessary responses before the risk becomes too severe or costly to mitigate. The other options are not the primary reasons for establishing various threshold levels, although they may be secondary benefits or outcomes of doing so. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, page 189.
A global organization is planning to collect customer behavior data through social media advertising. Which of the following is the MOST important business risk to be considered?
Regulatory requirements may differ in each country.
Data sampling may be impacted by various industry restrictions.
Business advertising will need to be tailored by country.
The data analysis may be ineffective in achieving objectives.
Customer behavior data is the information that reflects how customers interact with a brand, product, or service, such as their preferences, needs, motivations, and feedback1. Collecting customer behavior data through social media advertising can help an organization to understand its target market, improve its customer experience, and optimize its marketing strategies2.
However, collecting customer behavior data through social media advertising also poses significant business risks, especially for a global organization that operates in different countries. Among the four options given, the most important business risk to be considered is the regulatory requirements that may differ in each country. This means that the organization should:
Be aware of the different laws and regulations that govern the collection, processing, storage, and transfer of personal data in each country, such as the GDPR in the EU, the CCPA in California, or the PDPA in Singapore3
Ensure that the organization complies with the relevant data protection and privacy rules and standards in each country, such as obtaining consent, providing notice, ensuring security, and respecting rights4
Avoid or mitigate the potential legal, financial, reputational, or operational consequences of violating the data protection and privacy laws and regulations in each country, such as fines, lawsuits, sanctions, or loss of trust5
References = What is Customer Behavior Data?, How to Collect Customer Behavior Data for Marketing, Data Protection Laws Around the World, Data Protection and Privacy: The Age of Intelligent Machines, The Risks of Non-Compliance with Data Protection Laws
Which of the following is the GREATEST risk associated with an environment that lacks documentation of the architecture?
Unknown vulnerabilities
Legacy technology systems
Network isolation
Overlapping threats
Architecture is the design and structure of a system or a process, such as an IT system or a business process. Architecture documentation is the document that describes and explains the architecture, such as its components, functions, relationships, requirements, constraints, orstandards. Architecture documentation can help to understand, communicate, and improve the system or the process1.
An environment that lacks documentation of the architecture faces a great risk of unknown vulnerabilities, which are the weaknesses or flaws in the system or the process that could be exploited by threats or attackers, but are not identified or addressed by the organization. Unknown vulnerabilities can pose a serious risk to the organization, because they can:
Compromise the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the system or the process, and the information or resources that it handles or supports
Cause financial, operational, reputational, or legal damages or losses to the organization, such as data breaches, fraud, errors, delays, or fines
Remain undetected or unresolved for a long time, and increase the exposure or impact of the risk over time
Require more resources or efforts to mitigate or recover from the risk, and reduce the efficiency or effectiveness of the risk management process23
Lack of documentation of the architecture can increase the risk of unknown vulnerabilities, because it can:
Prevent or hinder the identification and assessment of the vulnerabilities, and the evaluation and prioritization of the risks
Impede or delay the implementation and enforcement of the controls or safeguards to prevent or reduce the vulnerabilities, and the monitoring and reporting of the risk status and progress
Obstruct or limit the communication and coordination among the stakeholders, and the awareness and accountability of the risk owners and users
Restrict or hamper the review and improvement of the system or the process, and the learning and feedback of the risk management4
The other options are not the greatest risks associated with an environment that lacks documentation of the architecture, but rather some of the possible causes or consequences of it.Legacy technology systems are outdated or obsolete systems that are still in use by the organization, but are no longer supported or maintained by the vendors or developers. Legacy technology systems can be a cause of lack of documentation of the architecture, as they may have been developed or acquired without proper documentation, or the documentation may have been lost or discarded over time. Network isolation is the separation or segregation of a network or a system from other networks or systems, either physically or logically, to prevent or limit the access or communication between them. Network isolation can be a consequence of lack of documentation of the architecture, as it may result from the inability or difficulty to integrate or connect the system or the process with other systems or processes. Overlapping threats are threats that affect more than one system or process, or have similar or related sources or causes, such as natural disasters, cyberattacks, or human errors. Overlapping threats can be a consequence of lack of documentation of the architecture, as they may arise from the lack of understanding or coordination of the system or the process with other systems or processes. References =
Architecture Documentation - ISACA
Vulnerability - ISACA
The Risks of Not Having a Vulnerability Management Program
The Importance of Architecture Documentation - ISACA
[The Risk of Poor Document Control - ComplianceBridge]
[CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition]
An IT operations team implements disaster recovery controls based on decisions from application owners regarding the level of resiliency needed. Who is the risk owner in this scenario?
Business resilience manager
Disaster recovery team lead
Application owner
IT operations manager
According to the CRISC Review Manual1, the application owner is the person who has the authority and accountability for the achievement of the application objectives and the management of the associated risks. The application owner is responsible for defining the level of resiliency needed for the application, which is the ability of the application to recover from disruptions and continue to operate. The application owner is also responsible for accepting or rejecting the residual risks after the implementation of the disaster recovery controls, which are the measures to restore the application functionality and data in the event of a disaster. Therefore, the risk owner in this scenario is the application owner, as they are the ones who will be affected by the potential impact of the disaster on the application and its objectives. References = CRISC Review Manual1, page 194.
Which of the following would BEST help identify the owner for each risk scenario in a risk register?
Determining which departments contribute most to risk
Allocating responsibility for risk factors equally to asset owners
Mapping identified risk factors to specific business processes
Determining resource dependency of assets
A risk register is a tool that records and tracks the identified risks, their causes, impacts, likelihood, responses, and owners. The owner for each risk scenario is the person or group whohas the authority and accountability to manage the risk and its response. The best way to identify the owner for each risk scenario in a risk register is to map the identified risk factors tospecific business processes. Risk factors are the internal and external variables that influence the occurrence and impact of risks. Business processes are the activities that produce value for the enterprise, such as sales, marketing, production, or delivery. By mapping the risk factors to the business processes, the risk practitioner can determine which business process is affected by or contributes to the risk, and who is responsible for the business process. The owner for each risk scenario should be the person or group who is responsible for the business process that is associated with the risk. The other options are not the best way to identify the owner for each risk scenario, as they involve different criteria or methods:
Determining which departments contribute most to risk means that the risk practitioner evaluates the degree of involvement or exposure of each department to the risk. This may not be a reliable or consistent way to identify the owner for each risk scenario, as the risk may span across multiple departments, or the department may not have the authority or accountability to manage the risk.
Allocating responsibility for risk factors equally to asset owners means that the risk practitioner assigns the same level of responsibility to each person or group who owns an asset that is affected by or contributes to the risk. An asset is a resource that has value for the enterprise, such as hardware, software, data, or people. This may not be a fair or effective way to identify the owner for each risk scenario, as the asset owners may have different levels of involvement or exposure to the risk, or may not have the authority or accountability to manage the risk.
Determining resource dependency of assets means that the risk practitioner analyzes the relationship and interdependence of the assets that are affected by or contribute to the risk. This may help to identify the potential impact or likelihood of the risk, but it does not directly help to identify the owner for each risk scenario, as the resource dependency may not reflect the authority or accountability to manage the risk. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3, Section 3.1.1.1, pp. 95-96.
A global company s business continuity plan (BCP) requires the transfer of its customer information….
event of a disaster. Which of the following should be the MOST important risk consideration?
The difference In the management practices between each company
The cloud computing environment is shared with another company
The lack of a service level agreement (SLA) in the vendor contract
The organizational culture differences between each country
The most important risk consideration when the global company’s business continuity plan (BCP) requires the transfer of its customer information to a cloud computing environment in the event of a disaster is that the cloud computing environment is shared with another company. A cloud computing environment is a service model that provides on-demand access to a shared pool of computing resources, such as servers, storage, networks, and applications. A shared cloud computing environment means that the same computing resources are used by multiple customers or tenants, and that the data and activities of one customer may affect or be affected by the data and activities of another customer. This may pose a significant risk to the security, privacy, and availability of the customer information, as it may be exposed, accessed, modified, or deleted by unauthorized or malicious parties. The other options are not as important as the cloud computing environment being shared with another company, as they are related to the differences, agreements, or cultures of the company or the country, not the environment or the platform of the customer information transfer. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: IT Risk Response, Section 3.3: IT Risk Response Implementation, page 145.
Which of the following scenarios represents a threat?
Connecting a laptop to a free, open, wireless access point (hotspot)
Visitors not signing in as per policy
Storing corporate data in unencrypted form on a laptop
A virus transmitted on a USB thumb drive
A virus transmitted on a USB thumb drive is a scenario that represents a threat, as it involves a malicious or harmful event that could compromise the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of an information system. A virus is a type of malware that can infect and damage files, programs, or devices by replicating itself and spreading to other systems or networks. A USB thumb drive is a portable storage device that can be used to transfer data between computers or devices. Avirus transmitted on a USB thumb drive can occur when a user inserts an infected USB thumb drive into a computer or device, or when a user downloads or copies an infected file from a USB thumb drive to a computer or device. A virus transmitted on a USB thumb drive can pose a serious risk to the information system, as it can corrupt or delete data, disrupt or degrade performance, steal or leak information, or allow unauthorized access or control.
The other options are not scenarios that represent a threat, but rather vulnerabilities or weaknesses that could increase the likelihood or impact of a threat. Connecting a laptop to a free, open, wireless access point (hotspot) is a vulnerability, as it exposes the laptop to potential eavesdropping, interception, or manipulation by malicious actors on the same network. Visitorsnot signing in as per policy is a vulnerability, as it creates a gap in the physical security and access control of the premises, and could allow unauthorized or malicious visitors to enter or access sensitive areas or assets. Storing corporate data in unencrypted form on a laptop is a vulnerability, as it reduces the protection and security of the data, and could enable unauthorized or malicious access, disclosure, or modification of the data in case of loss, theft, or compromise of the laptop. References = What is a Computer Virus? | McAfee, What is a USB Flash Drive? | Kingston Technology, Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Exploits – oh my!
Which of the following is a risk practitioner's BEST recommendation to help reduce IT risk associated with scheduling overruns when starting a new application development project?
Implement a tool to track the development team's deliverables.
Review the software development life cycle.
Involve the development team in planning.
Assign more developers to the project team.
Involve the development team in planning is the best recommendation to help reduce IT risk associated with scheduling overruns when starting a new application development project. This is because involving the development team in planning can help ensure that the project scope, requirements, resources, and timeline are realistic, feasible, and agreed upon by all stakeholders. It can also help improve the communication, collaboration, and commitment of the development team, as well as identify and mitigate potential risks and issues early in the project life cycle. According to the CRISC Review Manual 2022, one of the key risk identification techniques for IT projects is to involve the project team and other relevant parties in the risk assessment process1. According to the CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual 2022, involving the development team in planning is the correct answer to this question2.
Implementing a tool to track the development team’s deliverables, reviewing the software development life cycle, and assigning more developers to the project team are not the best recommendations to help reduce IT risk associated with scheduling overruns. These are possible actions that can be taken during or after the planning phase, but they do not address the root cause of the risk, which is the lack of involvement of the development team in planning. Implementing a tool to track the development team’s deliverables can help monitor the project progress and performance, but it does not guarantee that the deliverables are aligned with the project objectives and expectations. Reviewing the software development life cycle can help ensure that the project follows a structured and standardized process, but it does not account for the specific needs and challenges of the project. Assigning more developers to the project team can help increase the project capacity and productivity, but it can also introduce new risks such as coordination, communication, and quality issues.
The BEST way to mitigate the high cost of retrieving electronic evidence associated with potential litigation is to implement policies and procedures for:
data classification and labeling.
data logging and monitoring.
data retention and destruction.
data mining and analytics.
Which of the following is a risk practitioner's BEST course of action when a control is not meeting agreed-upon performance criteria?
Implement additional controls to further mitigate risk
Review performance results with the control owner
Redefine performance criteria based on control monitoring results
Recommend a tool to meet the performance requirements
The best approach is tocollaborate with the control ownerto understand root causes and determine next steps. This respects ownership and enables targeted, informed decision-making before implementing drastic changes.
A risk practitioner recently discovered that personal information from the production environment is required for testing purposes in non-production environments. Which of the following is the BEST recommendation to address this situation?
Enable data encryption in the test environment.
Prevent the use of production data in the test environment
De-identify data before being transferred to the test environment.
Enforce multi-factor authentication within the test environment.
The best recommendation to address the situation where personal information from the production environment is required for testing purposes in non-production environments is to de-identify data before being transferred to the test environment. De-identification is the process of removing or modifying any personally identifiable information (PII) or other sensitive data from the data sets, such as names, addresses, phone numbers, email addresses, etc., so that the data cannot be traced back to specific individuals. De-identification protects the privacy and confidentiality of the data, while still allowing for testing, analysis, or training purposes. Enabling data encryption, preventing the use of production data, and enforcing multi-factor authentication are also useful measures, but they do not eliminate the risk of data breaches or unauthorized access to PII. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.3.1, page 3-21.
Which of the following BEST enables an organization to determine whether external emerging risk factors will impact the organization's risk profile?
Control identification and mitigation
Adoption of a compliance-based approach
Prevention and detection techniques
Scenario analysis and stress testing
Scenario analysis and stress testing are the best methods to enable an organization to determine whether external emerging risk factors will impact the organization’s risk profile, as they help to simulate and evaluate the potential outcomes and effects of various risk events and scenarios on the enterprise’s objectives and operations. Scenario analysis and stress testing can help to identify and assess the impact of external emerging risk factors, such as changes in the market, technology, regulation, or environment, and to measure the resilience and preparedness oftheenterprise to cope with these factors. Control identification and mitigation, adoption of a compliance-based approach, and prevention and detection techniques are not the best methods to enable an organization to determine whether external emerging risk factors will impact the organization’s risk profile, as they do not help to simulate and evaluate the potential outcomes and effects of various risk events and scenarios, but rather to manage and monitor the existing or known risks. References = CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, question 223.
Which of the following is a risk practitioner's BEST course of action after identifying risk scenarios related to noncompliance with new industry regulations?
Escalate to senior management.
Transfer the risk.
Implement monitoring controls.
Recalculate the risk.
The risk practitioner’s best course of action after identifying risk scenarios related to noncompliance with new industry regulations is to escalate to senior management, as they have the authority and responsibility to decide on the appropriate risk response and allocate the necessary resources. Transferring the risk, implementing monitoring controls, and recalculating the risk are possible risk responses, but they require senior management approval and direction. References = Risk Scenarios Toolkit, page 19; CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 107.
Which of the following is the BEST way to determine the value of information assets for risk management purposes?
Assess the loss impact if the information is inadvertently disclosed
Calculate the overhead required to keep the information secure throughout its life cycle
Calculate the replacement cost of obtaining the information from alternate sources
Assess the market value offered by consumers of the information
The best way is toassess the loss impactif information is compromised. This aligns with ISACA’s risk management approach, which prioritizes the potential impact on business objectives and regulatory compliance when valuing information assets.
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Which of the following would MOST likely result in updates to an IT risk appetite statement?
External audit findings
Feedback from focus groups
Self-assessment reports
Changes in senior management
An IT risk appetite statement is a document that expresses the amount and type of IT risk that an organization is willing to accept or pursue in order to achieve its objectives. An IT risk appetite statement can help guide the IT risk management process, by setting the boundaries, criteria, andtargets for IT risk identification, assessment, response, and reporting. An IT risk appetite statement should be aligned with the organization’s overall risk appetite and strategy, and should be reviewed and updated periodically to reflect the changes in the internal and external environment. One of the factors that would most likely result in updates to an IT risk appetite statement is changes in senior management. Senior management is the group of executives who have the authority and responsibility for the strategic direction and performance of the organization. Changes in senior management can affect the IT risk appetite statement, as they may introduce new perspectives, priorities, expectations, or preferences for IT risk taking or avoidance. Changes in senior management can also affect the IT risk appetite statement, as they may require new or revised IT objectives, goals, or initiatives, which may entail different levelsor types of IT risk. Therefore, changes in senior management should trigger a review and update of the IT risk appetite statement, to ensure that it is consistent and compatible with the new leadership and direction of the organization. References = Organisations must define their IT risk appetite and tolerance, Risk Appetite Statements - Institute of Risk Management, Develop Your Technology Risk Appetite - Gartner.
Which of the following is the MOST effective way to help ensure an organization's current risk scenarios are relevant?
Adoption of industry best practices
Involvement of stakeholders in risk assessment
Review of risk scenarios by independent parties
Documentation of potential risk in business cases
The MOST effective way to help ensure an organization’s current risk scenarios are relevant is to involve the stakeholders in the risk assessment process, because they are the ones who have the knowledge, experience, and interest in the risk scenarios that affect their domains and objectives. The involvement of stakeholders can help to identify and validate the risk scenarios, to provide input and feedback on the risk analysis and evaluation, and to ensure the alignment andintegration of the risk scenarios with the business processes and goals. The other options are not as effective as the involvement of stakeholders, because:
Option A: Adoption of industry best practices is a good way to improve the quality and consistency of the risk scenarios, but it does not ensure their relevance to the organization’s specific context and environment. Industry best practices are general and standardized guidelines that may not reflect the organization’s unique risks and needs.
Option C: Review of risk scenarios by independent parties is a useful way to verify and enhance the accuracy and reliability of the risk scenarios, but it does not ensure their relevance to the organization’s internal and external stakeholders. Independent parties are objective and impartial reviewers who may not have the same knowledge, experience, and interest as the stakeholders.
Option D: Documentation of potential risk in business cases is a helpful way to communicate and justify the importance and value of the risk scenarios, but it does not ensure their relevance to the organization’s current and future state. Business cases are concise and persuasive documents that may not capture all the aspects and dimensions of the risk scenarios. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, ISACA, 2020, p. 104.
Which of the following is the MOST important reason for a risk practitioner to identify stakeholders for each IT risk scenario?
To ensure enterprise-wide risk management
To establish control ownership
To enable a comprehensive view of risk
To identify key risk indicators (KRIs)
Identifying stakeholders ensures that all perspectives are considered, contributing to a holistic view of risk and improving communication and response planning.
Which of the following management action will MOST likely change the likelihood rating of a risk scenario related to remote network access?
Updating the organizational policy for remote access
Creating metrics to track remote connections
Implementing multi-factor authentication
Updating remote desktop software
The management action that will most likely change the likelihood rating of a risk scenario related to remote network access is implementing multi-factor authentication. Multi-factor authentication is a technique that requires the user to provide two or more pieces of evidence to verify their identity, such as a password, a token, or a biometric factor. Multi-factor authentication can help to reduce the likelihood of unauthorized or malicious access to theremote network, as it adds an extra layer of security and makes it harder for the attackers to compromise the user credentials. The other options are not as likely to change the likelihood rating of the risk scenario, as they are related to the update, creation, or maintenance of the remote network access, not the verification or protection of the remote network access. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: IT Risk Response, Section 3.3: IT Risk Response Implementation, page 145.
Which of the following would MOST likely require a risk practitioner to update the risk register?
An alert being reported by the security operations center.
Development of a project schedule for implementing a risk response
Completion of a project for implementing a new control
Engagement of a third party to conduct a vulnerability scan
The completion of a project for implementing a new control would most likely require a risk practitioner to update the risk register. The risk register is a document that records the identified risks, their analysis, and their responses. The completion of a project for implementing a new control means that a risk response has been executed and a new control has been established. This may affect the likelihood and/or impact of the related risks, and the residual risk level. Therefore, the risk practitioner should update the risk register to reflect the current status and outcome of the risk response and the new control. The other options are not as likely to require a risk practitioner to update the risk register, as they are related to the reporting, planning, or assessment of the risks or the controls, not the implementation or completion of the risk response or the new control. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.4: IT Risk Response, page 87.
Which of the following outcomes of disaster recovery planning is MOST important to enable the initiation of necessary actions during a disaster?
Definition of disaster recovery plan (DRP) scope and key stakeholders
Recovery time and maximum acceptable data loss thresholds
A checklist including equipment, location of data backups, and backup sites
A list of business areas and critical functions subject to risk analysis
Defining recovery time objectives (RTOs) and acceptable data loss thresholds is critical for effective disaster response, ensuring recovery activities are aligned with business priorities. This supportsBusiness Continuity Planning.
Which of the following is the MOST important reason to communicate risk assessments to senior management?
To ensure actions can be taken to align assessment results to risk appetite
To ensure key risk indicator (KRI) thresholds can be adjusted for tolerance
To ensure awareness of risk and controls is shared with key decision makers
To ensure the maturity of the assessment program can be validated
Communicating risk assessments to senior management is crucial for ensuring that key decision-makers are aware of the organization's risk landscape. This awareness enables informed decision-making regarding risk responses, resource allocation, and strategic planning. It also fosters a risk-aware culture throughout the organization.
The BEST reason to classify IT assets during a risk assessment is to determine the:
priority in the risk register.
business process owner.
enterprise risk profile.
appropriate level of protection.
Classifying IT assets during a risk assessment is a process of assigning values to the IT assets based on their importance, sensitivity, and criticality to the enterprise. The best reason to classify IT assets is todetermine the appropriate level of protection that each IT asset requires, based on its value and the potential impact of its loss or compromise. This helps the enterprise to allocate resources and implement controls that are proportional to the risk exposure of the IT assets, and to optimize the cost and benefit of risk mitigation. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, Question 233. CRISC by Isaca Actual Free Exam Q&As, Question 9. CRISC Sample Questions 2024, Question 233. CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, Question 233.
Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of risk management?
Identify and analyze risk.
Achieve business objectives
Minimi2e business disruptions.
Identify threats and vulnerabilities.
The primary objective of risk management is to achieve business objectives, as risk management involves identifying, assessing, responding, and monitoring the risks that may affect the desired outcomes and performance of the organization, and aligning them with the risk tolerance and appetite of the organization. Identifying and analyzing risk, minimizing business disruptions, andidentifying threats and vulnerabilities are not the primary objectives, as they are more related to the process, outcome, or source of risk management, respectively, rather than the purpose or value of risk management. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 99.
Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of identifying appropriate risk owners?
Accountability is established for risk treatment decisions
Stakeholders are consulted about risk treatment options
Risk owners are informed of risk treatment options
Responsibility is established for risk treatment decisions.
The greatest benefit of identifying appropriate risk owners is that accountability is established for risk treatment decisions. Risk owners are the individuals or groups who are responsible and accountable formanaging a specific risk and its associated actions and outcomes. By identifying appropriate risk owners, the organization can ensure that the risk treatment decisions are made by the people who have the authority, knowledge, and interest in the risk. Stakeholders beingconsulted, risk owners being informed, and responsibility being established are other possible benefits, but they are not as great as accountability being established. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 8; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 97.
Which of the following would present the MOST significant risk to an organization when updating the incident response plan?
Obsolete response documentation
Increased stakeholder turnover
Failure to audit third-party providers
Undefined assignment of responsibility
The most significant risk to an organization when updating the incident response plan is the undefined assignment of responsibility. An incident response plan is a document that defines the roles, responsibilities, procedures, and resources for responding to an incident that could disrupt the normal operations of the organization, or compromise its assets, reputation, or compliance. An incident response plan should clearly assign the responsibility for each task and activity involved in the incident response process, such as detection, containment, analysis, eradication, recovery, and reporting. Undefined assignment of responsibility could lead to confusion, duplication, conflict, or omission among the stakeholders, and impair the effectiveness and efficiency of the incident response process. Undefined assignment of responsibility could also increase the risk of escalation, recurrence, or impact of the incident, and affect the accountability and performance of the organization. Obsolete response documentation, increased stakeholder turnover, and failure to audit third-party providers are also risks, but they are not as significant as undefined assignment of responsibility, as they do not directly affect the execution and outcome of the incident response process. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 130.
The PRIMARY reason to implement a formalized risk taxonomy is to:
reduce subjectivity in risk management.
comply with regulatory requirements.
demonstrate best industry practice.
improve visibility of overall risk exposure.
The primary reason to implement a formalized risk taxonomy is to reduce subjectivity in risk management, as it provides a common and consistent language and structure for identifying, classifying, and reporting risks, and facilitates the comparison and aggregation of risks across the organization. The other options are not the primary reasons, as they are more related to the outcomes, benefits, or drivers of risk management, respectively, rather than the reason for risk management. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 100.
Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of periodically reviewing an organization's risk profile?
Align business objectives with risk appetite.
Enable risk-based decision making.
Design and implement risk response action plans.
Update risk responses in the risk register
According to the CRISC Review Manual, the primary purpose of periodically reviewing an organization’s risk profile is to enable risk-based decision making, because it helps to ensure thatthe risk information is current, relevant, and accurate. The risk profile is a snapshot of the organization’s risk exposure at a given point in time, based on the risk identification, analysis, and evaluation processes. Periodically reviewing the risk profile allows the organization tomonitor the changes in the risk environment, the effectiveness of the risk responses, and the impact of the risk events. This enables the organization to make informed decisions about the risk management strategies and priorities. The other options are not the primary purpose of periodically reviewing the risk profile, as they are related to other aspects of the risk management process. Aligning business objectives with risk appetite is the purpose of establishing the risk context, which defines the scope and boundaries of the risk management activities. Designing and implementing risk response action plans is the purpose of the risk response process, which involves selecting and executing the appropriate risk responses. Updating risk responses in the risk register is the outcome of the risk monitoring and reporting process, which involves tracking the risk performance and communicating the risk information to the stakeholders. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.2.4, page 86.
Which of the following is the BEST recommendation to senior management when the results of a risk and control assessment indicate a risk scenario can only be partially mitigated?
Implement controls to bring the risk to a level within appetite and accept the residual risk.
Implement a key performance indicator (KPI) to monitor the existing control performance.
Accept the residual risk in its entirety and obtain executive management approval.
Separate the risk into multiple components and avoid the risk components that cannot be mitigated.
Implementing controls to bring the risk to a level within appetite and accept the residual risk is the best recommendation to senior management when the results of a risk and control assessment indicate a risk scenario can only be partially mitigated, as it helps to balance the costs and benefits of the risk management and control processes, and to align them with the organizational strategy and objectives. A risk and control assessment is a process of identifying, analyzing, and evaluating the risks and controls associated with a specific activity, process, or objective. A risk scenario is a description of a possible event or situation that could cause harm or loss to the organization or its stakeholders. A risk scenario can only be partially mitigated when the existing or proposed controls are not sufficient or effective to reduce the risk to an acceptable level. A risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. A residual risk is the risk that remains after the implementation of controls or risk treatments.
Implementing controls to bring the risk to a level within appetite and accept the residual risk helps to provide the following benefits:
It enables a data-driven and evidence-based approach to risk management and reporting, rather than relying on subjective or qualitative judgments.
It facilitates a consistent and standardized way of measuring and communicating risk levels and exposure across the organization and to the external stakeholders.
It supports the development and implementation of effective and efficient risk response and mitigation strategies and actions that are aligned with the business risk appetite and objectives.
It provides feedback and learning opportunities for the risk management and control processes, and helps to foster a culture of continuous improvement and innovation.
The other options are not the best recommendations to senior management when the results of a risk and control assessment indicate a risk scenario can only be partially mitigated. Implementing a key performance indicator (KPI) to monitor the existing control performance is a useful method to measure and monitor the effectiveness and efficiency of the controls, but it does not address the residual risk or the risk appetite. Accepting the residual risk in its entirety andobtaining executive management approval is a possible option to deal with the risk scenario, but it may expose the organization to excessive or unacceptable risk, and it may not comply with the legal or regulatory obligations or requirements. Separating the risk into multiple components and avoiding the risk components that cannot be mitigated is a possible option to deal with the risk scenario, but it may not be feasible or practical, and it may create new or additional risks or challenges. References = Risk and Control Self-Assessment (RCSA) - Management Study Guide, IT Risk Resources | ISACA, Risk Mitigation: What It Is and How to Implement It (Free Templates …
Which of the following changes would be reflected in an organization's risk profile after the failure of a critical patch implementation?
Risk appetite is decreased.
Inherent risk is increased.
Risk tolerance is decreased.
Residual risk is increased.
Residual risk is the level of risk that remains after applying controls or other risk treatments. A critical patch is a type of control that aims to reduce the risk of a known vulnerability being exploited by attackers. If the patch implementation fails, the control is ineffective and the risk is not reduced. Therefore, the residual risk is increased, as the organization is still exposed to the potential negative consequences of the vulnerability.
When a risk practitioner is determining a system's criticality. it is MOST helpful to review the associated:
process flow.
business impact analysis (BIA).
service level agreement (SLA).
system architecture.
The most helpful information to review when determining a system’s criticality is the associated business impact analysis (BIA). A BIA is a process of identifying and evaluating the potential effects of disruptions to the organization’s critical business functions and processes. A BIA can help to determine the system’s criticality by assessing its impact on the organization’s objectives, performance, and value. Process flow, service level agreement (SLA), and system architecture are other possible information sources, but they are not as helpful as the BIA. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 4; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 153.
The PRIMARY objective for selecting risk response options is to:
reduce risk 10 an acceptable level.
identify compensating controls.
minimize residual risk.
reduce risk factors.
The primary objective for selecting risk response options is to reduce risk to an acceptable level. Risk response options are the possible actions that can be taken to address the risks that have been identified and analyzed in the risk management process. Risk response options can be classified into four categories: avoid, transfer, mitigate, and accept for negative risks (or threats), and exploit, share, enhance, and accept for positive risks (or opportunities). The selection of the risk response options depends on various factors, such as the risk level, the risk appetite and tolerance, the cost and benefit, and the feasibility and availability of the options. The main goal of selecting the risk response options is to reduce the risk to a level that is acceptable to the organization, which means that the risk exposure is within the boundaries of the risk criteria and the risk appetite. The other options are not the primary objective for selecting risk response options, although they may be related or beneficial. Identifying compensating controls is a technique to implement additional or alternative controls when the existing controls are not effective or sufficient to reduce the risk to an acceptable level. Minimizing residual risk is a result of selecting and implementing the risk response options, but it is not the main purpose. Residual risk is the risk that remains after the risk response, and it may or may not be acceptable depending on the risk appetite and tolerance. Reducing risk factors is a method to decrease the likelihood or impact of the risk by addressing the root causes or sources of the risk. However,reducing risk factors does not necessarily mean that the risk is reduced to an acceptable level,as there may be other factors or uncertainties that affect the risk. References = CRISC Review Manual, pages 32-331; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, page 862
Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to have the risk management process reviewed by a third party?
Obtain objective assessment of the control environment.
Ensure the risk profile is defined and communicated.
Validate the threat management process.
Obtain an objective view of process gaps and systemic errors.
The risk management process is the systematic and continuous process of identifying, analyzing, evaluating, and treating the risks that may affect the organization’s objectives, operations, or assets1. The risk management process should be aligned with the organization’s overall risk management framework and strategy, and support the organization’s value creation and protection2.
Having the risk management process reviewed by a third party is a good practice that can provide various benefits for the organization, such as:
Enhancing the credibility and reliability of the risk management process and outcomes
Identifying and addressing any weaknesses, gaps, or errors in the risk management process and controls
Providing independent and objective feedback and recommendations for improving the risk management process and performance
Ensuring compliance with the relevant laws, regulations, and standards for risk management3
Among the four options given, the primary reason to have the risk management process reviewed by a third party is to obtain an objective view of process gaps and systemic errors. This means that the third party can help to:
Assess the adequacy and effectiveness of the risk management process and its alignment with the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance
Detect and report any inconsistencies, inefficiencies, or inaccuracies in the risk identification, analysis, evaluation, or treatment activities
Identify and prioritize the root causes and consequences of the process gaps and systemic errors, and their impact on the organization’s risk exposure and acceptance
Suggest and implement corrective or preventive actions that can resolve or mitigate the process gaps and systemic errors, and prevent their recurrence
References = Risk Management Process - ISO 31000, Enterprise Risk Management - Wikipedia, How to Select a Third-Party Risk Management Framework
Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of a disaster recovery plan (DRP)?
Number of users that participated in the DRP testing
Number of issues identified during DRP testing
Percentage of applications that met the RTO during DRP testing
Percentage of issues resolved as a result of DRP testing
A key performance indicator (KPI) is a measurable value that demonstrates how effectively an organization is achieving its objectives. In the context of disaster recovery planning (DRP), a KPI should reflect the ability of the organization to recover its critical business processes and applications within the predefined time frames and service levels. One of the most important KPIs for DRP is the percentage of applications that met the recovery time objective (RTO) during DRP testing. The RTO is the maximum acceptable length of time that a business process or application can be down after a disaster. By measuring the percentage of applications that met the RTO during DRP testing, the organization can evaluate the performance and reliability of its DRP, identify any gaps or weaknesses, and implement corrective actions to improve its readiness and resilience. The other options are not the best KPIs for DRP, as they do not directly measure the effectiveness of the recovery process. The number of users that participated in the DRP testing is a measure of the involvement and awareness of the staff, but not of the outcome of the testing. The number of issues identified during DRP testing is a measure of the quality and completeness of the DRP, but not of the actual recovery time. The percentage of issues resolved as a result of DRP testing is a measure of the improvement and maturity of the DRP, but not of the current recovery capability. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3, Section 3.2.3.3, Page 138.
In an organization where each division manages risk independently, which of the following would BEST enable management of risk at the enterprise level?
A standardized risk taxonomy
A list of control deficiencies
An enterprise risk ownership policy
An updated risk tolerance metric
A standardized risk taxonomy is a common language and structure for identifying, analyzing, and reporting risks across the enterprise. It enables consistent and comparable risk assessment and aggregation, as well as clear communication and coordination among different divisions. A list of control deficiencies, an enterprise risk ownership policy, and an updated risk tolerance metric are not sufficient to enable management of risk at the enterprise level, as they do not address the issue of risk alignment and integration among divisions. References = [CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version)], page 42; CRISC by Isaca Actual Free Exam Q&As, question 197.
The BEST key performance indicator (KPI) for monitoring adherence to an organization's user accounts provisioning practices is the percentage of:
accounts without documented approval
user accounts with default passwords
active accounts belonging to former personnel
accounts with dormant activity.
User accounts provisioning is the process of creating, managing, and modifying user accounts within a system or an application, based on the user’s roles, responsibilities, and requirements. User accounts provisioning is an essential part of identity and access management (IAM), which aims to ensure the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the system or the application, and the information or resources that it handles or supports1.
The best key performance indicator (KPI) for monitoring adherence to an organization’s user accounts provisioning practices is the percentage of accounts without documented approval, because it can help to measure how well the organization follows the policies, standards, and procedures for user accounts provisioning, and how effectively the organization controls andaudits the user accounts provisioning activities. The percentage of accounts without documented approval can indicate:
The level of compliance and accountability of the user accounts provisioning process, and the extent to which the user accounts provisioning requests and actions are authorized and verified by the appropriate parties, such as managers, IT staff, or security officers
The level of risk and exposure of the user accounts provisioning process, and the likelihood and impact of unauthorized or inappropriate user accounts provisioning, such as granting excessive or unnecessary access privileges, creating duplicate or fraudulent accounts, or violating legal or regulatory requirements
The level of quality and efficiency of the user accounts provisioning process, and the ability and capacity of the organization to manage and maintain the user accounts provisioning records and documents, such as forms, logs, or reports23
The other options are not the best KPIs for monitoring adherence to an organization’s user accounts provisioning practices, but rather some of the factors or outcomes of it. User accountswith default passwords are user accounts that have not changed their passwords from the initial or default values that are assigned by the system or the application. User accounts with default passwords are a factor that can increase the risk of unauthorized or malicious access to the system or the application, as the default passwords may be easily guessed or compromised by attackers. Active accounts belonging to former personnel are user accounts that have not been deactivated or deleted after the users have left the organization. Active accounts belonging to former personnel are an outcome of ineffective or inefficient user accounts deprovisioning, which is the process of revoking or removing the user accounts and access privileges when they are no longer needed or valid. Accounts with dormant activity are user accounts that have not been used or accessed for a long period of time. Accounts with dormant activity are an outcome of poor or inconsistent user accounts management, which is the process of updating or modifying the user accounts and access privileges according to the changes or needs of the users or the organization4. References =
User Provisioning for SaaS Apps: Top 10 Best Practices | Resmo
Top Identity and Access Management Metrics
KPI-driven approach to Identity & Access Management - Elimity
[CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition]
In addition to the risk register, what should a risk practitioner review to develop an understanding of the organization's risk profile?
The control catalog
The asset profile
Business objectives
Key risk indicators (KRls)
In addition to the risk register, which is a tool to document and monitor the risks that affect the organization, a risk practitioner should review the business objectives of the organization to develop an understanding of its risk profile. The risk profile is a description of the set of risks that the organization faces in relation to its goals and strategies. By reviewing the business objectives, the risk practitioner can identify the sources, drivers, and consequences of the risks, as well as the alignment, prioritization, and tolerance of the risks. The business objectives also provide the context and criteria for evaluating and managing the risks. The other options are not the best choices to review for developing an understandingof the organization’s risk profile, as they do not capture the full scope and nature of the risks. The control catalog is a list of the existing controls that are implemented to mitigate the risks, but it does not reflect the effectiveness, efficiency, or sufficiency of the controls. The asset profile is a description of the resources and capabilities that the organization possesses or relies on, but it does not indicate the value, vulnerability, or interdependency of the assets. The key risk indicators (KRIs) are metrics that measure the level and trend of the risks, but they do not explain the causes, impacts, orresponses to the risks. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.1.2, Page 49.
Senior management has asked a risk practitioner to develop technical risk scenarios related to a recently developed enterprise resource planning (ERP) system. These scenarios will be owned by the system manager. Which of the following would be the BEST method to use when developing the scenarios?
Cause-and-effect diagram
Delphi technique
Bottom-up approach
Top-down approach
A cause-and-effect diagram, also known as a fishbone diagram or an Ishikawa diagram, is a graphical tool that helps to identify and analyze the potential causes and effects of a problem or an event. A cause-and-effect diagram can be used to develop technical risk scenarios related to a recently developed ERP system, because it can help to:
Break down the complex problem or event into manageable and measurable categories and subcategories of causes and effects
Visualize the relationships and interactions among the various factors that contribute to the problem or event
Identify the root causes and the most significant effects of the problem or event
Generate ideas and hypotheses for testing and validating the problem or event
Communicate and present the problem or event clearly and logically to the stakeholders1
A cause-and-effect diagram can be constructed by following these steps:
Define the problem or event and write it in a box on the right side of the diagram
Draw a horizontal line from the box to the left side of the diagram, representing the main spine of the fishbone
Identify the major categories of causes that affect the problem or event, such as people, process, technology, environment, etc., and write them on the branches of the spine
For each category, brainstorm and list the possible subcategories and specific causes that influence the problem or event, and write them on the sub-branches of the spine
For each cause, identify and list the possible effects or consequences that result from the problem or event, and write them on the sub-sub-branches of the spine
Analyze the diagram and prioritize the causes and effects based on their frequency, severity, and controllability
Develop technical risk scenarios based on the most critical causes and effects, and describe how they could affect the ERP system and the organization1
Which of the following would be a risk practitioner’s BEST recommendation upon learning of an updated cybersecurity regulation that could impact the organization?
Perform a gap analysis
Conduct system testing
Implement compensating controls
Update security policies
Performing a gap analysis is the best recommendation for a risk practitioner upon learning of an updated cybersecurity regulation that could impact the organization. A gap analysis can help identify the current state of compliance, the desired state of compliance, and the actions needed to achieve compliance. Conducting system testing, implementing compensating controls, and updating security policies are possible actions that may result from the gap analysis, but they arenot the best initial recommendation. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 1; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 143.
After an annual risk assessment is completed, which of the following would be MOST important to communicate to stakeholders?
A decrease in threats
A change in the risk profile
An increase in reported vulnerabilities
An increase in identified risk scenarios
A change in the risk profile would be the most important information to communicate to stakeholders after an annual risk assessment is completed, as it indicates how the risk landscape of the organization has changed over time, and how it affects the achievement of the business goals and objectives. A decrease in threats, an increase in reported vulnerabilities, and an increase in identified risk scenarios are also important information, but they are not the most important, as they are specific aspects of the risk profile, and do not provide a holistic view of the risk exposure and appetite of the organization. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 109.
Which of the following practices would be MOST effective in protecting personality identifiable information (Ptl) from unauthorized access m a cloud environment?
Apply data classification policy
Utilize encryption with logical access controls
Require logical separation of company data
Obtain the right to audit
The most effective practice in protecting personally identifiable information (PII) from unauthorized access in a cloud environment is to utilize encryption with logical access controls. Encryption is a technique that transforms the data into an unreadable or unintelligible form, making it inaccessible or unusable by unauthorized parties. Logical access controls are the mechanisms or rules that regulate who can access, view, modify, or delete the data, based on their identity, role, or privilege. By utilizing encryption with logical access controls, the PII can be protected from unauthorized access, disclosure, or theft, both in transit and at rest, in a cloud environment. The other options are not as effective as utilizing encryption with logical access controls, as they are related to the classification, separation, or audit of the data, not the protection or security of the data. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: IT Risk Response, Section 3.3: IT Risk Response Implementation, page 145.
Which of the following is the MOST important factor to consider when determining whether to approve a policy exception request?
Volume of exceptions
Lack of technical resources
Cost of noncompliance
Time required to implement controls
Noncompliance cost reflects the impact or penalties from deviating from policies. Per ISACA governance best practices, exceptions should only be granted when this cost is understood and deemed acceptable relative to business needs.
What is the MAIN benefit of using a top-down approach to develop risk scenarios?
It describes risk events specific to technology used by the enterprise.
It establishes the relationship between risk events and organizational objectives.
It uses hypothetical and generic risk events specific to the enterprise.
It helps management and the risk practitioner to refine risk scenarios.
The main benefit of using a top-down approach to develop risk scenarios is that it establishes the relationship between risk events and organizational objectives. A top-down approach is a method of risk identification and analysis that starts with the organization’s strategic objectives and then identifies the potential risk events that could affect or prevent the achievement of those objectives. A top-down approach helps to establish the relationship between risk events and organizational objectives, because it links the risk scenarios to the organization’s mission, vision, values, and strategy, and it prioritizes the risk scenarios based on their impact and relevance to the organization’s objectives. A top-down approach also helps to align and communicate the risk scenarios with the organization’s stakeholders, such as the board, management, and business units, and to facilitate the risk response and monitoring activities. The other options are not the main benefit of using a top-down approach, although they may be part of or derived from the top-down approach. Describing risk events specific to technology used by the enterprise, using hypothetical and generic risk events specific to the enterprise, and helping management and the risk practitioner to refine risk scenarios are all activities or outcomes that could be performed or achieved by using a top-down approach, but they are not the primary purpose or result of the top-down approach. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.1, page 4-13.
Which of the following BEST helps to identify significant events that could impact an organization?
Vulnerability analysis
Control analysis
Scenario analysis
Heat map analysis
Scenario analysis is a technique that helps to identify significant events that could impact an organization by creating and exploring plausible alternative futures. Scenario analysis can help anticipate and prepare for potential changes, opportunities, or threats in the internal or external environment, such as technological, economic, social, political, legal, or environmental factors.Scenario analysis can also help evaluate the impact and likelihood of different risk scenarios, and test the effectiveness and robustness of various risk response strategies. Scenario analysis can provide a comprehensive and holistic view of risks and their interrelationships, and support the decision making and planning process for risk management. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1: IT Risk Identification, Section 1.4: IT Risk Scenarios, p. 49-50.
Which of the following will BEST help in communicating strategic risk priorities?
Heat map
Business impact analysis (BIA)
Balanced Scorecard
Risk register
The best tool for communicating strategic risk priorities is a heat map. A heat map is a graphical representation of the risk profile of an enterprise, showing the likelihood and impact of various risks on a matrix. A heat map can help to highlight the most significant risks that require attention, as well as the risk appetite and tolerance levels of the enterprise. A heat map can also facilitate the comparison of risks across different business units, processes, or objectives, and enable the communication of risk information to stakeholders in a clear and concise manner. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 5, Section 5.3.1, page 240.
A risk practitioner discovers several key documents detailing the design of a product currently in development have been posted on the Internet. What should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action?
invoke the established incident response plan.
Inform internal audit.
Perform a root cause analysis
Conduct an immediate risk assessment
According to the CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), the first course of action when a risk practitioner discovers several key documents detailing the design of a product currently in development have been posted on the Internet is to invoke the established incident response plan, which is a set of policies, procedures, and resources that enable the organization to respond to and recover from an incident that affects the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of its IT assets and processes. Invoking the incident response plan helps to:
Contain and isolate the incident and prevent further damage or loss
Identify and analyze the source, cause, and impact of the incident
Eradicate and eliminate the incident and restore normal operations
Communicate and coordinate the incident response activities and roles with the relevant stakeholders, such as the business owner, the risk owner, the senior management, and the external parties
Learn and improve from the incident and update the incident response plan and the risk register
References = CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 4: IT Risk Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.1: IT Risk Monitoring, pp. 219-2201
The PRIMARY benefit associated with key risk indicators (KRls) is that they:
help an organization identify emerging threats.
benchmark the organization's risk profile.
identify trends in the organization's vulnerabilities.
enable ongoing monitoring of emerging risk.
Key risk indicators (KRIs) are metrics that provide information on the level of exposure to a given risk. They enable ongoing monitoring of emerging risk by alerting the organization when the risk level exceeds thepredefined threshold or tolerance. By using KRIs, the organization can track the changes in the risk environment and take timely and appropriate actions to mitigate or avoid the risk.
Helping an organization identify emerging threats, benchmarking the organization’s risk profile, and identifying trends in the organization’s vulnerabilities are all possible uses of KRIs, but they are not the primary benefit. The primary benefit is to enable ongoing monitoring of emerging risk, which encompasses all these aspects and more. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, ISACA, 2020, page 27-281
Which of the following would MOST likely drive the need to review and update key performance indicators (KPIs) for critical IT assets?
The outsourcing of related IT processes
Outcomes of periodic risk assessments
Changes in service level objectives
Findings from continuous monitoring
Key performance indicators (KPIs) are metrics used to measure and evaluate the achievement of the organization’s objectives and strategies1. KPIs for critical IT assets are KPIs that focus onthe performance and value of the IT assets that are essential for the organization’s operations and functions2. KPIs for critical IT assets may include metrics such as availability, reliability, utilization, cost, and security of the IT assets3. The need to review and update KPIs for critical IT assets may be driven by various factors, such as changes in the business environment, customer expectations, or regulatory requirements. However, the most likely factor that would drive the need to review and update KPIs for critical IT assets is the outcomes of periodic risk assessments. A risk assessment is a process that involves identifying, analyzing, and evaluating the risks and their potential impacts on the organization’s objectives and performance4. A periodic risk assessment is a risk assessment that is performed at regular intervals, such as monthly, quarterly, or annually, to capture the changes and updates in the risk environment and the risk profile5. The outcomes of periodic risk assessments would most likely drive the need to review and update KPIs for critical IT assets, as they would provide insights into the current and emerging risks that may affect the performance and value of the critical IT assets, as well as the effectiveness and efficiency of the existingand planned controls and responses. By reviewing and updating the KPIs for critical IT assets based on the outcomes of periodic risk assessments, the organization can ensure that the KPIs are relevant, realistic, and aligned with the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance, and that they provide accurate and timely information for decision making and reporting. The outsourcing of related IT processes, changes in service level objectives, and findings from continuous monitoring are not the most likely factors that would drive the need to review and update KPIs for critical IT assets, as they do not provide the same level of information and impact as the outcomes of periodic risk assessments. The outsourcing of related IT processes is a decision that involves transferring some or all of the IT processes that support or enable the critical IT assets to an external service provider. The outsourcing of related IT processes may affect the performance and value of the critical IT assets, but it does not necessarily require a review and update of the KPIs for critical IT assets, as the KPIs may still be valid and applicable for the outsourced IT processes. Changes in service level objectives are changes in the expected or agreed level of quality or performance of the IT services that support or enable the critical IT assets. Changes in service level objectives may affect the performance and value of the critical IT assets, but they do not necessarily require a review and update of theKPIs for critical IT assets, as the KPIs may still be consistent and compatible with the changed service level objectives. Findings from continuous monitoring are the results or outcomes of the ongoing observation and measurement of the performance and compliance of the IT processes and systems that support or enable the critical IT assets. Findings from continuous monitoring may affect the performance and value of the critical IT assets, but they do not necessarily require a review and update of the KPIs for critical IT assets, as the KPIs may still be relevant and reliable for the continuously monitored IT processes and systems. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.2: Risk Monitoring, pp. 189-191.
An organization recently implemented an extensive risk awareness program after a cybersecurity incident. Which of the following is MOST likely to be affected by the implementation of the program?
Inherent risk
Risk appetite
Threat landscape
Residual risk
Residual risk is the level of risk remaining after controls and mitigation are applied. An effective awareness program reduces the likelihood of incidents (e.g., phishing, human error), thereby lowering residual risk. Inherent risk remains unchanged, as it is independent of controls.
Which of the following provides a risk practitioner with the MOST reliable evidence of a third party's ability to protect the confidentiality of sensitive corporate information?
A signed nondisclosure agreement (NDA)
Control self-assessment (CSA) results
External audit reports
Internal audit reports
External audit reports are independent and objective, typically conducted under standard frameworks (e.g., SOC 2). They assess the third party’s controls in a structured and verifiable manner, offering the highest assurance of confidentiality protections.
Which of the following process controls BEST mitigates the risk of an employee issuing fraudulent payments to a vendor?
Performing credit verification of third-party vendors prior to payment
Conducting system access reviews to ensure least privilege and appropriate access
Performing regular reconciliation of payments to the check registers
Enforcing segregation of duties between the vendor master file and invoicing
Enforcing segregation of duties between the vendor master file and invoicing is the best process control to mitigate the risk of an employee issuing fraudulent payments to a vendor. This is because segregation of duties is a key internal control that prevents or detects errors, fraud, orabuse by ensuring that no single person can perform incompatible or conflicting tasks. The vendor master file is a database that contains the information and settings for each vendor, such as name, address, bank account, payment terms, etc. Invoicing is the process of generating and sending bills to the vendors for the goods or services they provide. If the same person can access and modify the vendor master file and issue invoices, he or she could create fictitious vendors, alter vendor information, or generate false or duplicate invoices, and then divert the payments to his or her own account. By segregating these duties, the organization can reduce the opportunity and likelihood of such fraudulent activities. According to the CRISC Review Manual 2022, segregation of duties is one of the key IT control objectives and practices1. According to the web search results, segregation of duties between the vendor master file and invoicing is a common and recommended control to prevent vendor fraud
Which of the following is MOST important to the integrity of a security log?
Least privilege access
Inability to edit
Ability to overwrite
Encryption
A security log is a record of security-related events or activities that occur in an IT system, network, or application, such as user authentication, access control, firewall activity, or intrusion detection1. Security logscan help to monitor and audit the security posture and performance of the IT environment, and to detect and investigate any security incidents, breaches, or anomalies2.
The integrity of a security log refers to the accuracy and completeness of the log data, and the assurance that the log data has not been modified, deleted, or tampered with by unauthorized or malicious parties3. The integrity of a security log is essential for ensuring the reliability and validity of the log analysis and reporting, and for providing evidence and accountability for security incidents and compliance4.
Among the four options given, the most important factor to the integrity of a security log is the inability to edit. This means that the security log data should be protected from any unauthorized or accidental changes or alterations, such as adding, deleting, or modifying log entries, or changing the log format or timestamps5. The inability to edit can be achieved by implementing various controls and measures, such as:
Applying digital signatures or hashes to the log data to verify its authenticity and integrity
Encrypting the log data to prevent unauthorized access or disclosure
Implementing least privilege access to the log data to restrict who can view, modify, or delete the log data
Using write-once media or devices to store the log data, such as CD-ROMs or WORM drives
Sending the log data to a secure and centralized log server or repository, and using syslog or other protocols to ensure secure and reliable log transmission
Performing regular backups and archiving of the log data to prevent data loss or corruption
References = Security Log: Best Practices for Logging and Management, Security Audit Logging Guideline, Confidentiality, Integrity, & Availability: Basics of Information Security, Steps for preserving the integrity of log data, Guide to Computer Security Log Management
Which of the following should be the MOST important consideration when determining controls necessary for a highly critical information system?
The number of threats to the system
The organization's available budget
The number of vulnerabilities to the system
The level of acceptable risk to the organization
Determining Controls:
Acceptable Risk Level: The level of acceptable risk to the organization is the most important consideration because it directly influences the type and extent of controls implemented. Controls must be designed to keep risk within acceptable levels.
Risk Management Strategy: Aligning controls with the organization's risk appetite ensures that resources are used effectively and that critical information systems are adequately protected.
Comparison with Other Options:
Number of Threats: Important for understanding risk exposure but secondary to determining acceptable risk levels.
Available Budget: Budget constraints are important but should not compromise the implementation of necessary controls.
Number of Vulnerabilities: Identifying vulnerabilities is part of the risk assessment process, but controls are prioritized based on the acceptable risk level.
Best Practices:
Risk Assessment: Conduct thorough risk assessments to understand the potential impact of threats and vulnerabilities.
Control Effectiveness: Implement controls that are both cost-effective and capable of reducing risk to acceptable levels.
Continuous Monitoring: Regularly monitor and review controls to ensure they remain effective and aligned with the organization's risk tolerance.
Which of the following is the GREATEST advantage of implementing a risk management program?
Enabling risk-aware decisions
Promoting a risk-aware culture
Improving security governance
Reducing residual risk
A risk management program is a systematic and structured approach to identify, analyze, evaluate, treat, monitor, and communicate the risks that may affect the organization’s objectives and performance.
The greatest advantage of implementing a risk management program is enabling risk-aware decisions. This means that the organization incorporates the risk information and analysis into its decision making process, such as strategic planning, resource allocation, project management, etc.
Enabling risk-aware decisions helps to optimize the outcomes and benefits of the decisions, balance the opportunities and threats of the decisions, and align the decisions with the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance.
The other options are not the greatest advantages of implementing a risk management program. They are either secondary or not essential for risk management.
The references for this answer are:
Risk IT Framework, page 25
Information Technology & Security, page 19
Risk Scenarios Starter Pack, page 17
Which group has PRIMARY ownership of reputational risk stemming from unethical behavior within the organization?
Board of directors
Human resources (HR)
Risk management committee
Audit committee
The group that has primary ownership of reputational risk stemming from unethical behavior within the organization is A. Board of directors. According to the CFA Institute, the board of directors is responsible for setting the tone at the top and ensuring that the company adheres to high ethical standards and values. The board of directors also oversees the company’s culture, governance, and risk management practices, and holds the management accountable for any misconduct or breach of trust1 The board of directors may delegate some of its oversight functions to other committees, such as the human resources, risk management, or audit committee, but ultimately, the board of directors bears the ultimate responsibility for the company’s reputation and integrity
A global organization is considering the acquisition of a competitor. Senior management has requested a review of the overall risk profile from the targeted organization. Which of the following components of this review would provide the MOST useful information?
Risk appetite statement
Enterprise risk management framework
Risk management policies
Risk register
According to the CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), the risk register is the most useful component of the review of the overall risk profile from the targeted organization, as it providesa comprehensive and up-to-date record of the identified risks, their likelihood and impact, their risk response actions, and their residual risk levels. The risk register helps to:
Understand the current and potential threats and vulnerabilities that may affect the targeted organization’s objectives and performance
Evaluate the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk management processes and controls implemented by the targeted organization
Identify the gaps or weaknesses in the risk management practices and capabilities of the targeted organization
Assess the compatibility and alignment of the risk appetite and risk tolerance of the targeted organization with the acquiring organization
Estimate the value and benefits of the acquisition and the potential risks and costs involved
References = CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 1: IT Risk Identification, Section 1.5: IT Risk Identification Methods and Techniques, pp. 38-391
Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure how effectively risk management practices are embedded in the project management office (PMO)?
Percentage of projects with key risk accepted by the project steering committee
Reduction in risk policy noncompliance findings
Percentage of projects with developed controls on scope creep
Reduction in audits involving external risk consultants
The percentage of projects with developed controls on scope creep is the best key performance indicator (KPI) to measure how effectively risk management practices are embedded in the project management office (PMO), as it reflects the ability of the PMO to identify, assess, and respond to the risk of project scope changes that may affect the project objectives, budget, and schedule. The other options are not the best KPIs, as they do not directly measure the effectiveness of risk management practices in the PMO, but rather the outcomes or consequences of risk management decisions. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 110.
The PRIMARY reason for prioritizing risk scenarios is to:
provide an enterprise-wide view of risk
support risk response tracking
assign risk ownership
facilitate risk response decisions.
The primary reason for prioritizing risk scenarios is to facilitate risk response decisions. Risk scenarios are hypothetical situations that describe the possible causes, events, and consequences of a risk. Prioritizing risk scenarios is the process of ranking the risk scenarios according to their level of importance, urgency, or impact. Prioritizing risk scenarios helps to facilitate risk response decisions, which are the choices made to address the risks, such as avoiding, transferring, mitigating, or accepting the risks. Prioritizing risk scenarios helps to allocate the resources and efforts to the most significant or critical risk scenarios, and to select the most appropriate and effective risk responses. Prioritizing risk scenarios also helps to communicate and justify the risk response decisions to the stakeholders, and to monitor and report the risk status and performance. Providing an enterprise-wide view of risk, supporting risk response tracking, and assigning risk ownership are not the primary reasons for prioritizing risk scenarios, as they are either theinputs or the outputs of the risk prioritization process, and they do not address the primary need of responding to the risks. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 50.
A service provider is managing a client’s servers. During an audit of the service, a noncompliant control is discovered that will not be resolved before the next audit because the client cannot afford the downtime required to correct the issue. The service provider’s MOST appropriate action would be to:
develop a risk remediation plan overriding the client's decision
make a note for this item in the next audit explaining the situation
insist that the remediation occur for the benefit of other customers
ask the client to document the formal risk acceptance for the provider
A noncompliant control is a control that does not meet the requirements or standards of an audit, regulation, or policy. A noncompliant control can expose the organization to risks such as errors, fraud, or breaches. When a noncompliant control is identified, the service provider and the client should work together to resolve the issue as soon as possible. However, sometimes the resolution may not be feasible or cost-effective, and the client may decide to accept the risk associated with the noncompliant control.
In this case, the service provider’s most appropriate action would be to ask the client to document the formal risk acceptance for the provider. This means that the client should acknowledge the existence and consequences of the noncompliant control, and provide a written justification for accepting the risk. The risk acceptance document should also specify the roles and responsibilities of the service provider and the client, and the duration and conditions of the risk acceptance. The risk acceptance document should be signed by the client’s senior management and the service provider’s management, and kept as part of the audit evidence.
The other options are not appropriate actions for the service provider. Developing a risk remediation plan overriding the client’s decision would be disrespectful and unprofessional, as it would ignore the client’s authority and preference. Making a note for this item in the next audit explaining the situation would be insufficient and misleading, as it would imply that the issue is still unresolved and that the service provider is responsible for it. Insisting that the remediation occur for the benefit of other customers would be unreasonable and impractical, as it woulddisregard the client’s business needs and constraints, and potentially harm the relationship between the service provider and the client. References =
Risk Acceptance - Institute of Internal Auditors
New Guidance on the Evaluation of Non-compliance with the Risk Assessment Standard and its Peer Review Impact - REVISED
The Impact of Non-compliance: Understanding The Risks And Consequences
Who is BEST suited to determine whether a new control properly mitigates data loss risk within a system?
Data owner
Control owner
Risk owner
System owner
The control owner is the person who is responsible for designing, implementing, monitoring, and maintaining a control. The control owner is best suited to determine whether a new control properly mitigates data loss risk within a system, as they have the most knowledge and authority over the control. The control owner should also evaluate the effectiveness and efficiency of the control and report any issues or gaps to the risk owner.
The other options are not the best suited to determine whether a new control properly mitigates data loss risk within a system. The data owner is the person who has the accountability and authority over the data and its classification. The data owner may not have the technical expertise or access to evaluate the new control. The risk owner is the person who has the accountability and authority to manage a specific risk. The risk owner may not have the detailed knowledge orinvolvement in the new control. The system owner is the person who has the accountability and authority over the system and its operation. The system owner may not have the direct responsibility or oversight of the new control. References = CRISC TOPIC 3 EXAM SHORT Flashcards, CRISC-1-50 topic3 Flashcards, CRISC Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control – Question609
Which of the following would be a risk practitioner's BEST course of action when a project team has accepted a risk outside the established risk appetite?
Reject the risk acceptance and require mitigating controls.
Monitor the residual risk level of the accepted risk.
Escalate the risk decision to the project sponsor for review.
Document the risk decision in the project risk register.
Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. Risk appetite can be expressed in qualitative or quantitative terms, and can vary depending on the context and the stakeholder. Risk appetite should be defined and communicated by the senior management or the board of directors, and should guide the risk management decisions and actions throughout the organization. When a project team has accepted a risk outside the established risk appetite, the risk practitioner’s best course of action is to escalate the risk decision to the project sponsor for review, meaning that the risk practitioner should report the risk acceptance and its rationale to the project sponsor, who is the person or group that provides the resources and support for the project, and is accountable for its success. The project sponsor should review the risk decision and determine whether it is aligned with the organization’s objectives and strategy, and whether it requires any further approval oraction. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1, Section 1.3.1, p. 25-26
Which of the following is the MOST effective control to ensure user access is maintained on a least-privilege basis?
User authorization
User recertification
Change log review
Access log monitoring
User recertification is the most effective control to ensure user access is maintained on a least-privilege basis, as it involves a periodic review and validation of user access rights and privileges by the appropriate authority. User recertification helps to identify and remove any unnecessary, excessive, or obsolete access rights and privileges that may pose a security risk or violate the principle of least privilege. User recertification also helps to ensure that user access rights and privileges are aligned with the current business needs, roles, and responsibilities of the users.
The other options are not the most effective controls to ensure user access is maintained on a least-privilege basis. User authorization is the process of granting or denying access rights and privileges to users based on their identity, role, and credentials, but it does not verify or update the existing access rights and privileges of the users. Change log review is the process of examining and analyzing the records of changes made to the system, configuration, or data, but it does not directly address the user access rights and privileges. Access log monitoring is the process of tracking and auditing the user activities and actions on the system or network, but it does not validate or modify the user access rights and privileges. References = What Is the Principle of Least Privilege and Why is it Important?, Principle of Least Privilege: Definition, Methods & Examples, IT Risk Resources | ISACA
Which of the following is the MOST important factor affecting risk management in an organization?
The risk manager's expertise
Regulatory requirements
Board of directors' expertise
The organization's culture
According to the CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), the organization’s culture is the most important factor affecting risk management in an organization, as it influences the riskawareness, risk attitude, risk behavior and risk communication of all stakeholders. The organization’s culture is defined as the shared values, beliefs, norms and expectations that guide the actions and interactions of the members of the organization. The organization’s culture affects how risk management is perceived, supported, implemented and integrated within the organization. A strong risk culture is one that:
Aligns with the organization’s vision, mission, strategy and objectives
Promotes a common understanding of risk and its implications for the organization
Encourages the identification, assessment, response and monitoring of risks at all levels
Fosters a proactive, collaborative and transparent approach to risk management
Empowers and rewards the stakeholders for taking ownership and accountability of risks
Enables continuous learning and improvement of risk management capabilities and maturity
References = CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 1: IT Risk Identification, Section 1.3: IT Risk Culture, pp. 23-251
Which of the following is MOST helpful to ensure effective security controls for a cloud service provider?
A control self-assessment
A third-party security assessment report
Internal audit reports from the vendor
Service level agreement monitoring
A third-party security assessment report is the most helpful to ensure effective security controls for a cloud service provider, because it provides an independent and objective evaluation of the cloud provider’s security posture, policies, and practices. A third-party security assessment report can help to verify and validate the cloud provider’s compliance with the relevant standards, regulations, and best practices, such as ISO 27001, PCI DSS, NIST, or CSA. A third-party security assessment report can also help to identify and address any gaps, weaknesses, or vulnerabilities in the cloud provider’s security controls, and to provide recommendations and guidance for improvement. A third-party security assessment report can also help to increase the trust and confidence of the cloud customers, and to facilitate the due diligence and risk management processes. The other options are less helpful to ensure effective security controls for a cloud service provider. A control self-assessment is a process that enables the cloud provider to assess its own security controls, using a predefined framework or questionnaire. However, a control self-assessment may not be as reliable or comprehensive as a third-party security assessment report, as it may be biased, incomplete, or inaccurate, and it may not cover all the aspects or dimensions of security. Internal audit reports from the vendor are documents that provide the results and findings of the internal audits conducted by the cloud provider’s ownauditors, to verify and validate the effectiveness and efficiency of the securitycontrols. However, internal audit reports from the vendor may not be as credible or trustworthy as a third-party security assessment report, as they may be influenced by the cloud provider’s interests, objectives, or agenda, and they may not follow the same standards or criteria as the external auditors. Service level agreement monitoring is a process that measures and evaluates the performance and availability of the cloud services, based on the predefined metrics and targets agreed between the cloud provider and the cloud customer. However, service level agreement monitoring may not be sufficient or relevant to ensure effective security controls for a cloud service provider, as it may not address the security aspects or requirements of the cloud services, such as confidentiality, integrity, or accountability, and it may not reflect the actual security risks or incidents that may occur in the cloud environment. References = Cloud Security Controls: Key Elements and 4 Control Frameworks 1
A change management process has recently been updated with new testing procedures. What is the NEXT course of action?
Monitor processes to ensure recent updates are being followed.
Communicate to those who test and promote changes.
Conduct a cost-benefit analysis to justify the cost of the control.
Assess the maturity of the change management process.
A change management process is a set of procedures and activities that ensure that any changes to the IT systems or applications are planned, approved, tested, implemented, and documented in a consistent and controlled manner.
A change management process has recently been updated with new testing procedures. This means that the process has been improved or modified to include new or additional steps or methods for verifying and validating the changes before they are deployed to the production environment.
The next course of action after updating the change management process with new testing procedures is to communicate to those who test and promote changes. This means that the change management team or function should inform and educate the people who are involved or affected by the changes, such as the developers, testers, users, customers, etc., about the new testing procedures, their purpose, benefits, requirements, and expectations.
Communicating to those who test and promote changes helps to ensure that the new testing procedures are understood and followed by all the parties, that the changes are tested and promoted in accordance with the process standards and criteria, and that the changes are delivered with the expected quality and performance.
The other options are not the next courses of action after updating the change management process with new testing procedures. They are either secondary or not essential for change management.
The references for this answer are:
Risk IT Framework, page 27
Information Technology & Security, page 21
Risk Scenarios Starter Pack, page 19
Which of the following is MOST important for developing effective key risk indicators (KRIs)?
Engaging sponsorship by senior management
Utilizing data and resources internal to the organization
Including input from risk and business unit management
Developing in collaboration with internal audit
Key risk indicators (KRIs) are metrics used by organizations to monitor and assess potential risks that may impact their objectives and performance. KRIs also provide early warning signals that help organizations identify, analyze, and address risks before they escalate into significant issues1. Effective KRIs are thosethat are relevant, measurable, predictable, comparable, and informational2. The most important factor for developing effective KRIs is including input from risk and business unit management, as they are the persons who have the best understanding of the risk environment, the risk appetite and tolerance, and the risk factors and impacts of the organization. By including input from risk and business unit management, the organization can ensure that the KRIs are aligned with the organization’s strategy, vision, and mission, and that they reflect the current and emerging risks and their potential consequences. Engaging sponsorship by senior management, utilizing data and resources internal to the organization, and developing in collaboration with internal audit are not the most important factors for developing effective KRIs, as they do not provide the same level of insight and relevance as including input from risk and business unit management. Engaging sponsorship by senior management is a factor that involves obtaining the support and approval of the senior leaders who have the authority and accountability for the organization’s performance and governance. Engaging sponsorship by senior management can help to promote the importance and value of KRIs, and to ensure their communication and implementation across the organization, but it does not ensure that the KRIs are appropriate and accurate for the organization’s risk profile. Utilizing data and resources internal to the organization is a factor that involves using the information and assets that are available within the organization to support or enable the development of KRIs. Utilizing data and resources internal to the organization can help to enhance the quality and reliability of KRIs, and to reduce the cost and complexity of obtaining external data and resources, but it does not ensure that the KRIs are comprehensive and consistent with the organization’s risk environment. Developing in collaboration with internal audit is a factor that involves working with the internal audit function that provides independent and objective assurance and advice on the adequacy and effectiveness of the organization’s risk management. Developing in collaboration with internal audit can help to improve the validity and compliance of KRIs, and to provide feedback and recommendations for improvement, but it does not ensure that the KRIs are relevant and realistic for the organization’s risk objectives and strategies. References = 1: Key Risk Indicators: A Practical Guide | SafetyCulture2: KRI Framework for Operational Risk Management | Workiva3: [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.1: Key Risk Indicators, pp. 181-185.]
A software developer has administrative access to a production application. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner?
The administrative access does not allow for activity log monitoring.
The administrative access does not follow password management protocols.
The administrative access represents a deviation from corporate policy.
The administrative access represents a segregation of duties conflict.
According to the CRISC 351-400 topic3 Flashcards, the administrative access represents a segregation of duties conflict, which should be of greatest concern to a risk practitioner. Segregation of duties is a principle that aims to prevent fraud, errors, or abuse of power by ensuring that no single person can perform incompatible functions, such as development, testing, and production. By having administrative access to a production application, a software developer can potentially modify the code, bypass the testing and approval process, and deploy the changes without proper authorization or documentation. This can compromise the integrity, availability, and security of the application, and expose the organization to operational, financial, legal, or reputational risks. Therefore, the answer is D. The administrative access represents a segregation of duties conflict. *References
Key control indicators (KCls) help to assess the effectiveness of the internal control environment PRIMARILY by:
ensuring controls are operating efficiently and facilitating productivity.
enabling senior leadership to better understand the level of risk the organization is facing.
monitoring changes in the likelihood of adverse events due to ineffective controls.
providing information on the degree to which controls are meeting intended objectives.
According to the definition of key control indicators (KCIs), they are metrics that provide information on the extent to which a given control is meeting its intended objectives in terms of loss prevention, reduction, etc.1 Therefore, option D is the correct answer, as it reflects the purpose and function of KCIs. The other options are not accurate descriptions of KCIs, as they do not directly relate to the performance or outcome of the control. Option A is more relevant to the efficiency or productivity of the control, not its effectiveness. Option B is more relevant to the role of key risk indicators (KRIs), which measure the level of risk exposure or potentialimpact of risk events2. Option C is also more related to KRIs, as they monitor changes in the likelihood or frequency of adverse events due to risk factors2.
Which of the following should be the PRIMARY concern when changes to firewall rules do not follow change management requirements?
Potential audit findings
Insufficient risk governance
Potential business impact
Inaccurate documentation
Unapproved changes to firewall rules can lead tocritical security vulnerabilitiesordisruptions to business services, representing adirect impact on the business. This is more critical than documentation or governance concerns.
A risk practitioner has identified that the organization's secondary data center does not provide redundancy for a critical application. Who should have the authority to accept the associated risk?
Business continuity director
Disaster recovery manager
Business application owner
Data center manager
The business application owner should have the authority to accept the associated risk, because they are responsible for the performance and outcomes of the critical application, and they understand the business requirements, expectations, and impact of the application. The business application owner can also evaluate the trade-offs between the potential benefits and costs of the application, and the potential risks and consequences of a disruption or failure of the application. The business application owner can also communicate and justify their risk acceptance decision to the senior management and other stakeholders, and ensure that the risk is monitored and reviewed regularly. The other options are less appropriate to have the authority to accept the associated risk. The business continuity director is responsible for overseeing the planning and execution of the business continuity strategy, which includes ensuring the availability andresilience of the critical business processes and applications. However, they are not the owner of the application, and they may not have the full knowledge or authority to accept the risk on behalf of the business. The disaster recovery manager is responsible for managing the recovery and restoration of the IT systems and applications in the event of a disaster or disruption. However, they are not the owner of the application, and they may not have the full knowledge or authority to accept the risk on behalf of the business. The data center manager is responsible for managing the operation and maintenance of the data center infrastructure, which includes providing the physical and environmental security, power, cooling, and network connectivity for the IT systems and applications. However, they are not the owner of the application, and they may not have the full knowledge or authority to accept the risk on behalf of the business. References = Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2022, p. 181
Business information security officer
Service level manager
Business process manager
Data center operations manager
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
The business process manager is best suited to own business continuity controls because they have direct responsibility for the continuity of the business process and understand the criticality of maintaining operations during disruptions. While security officers and operations managers have important roles, the business process manager is accountable for ensuring the process continues to meet business objectives and should lead continuity efforts【5:513, 5:514†CRISC_SentenceinNOTE30.pptx】.
Which of the following would MOST effectively reduce risk associated with an increase of online transactions on a retailer website?
Scalable infrastructure
A hot backup site
Transaction limits
Website activity monitoring
The most effective way to reduce risk associated with an increase of online transactions on a retailer website is to implement website activity monitoring. Website activity monitoring can help to detect and prevent fraudulent transactions, unauthorized access, data breaches, and other cyber threats that may compromise the security and integrity of the website and its data. Scalable infrastructure, a hot backup site, and transaction limits are other possible ways to reduce risk, but they are not as effective as website activity monitoring. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 7; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 202.
A risk practitioner shares the results of a vulnerability assessment for a critical business application with the business manager. Which of the following is the NEXT step?
Develop a risk action plan to address the findings.
Evaluate the impact of the vulnerabilities to the business application.
Escalate the findings to senior management and internal audit.
Conduct a penetration test to validate the vulnerabilities from the findings.
According to the CRISC Review Manual1, a risk action plan is a document that defines the specific actions, resources, responsibilities, and timelines for implementing the risk responses. A risk action plan should be developed after the results of a vulnerability assessment are shared with the relevant stakeholders, such as the business manager, to address the identified vulnerabilities and mitigate the associated risks. Developing a risk action plan is the next step in the risk management process, as it helps to ensure that the risk responses are executed effectively and efficiently, and that the residual risks are within the acceptable levels. References = CRISC Review Manual1, page 201.
An organization's financial analysis department uses an in-house forecasting application for business projections. Who is responsible for defining access roles to protect the sensitive data within this application?
IT risk manager
IT system owner
Information security manager
Business owner
According to the Data Roles and Responsibilities article, the business owner is the person who has authority over the business process that is supported by the data. The business owner is responsible for defining the access roles to protect the sensitive data within the application, as well as approving the access requests and ensuring the compliance with the data policies andstandards. The business owner may delegate this responsibility to a data steward, who is a person who acts on behalf of the business owner to manage the data quality, security, and usage. Therefore, the answer is D. Business owner. References = Data Roles and Responsibilities
WhichT5f the following is the MOST effective way to promote organization-wide awareness of data security in response to an increase in regulatory penalties for data leakage?
Enforce sanctions for noncompliance with security procedures.
Conduct organization-w>de phishing simulations.
Require training on the data handling policy.
Require regular testing of the data breach response plan.
The most effective way to promote organization-wide awareness of data security in response to an increase in regulatory penalties for data leakage is to require training on the data handling policy, as it educates the employees on the importance, requirements, and procedures of data protection, and enhances their knowledge and skills to prevent, detect, and respond to data leakage incidents. Enforcingsanctions for noncompliance with security procedures, conducting organization-wide phishing simulations, and requiring regular testing of the data breach response plan are not the most effective ways, as they are more related to the enforcement, evaluation, or improvement of the data security, respectively, rather than the promotion of the data security awareness. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 155.
An organization has implemented a cloud-based backup solution to help prevent loss of transactional data from offices in an earthquake zone. This strategy demonstrates risk:
Avoidance
Mitigation
Transfer
Acceptance
Using cloud-based backup tominimize the impactof a potential data loss event is a classic example ofrisk mitigation, which involves reducing risk to an acceptable level through proactive controls.
An organization is outsourcing a key database to be hosted by an external service provider. Who is BEST suited to assess the impact of potential data loss?
Database manager
Public relations manager
Data privacy manager
Business manager
The business manager is best suited to assess the impact of potential data loss when outsourcing a key database to an external service provider.
Role of the Business Manager:
Understanding Business Impact:The business manager has a comprehensive understanding of the business processes, the criticality of the data, and the potential impact of data loss on business operations.
Decision Making:They are responsible for making decisions regarding risk tolerance, business continuity, and aligning the risk management practices with business objectives.
Assessment of Data Loss Impact:
Operational Impact:The business manager can evaluate how data loss would affect day-to-day operations and overall business continuity.
Financial and Reputational Impact:They can also assess the financial repercussions and potential damage to the organization’s reputation, providing a holistic view of the impact.
During a routine check, a system administrator identifies unusual activity indicating an intruder within a firewall. Which of the following controls has MOST likely been compromised?
Data validation
Identification
Authentication
Data integrity
Authentication is a control that verifies the identity of a user or a system that tries to access a computer system or network. Authentication can be based on something the user or system knows (such as a password or a PIN), something the user or system has (such as a token or asmart card), or something the user or system is (such as a fingerprint or a retina scan). Authentication is a crucial control for preventing unauthorized or malicious access to a system or network, as well as for ensuring the accountability and traceability of the actions performed by the user or system. If the authentication control is compromised, it means that the user or system can bypass or break the verification process and gain access to the system or network without being identified or authorized. This can expose the system or network to various threats, such as data theft, data corruption, data leakage, or denial of service. Therefore, the authentication control has most likely been compromised if a system administrator identifies unusual activity indicating an intruder within a firewall. A firewall is a device or a software that monitors and filters the incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predefined rules and policies. A firewall can help to protect the system or network from external or internal attacks by blocking or allowing the traffic based on the source, destination, protocol, or content. However, a firewall cannot prevent an intruder from accessing the system or network if the intruder has already authenticated or impersonated a legitimate user or system. The other options are not the most likely controls to be compromised if a system administrator identifies unusual activity indicating an intruder within a firewall, although they may be affected or related. Data validation is a control that checks the accuracy, completeness, and quality of the data that is entered, processed,or stored by a system or anetwork. Data validation can help to prevent or detect data errors, anomalies, or inconsistencies that may affect the performance, functionality, or reliability of the system or network. However, data validation does not prevent or detect unauthorized or malicious access to the system or network, as it only focuses on the data, not the user or system. Identification is a control that assigns a unique identifier to a user or a system that tries to access a computer system or network. Identification can be based on a username, an email address, a phone number, or a certificate. Identification is a necessary but not sufficient control for preventing unauthorized or malicious access to a system or network, as it only declares who or what the user or system is, but does not prove it. Identification needs to be combined with authentication to verify the identity of the user or system. Data integrity is a control that ensures that the data is accurate, consistent, and complete throughout its lifecycle. Data integrity can be achieved by implementing various controls, such as encryption, hashing, checksum, digital signature, or backup. Data integrity can help to protect the data from unauthorized or accidental modification, deletion, or corruption that may affect the value, meaning, or usability of the data. However, data integrity does not prevent or detect unauthorized or malicious access to the system or network, as it only protects the data, not the user or system. References = CRISC Review Manual, pages 164-1651; CRISC Review Questions, Answers &Explanations Manual, page 952; What is Authentication? - Definition from Techopedia3; What is a Firewall? - Definition from Techopedia4
Which element of an organization's risk register is MOST important to update following the commissioning of a new financial reporting system?
Key risk indicators (KRIs)
The owner of the financial reporting process
The risk rating of affected financial processes
The list of relevant financial controls
The most important element of an organization’s risk register to update following the commissioning of a new financial reporting system is the risk rating of affected financial processes. A risk rating is a measure of the level and nature of the risk exposure, based on the impact and likelihood of the risk events. A risk rating can help to prioritize and respond to the risks, and to monitor and report the risk status. A new financial reporting system may introduce new or different risks, or change the existing risks, that could affect the financial processes of the organization, such as data quality, accuracy, timeliness, compliance, or security. Therefore, the risk rating of affected financial processes should be updated to reflect the current risk situation and to ensure that the risk register is accurate and complete. Key risk indicators (KRIs), the owner of the financial reporting process, and the list of relevant financial controls are not asimportant as the risk rating of affected financial processes, as they are not directly affected by the commissioning of a new financial reporting system, and they do not measure the risk exposure and impact of the financial processes. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 48.
Which of the following would BEST ensure that identified risk scenarios are addressed?
Reviewing the implementation of the risk response
Creating a separate risk register for key business units
Performing real-time monitoring of threats
Performing regular risk control self-assessments
The best way to ensure that identified risk scenarios are addressed is to review the implementation of the risk response. The risk response is the action or plan that is taken to reduce, avoid, transfer, or accept the risk, depending on the chosen risk treatment option1. Reviewing the implementation of the risk response means checking whether the risk response actions are executed as planned, whether they are effective and efficient in mitigating the risk, and whether they are aligned with the organization’s objectives and risk appetite2. Reviewing the implementation of the risk response helps to monitor and control the risk, identify any gaps or issues, and make any necessary adjustments or improvements. The other options are not the best ways to ensure that identified risk scenarios are addressed, as they are either less comprehensive or less specific than reviewing the implementation of the risk response. Creating a separate risk register for key business units is a way of documenting and tracking the risks that affect different parts of the organization. However, this is not the same as addressing the risk scenarios, as it does not indicate how the risks are treated or resolved. Performing real-time monitoring of threats is a way of detecting and responding to any changes or events that may increase the likelihood or impact of the risks. However, this is not the same as addressing theriskscenarios, as it does not measure the effectiveness or efficiency of the risk response actions. Performing regular risk control self-assessments is a way of evaluating and testing the design and operation of the controls that are implemented to mitigate the risks. However, this is not the same as addressing the risk scenarios, as it does not cover the other aspects of the risk response, such as risk avoidance, transfer, or acceptance. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.1.7, Page 59.
Which of the following provides the BEST assurance of the effectiveness of vendor security controls?
Review vendor control self-assessments (CSA).
Review vendor service level agreement (SLA) metrics.
Require independent control assessments.
Obtain vendor references from existing customers.
The best way to provide assurance of the effectiveness of vendor security controls is to require independent control assessments. Independent control assessments are evaluations of thevendor’s security controls by a third-party auditor or assessor, such as an external auditor, a certification body, or a testing laboratory. Independent control assessments provide an objective and unbiased opinion on the adequacy and performance of the vendor’s security controls, as well as the compliance with relevant standards and regulations. Independent control assessments can also provide evidence and assurance to the customers of the vendor’s security posture and capabilities. Reviewing vendor control self-assessments (CSA), vendor service level agreement(SLA) metrics, or vendor references from existing customers are not as reliable or credible as independent control assessments, because they may be biased, incomplete, or outdated.
Which of the following is the MOST useful information an organization can obtain from external sources about emerging threats?
Solutions for eradicating emerging threats
Cost to mitigate the risk resulting from threats
Indicators for detecting the presence of threatsl)
Source and identity of attackers
•External sources of emerging threats are sources that provide information about the latest cyberattacks, hacking techniques, malware, and vulnerabilities that can affect an organization’s IT systems and data. Examples of external sources are security blogs, forums, newsletters, reports, and alerts from reputable organizations such as ISACA, Imperva, Aura, and BitSight123.
•The most useful information an organization can obtain from external sources is the indicators for detecting the presence of threats. Indicators are observable signs or patterns that can help identify, prevent, or mitigate cyberattacks. Examples of indicators are IP addresses, domain names, file hashes, network traffic, system logs, and user behavior4.
•Indicators for detecting the presence of threats are more useful than the other options because they can help an organization to:
oMonitor and analyze its IT environment for any suspicious or malicious activity
oRespond quickly and effectively to any potential or actual incidents
oReduce the impact and damage of cyberattacks
oImprove its security posture and resilience
•Solutions for eradicating emerging threats are not the most useful information because they may not be applicable or effective for every organization, depending on its specific context, needs,and resources. Moreover, solutions may not be available or known for some new or sophisticated threats.
•Cost to mitigate the risk resulting from threats is not the most useful information because it does not help an organization to identify or prevent cyberattacks. Cost is only one factor to consider when deciding how to manage IT risk, and it may not reflect the true value or impact of the threats.
•Source and identity of attackers are not the most useful information because they may not be relevant or accurate for every organization. Source and identity of attackers are often difficult to trace or verify, and they may not affect the organization’s risk level or response strategy.
References =
•Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, ISACA, 2020, Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.3: Risk Identification, pp. 83-84
•Risk and Information Systems Control Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 12 Month Subscription, ISACA, 2020, Question ID: 100000
Which of the following is the BEST evidence that risk management is driving business decisions in an organization?
Compliance breaches are addressed in a timely manner.
Risk ownership is identified and assigned.
Risk treatment options receive adequate funding.
Residual risk is within risk tolerance.
Risk treatment options are the actions or plans that are implemented to modify or reduce the risk exposure of the organization. Risk treatment options receive adequate funding when the organization allocatessufficient resources and budget to support the risk response actions, and to ensure that the risk controls are effective and efficient. This is the best evidence that risk management is driving business decisions in the organization, as it shows that the organizationprioritizes and values the risk management process, and that it aligns its risk strategy and objectives with its business goals and value creation. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, Question 245. CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, Question 245. CRISC Sample Questions 2024, Question 245.
An organization needs to send files to a business partner to perform a quality control audit on the organization’s record-keeping processes. The files include personal information on theorganization's customers. Which of the following is the BEST recommendation to mitigate privacy risk?
Obfuscate the customers’ personal information.
Require the business partner to delete personal information following the audit.
Use a secure channel to transmit the files.
Ensure the contract includes provisions for sharing personal information.
Obfuscating customer information ensures data privacy by rendering sensitive details unintelligible to unauthorized parties, reducing the risk of exposure during transit or processing. This aligns withData Protection and Privacy Regulationsunder risk management frameworks, emphasizing safeguarding personally identifiable information.
An organization has allowed several employees to retire early in order to avoid layoffs Many of these employees have been subject matter experts for critical assets Which type of risk is MOST likely to materialize?
Confidentiality breach
Institutional knowledge loss
Intellectual property loss
Unauthorized access
The type of risk that is most likely to materialize as a result of allowing several employees to retire early in order to avoid layoffs is institutional knowledge loss, as it represents the loss of valuable information, experience, and expertise that the employees have accumulated over time, and that may not be easily transferred or replaced. Confidentiality breach, intellectual property loss, and unauthorized access are not the most likely types of risk, as they are more related to the security, ownership, or access of information, respectively, rather than the retention or transfer of knowledge. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 100.
When reviewing management's IT control self-assessments, a risk practitioner noted an ineffective control that links to several low residual risk scenarios. What should be the NEXT course of action?
Assess management's risk tolerance.
Recommend management accept the low-risk scenarios.
Propose mitigating controls
Re-evaluate the risk scenarios associated with the control
IT control self-assessments are techniques that involve identifying and evaluating the effectiveness and efficiency of the IT controls that are designed and implemented to mitigate the IT risks, by the managers and staff within the organization12.
An ineffective control is a control that does not achieve its intended objective or purpose, or does not operate as designed or expected34.
A low residual risk scenario is a situation or occurrence that has a low likelihood and impact of affecting the organization’s objectives, performance, or value creation, after considering the existing controls and their effectiveness56.
The next course of action when reviewing management’s IT control self-assessments and noting an ineffective control that links to several low residual risk scenarios is to recommend management accept the low-risk scenarios, which is a risk response strategy that involves acknowledging and tolerating the level of risk exposure, and not taking any further action to reduce or eliminate it78.
Recommending management accept the low-risk scenarios is the next course of action because it is the most cost-effective and reasonable option, given that the level of risk exposure is low andacceptable, and the cost and effort of implementing or improving the control may outweigh the potential benefits or value78.
Recommending management accept the low-risk scenarios is also the next course of action because it is consistent with the risk management process and objectives, which are to identifyand address the risks that may affect the achievement of the organization’s goals and the delivery of value to the stakeholders, and to optimize the balance between risk and reward78.
The other options are not the next course of action, but rather possible alternatives or steps that may be considered or followed in different circumstances or scenarios. For example:
Assessing management’s risk tolerance is a step that involves determining and communicating the acceptable or tolerable level of risk exposure for the organization or its business units, based on the organization’s risk appetite, criteria, and objectives78. However, this stepis not the next course of action because it is usually done before or during the risk assessment process, and not after noting an ineffective control that links to several low residual risk scenarios78.
Proposing mitigating controls is a course of action that involves suggesting or recommending additional or alternative controls that can reduce or eliminate the level of risk exposure, and improve the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk management process78. However, this course of action is not the next course of action because it is not necessary or appropriate for low residual risk scenarios, as the cost and effort of implementing or improving the controls may outweigh the potential benefits or value78.
Re-evaluating the risk scenarios associated with the control is a course of action that involves revising and updating the likelihood and impact of the risk scenarios, and the level of risk exposure or tolerance for the organization, based on the current or changed conditions or factors that influence the risk landscape78. However, this course of action is not the next course of action because it is not required or relevant for low residual risk scenarios, as the level of risk exposure is already low and acceptable, and the ineffective control does not significantly affect the risk assessment78. References =
1: Control Self Assessments - PwC1
2: Control self-assessment - Wikipedia2
3: Ineffective Controls: What They Are and How to Identify Them3
4: Ineffective Controls: What They Are and How to Identify Them4
5: Residual Risk - Definition and Examples5
6: Residual Risk: Definition, Formula & Management6
7: Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2009
8: IT Risk Management Framework, University of Toronto, 2017
Of the following, who is responsible for approval when a change in an application system is ready for release to production?
Information security officer
IT risk manager
Business owner
Chief risk officer (CRO)
The business owner is the person who is responsible for approval when a change in an application system is ready for release to production. The business owner is the person who has the authority and accountability for the business process or function that is supported by the application system. The business owner should approve the change to ensure that it meets the business requirements, objectives, and expectations, and that it does not introduce any adverse impacts or risks to the business operations. The information security officer, the IT risk manager, and the chief risk officer (CRO) are not responsible for the approval of the change, although they may provide input, feedback, or oversight. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.4.1, page 3-32.
The PRIMARY reason a risk practitioner would be interested in an internal audit report is to:
plan awareness programs for business managers.
evaluate maturity of the risk management process.
assist in the development of a risk profile.
maintain a risk register based on noncompliance.
According to the CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), the primary reason a risk practitioner would be interested in an internal audit report is to evaluate the maturity of the risk management process, as it provides an independent and objective assessment of the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk management activities and controls. An internal audit report helps to:
Identify and evaluate the strengths and weaknesses of the risk management process and its alignment with the organization’s objectives and strategy
Detect and report any gaps, errors, or deficiencies in the risk identification, assessment, response, and monitoring processes and controls
Recommend and implement corrective actions or improvement measures to address the issues or findings in the risk management process
Communicate and coordinate the audit results and recommendations with the relevant stakeholders, such as the risk owners, the senior management, and the board
Enhance the accountability and transparency of the risk management process and its outcomes
References = CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 4: IT Risk Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.2: IT Risk Reporting, pp. 223-2241
A risk practitioner is defining metrics for security threats that were not identified by antivirus software. Which type of metric is being developed?
Key control indicator (KCI)
Key risk indicator (KRI)
Operational level agreement (OLA)
Service level agreement (SLA)
A KRI is a measure used by an organization to measure the health of a particular risk. In this case, the risk practitioner is developing a metric to measure the risk associated with security threats that were not identified by antivirus software12.
References
1Standardized Scoring for Security and Risk Metrics - ISACA
2Key Performance Indicators for Security Governance, Part 1 - ISACA
Senior leadership has set guidelines for the integration of a new acquisition. The guidelines allow for a variation in the level of risk-taking. The variation indicates which of the following risk management concepts?
Risk tolerance
Risk appetite
Risk sensitivity
Risk velocity
Risk tolerance refers to the acceptable level of variation in outcomes related to specific risks that an organization is willing to withstand. It defines the boundaries within which the organization can operate safely and is often set by senior leadership to guide decision-making processes. In the context of integrating a new acquisition, allowing for variation in the level of risk-taking directly pertains to the organization's risk tolerance.
Who should be responsible for implementing and maintaining security controls?
End user
Internal auditor
Data owner
Data custodian
The data custodian is the person who is responsible for implementing and maintaining security controls to protect the data entrusted to them by the data owner. The data custodian is typically a system administrator or a security systems administrator who has the technical skills and access rights to manage the security systems and processes that safeguard the data. The data custodian’s responsibilities include, but are not limited to: Installing, configuring, and updating security systems such as firewalls, anti-virus software, encryption tools, etc. Monitoring network trafficand system logs to detect and respond to security incidents. Conducting regular security assessments and audits to ensure compliance with security policies and standards. Implementing backup and recovery procedures to ensure data availability and integrity. The data custodian works under the direction and guidance of the data owner, who is the person who has the authority and accountability for the data and its use. The data owner defines the data classification, the data retention period, and the data access rights and privileges. The data owner also approves any changes to the security controls or the data itself. The data owner is typically a senior manager or a business unit leader who has the business knowledge and responsibility for the data. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1: IT Risk Identification, Section 1.3: Data Classification, pp. 11-131
The MOST effective approach to prioritize risk scenarios is by:
assessing impact to the strategic plan.
aligning with industry best practices.
soliciting input from risk management experts.
evaluating the cost of risk response.
The most effective approach to prioritize risk scenarios is by assessing the impact to the strategic plan, because this will help to align the risk management process with the organization’s vision, mission, and goals. The strategic plan is the document that defines the organization’s direction, priorities, and objectives, and guides the allocation of resources and efforts. By assessing theimpact to the strategic plan, the organization can determine which risk scenarios pose the greatest threat or opportunity to the achievement of the strategic objectives, and prioritize them accordingly. The other options are not as effective as assessing the impact to the strategic plan, because they do not directly relate to the organization’s specific context, needs, and expectations, as explained below:
B. Aligning with industry best practices is an approach that involves following the standards, norms, and expectations for risk management that are established and followed by the peers or competitors in the same industry or sector. Aligning with industry best practices can help to benchmark and compare the organization’s risk management performance and maturity, and identify areas for improvement or innovation. However, this approach is not as effective as assessing the impact to the strategic plan, because it does not account for the organization’s unique and customized risk scenarios, which may differ from the industry average or standard.
C. Soliciting input from risk management experts is an approach that involves seeking advice, guidance, or feedback from the professionals or specialists who have the knowledge, experience, or skills in risk management. Soliciting input from risk management experts can help to enhance the quality and validity of the risk analysis and evaluation, and provide insights and recommendations for risk mitigation. However, this approach is not as effective as assessing the impact to the strategic plan, because it does not reflect the organization’s risk appetite, preferences, and expectations, which may differ from the risk management experts’ opinions or perspectives.
D. Evaluating the cost of risk response is an approach that involves estimating the resources and efforts required to implement the risk response strategies, such as avoiding, reducing, transferring, or accepting the risk. Evaluating the cost of risk response can help to optimize the risk management efficiency and effectiveness, and balance the potential benefits and costs of taking risks. However, this approach is not as effective as assessing the impact to the strategic plan, because it does not consider the potential consequences and outcomes of the risk scenarios, which may affect the organization’s performance and reputation. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2, Section 2.3.1, page 45. The Ultimate Guide to Risk Prioritization - Hyperproof, Risk Prioritization: What Is It? [2021 Guide & Matrix] - ERM Software, What is Risk Prioritization | Centraleyes, Scenario Planning in Risk Management: Why It is Needed - SmartCompliance
An organization is increasingly concerned about loss of sensitive data and asks the risk practitioner to assess the current risk level. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?
Identify staff members who have access to the organization's sensitive data.
Identify locations where the organization's sensitive data is stored.
Identify risk scenarios and owners associated with possible data loss vectors.
Identify existing data loss controls and their levels of effectiveness.
The first step in assessing the current risk level of data loss is to identify where the sensitive data is stored, such as servers, databases, laptops, mobile devices, etc. This will help to determine the scope and boundaries of the risk assessment, as well as the potential exposure and impact of data loss. Identifying staff members who have access to the data, risk scenarios and owners, and existing controls are important steps, but they should be done after identifying the data locations. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.1.1.1, page 51.
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration for prioritizing risk treatment plans when faced with budget limitations?
Inherent risk and likelihood
Management action plans associated with audit findings
Residual risk relative to appetite and tolerance
Key risk indicator (KRI) trends
When prioritizing risk treatment plans under budget constraints, the focus should be onresidual risk relative to appetite and tolerance. This ensures that resources are allocated to risks that exceed the organization’s risk appetite, aligning treatment efforts with strategic objectives and minimizing critical exposure.
Which type of cloud computing deployment provides the consumer the GREATEST degree of control over the environment?
Community cloud
Private cloud
Hybrid cloud
Public cloud
A private cloud is a type of cloud computing deployment that provides the consumer exclusive access to a pool of computing resources that are owned, managed, and operated by the consumer or a third-party provider on behalf of the consumer.
A private cloud provides the consumer the greatest degree of control over the environment, because the consumer can customize and configure the resources according to their specific needs and preferences, and can apply their own security and governance policies and standards.
The other options are not the types of cloud computing deployment that provide the consumer the greatest degree of control over the environment. They are either shared or limited by the provider’s settings and rules.
The references for this answer are:
Risk IT Framework, page 23
Information Technology & Security, page 17
Risk Scenarios Starter Pack, page 15
A MAJOR advantage of using key risk indicators (KRIs) is that they:
Identify scenarios that exceed defined risk appetite.
Help with internal control assessments concerning risk appetite.
Assess risk scenarios that exceed defined thresholds.
Identify when risk exceeds defined thresholds.
KRIs provide measurable indicators that flag when risks exceed predefined thresholds, enabling swift and effective risk response. This supports theMonitoring and Reportingfunction in risk management, ensuring risks are managed proactively.
A risk practitioner finds that data has been misclassified. Which of the following is the GREATEST concern?
Unauthorized access
Data corruption
Inadequate retention schedules
Data disruption
Which of the following is MOST helpful when prioritizing action plans for identified risk?
Comparing risk rating against appetite
Obtaining input from business units
Determining cost of controls to mitigate risk
Ranking the risk based on likelihood of occurrence
Comparing risk rating against appetite is the most helpful criterion when prioritizing action plans for identified risk, as it helps to determine the urgency and importance of addressing the risk. Risk rating is the level of risk after considering the likelihood and impact of a risk event, and risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. By comparing risk rating against appetite, an organization can identify which risks are above, within, or below its tolerance level, and prioritize the action plans accordingly. Risks that are above the appetite level should be treated with the highest priority, as they pose asignificant threat to the organization’s objectives and performance. Risks that are within the appetite level should be monitored and controlled regularly, as they are acceptable but still require attention. Risks that are below the appetite level should be reviewed periodically, as they are negligible or insignificant.
In an organization that allows employee use of social media accounts for work purposes, which of the following is the BEST way to protect company sensitive information from being exposed?
Educating employees on what needs to be kept confidential
Implementing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution
Taking punitive action against employees who expose confidential data
Requiring employees to sign nondisclosure agreements
The best way to protect company sensitive information from being exposed when an organization allows employee use of social media accounts for work purposes is to require employees to sign nondisclosure agreements. Nondisclosure agreements are legal contracts that prohibit the employees from disclosing or sharing the company sensitive information with unauthorized parties, such as competitors, media, or regulators. Nondisclosure agreements also specify the scope, duration, and conditions of the nondisclosure obligation, and the penalties or remedies for breaching the agreement. Requiring employees to sign nondisclosure agreements is the best way to protect company sensitive information, as it helps to prevent or deter the employees from exposing or leaking the company sensitive information on social media, and to hold the employees accountable and liable for their actions. Requiring employees to signnondisclosure agreements also helps to comply with the legal and regulatory requirements for data protection and privacy. Educating employees on what needs to be kept confidential, implementing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution, and taking punitive action against employees who expose confidential data are also useful ways, but they are not as effective as requiring employees to sign nondisclosure agreements, as they are either dependent on the employees’ awareness or behavior, or reactive or corrective measures, rather than proactive or preventive measures. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 217.
The BEST way to justify the risk mitigation actions recommended in a risk assessment would be to:
align with audit results.
benchmark with competitor s actions.
reference best practice.
focus on the business drivers
The best way to justify the risk mitigation actions recommended in a risk assessment would be to focus on the business drivers, which are the factors that influence the organization’s objectives, performance, and value creation12.
Focusing on the business drivers means aligning the risk mitigation actions with the organization’s strategic goals, priorities, and values, and demonstrating how the actions will support or enhance the organization’s capabilities, opportunities, and competitive advantage12.
Focusing on the business drivers also means communicating the benefits, costs, and trade-offs of the risk mitigation actions to the relevant stakeholders, and showing how the actions will address the organization’s risk appetite, tolerance, and exposure12.
The other options are not the best way to justify the risk mitigation actions, but rather possible sources of information or guidance that may support the justification. For example:
Aligning with audit results is a way to validate the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk mitigation actions, and to identify any gaps or weaknesses that need improvement34. However, audit results may not reflect the organization’s current or future business drivers, and may not capture the full scope or impact of the risk mitigation actions34.
Benchmarking with competitor’s actions is a way to compare the organization’s risk mitigation actions with the best practices or standards of the industry or market, and to identify any areas of improvement or differentiation56. However, competitor’s actions may not be suitable or applicable for the organization’s specific context, needs, or challenges, and may not align with the organization’s business drivers56.
Referencing best practice is a way to adopt the proven or accepted methods or techniques for risk mitigation, and to ensure the quality and consistency of the risk mitigation actions78. However, best practice may not be the most optimal or innovative solution for the organization’s unique situation, and may not address the organization’s business drivers78. References =
1: Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2009
2: IT Risk Management Framework, University of Toronto, 2017
3: IT Audit and Assurance Standards, ISACA, 2014
4: IT Audit and Assurance Guidelines, ISACA, 2014
5: Benchmarking IT Risk Management Practices, ISACA Journal, Volume 4, 2017
6: Benchmarking: A Tool for Improving IT Risk Management, ISACA Now Blog, March 27, 2017
7: IT Risk Management Best Practices, ISACA Journal, Volume 1, 2018
8: IT Risk Management Best Practices, ISACA Now Blog, January 9, 2018
Prudent business practice requires that risk appetite not exceed:
inherent risk.
risk tolerance.
risk capacity.
residual risk.
Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in order to achieve its objectives. Risk appetite reflects the organization’s risk attitude and its willingness to take on risk in specific scenarios. Risk appetite is usually expressed in a qualitative statement approved by the board of directors1.
Risk capacity is the maximum amount of risk that an organization can responsibly take on without jeopardizing its financial stability or other key objectives. Risk capacity is determined by objective factors like income, assets, liabilities, debts, insurance coverage, dependents, and time horizon. Risk capacity is usually expressed in a quantitative measure that sets the limit of how much risk the organization can handle2.
Prudent business practice requires that risk appetite not exceed risk capacity, because this would mean that the organization is taking on more risk than it can afford or sustain. If the risk appetiteis higher than the risk capacity, the organization may face serious consequences such as insolvency, bankruptcy, reputational damage, legal liability, or regulatory sanctions. Therefore, the organization should align its risk appetite with its risk capacity, and ensure that its risk exposure is within its risk tolerance3.
The other options are not correct. Inherent risk is the level of risk that exists in the absence of controls or mitigations. It is the natural level of risk inherent in a process or activity. Residual risk is the level of riskthat remains after the controls or mitigations have been applied. It is the remaining risk after the risk response has been implemented. Risk tolerance is the acceptable variation in the outcomes related to specific objectives or risks. It is the range of risk exposure that the organization is prepared to accept4. None of these concepts are directly comparable torisk appetite, and none of them represent the limit of how much risk the organization can take on. References =
Risk Appetite vs. Risk Tolerance: What is the Difference? - ISACA
What Is the Difference Between Risk Tolerance and Risk Capacity? - Investopedia
Risk Management: Understanding Risk Capacity, Appetite, and Tolerance - Consulting Edge
[CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition]
When classifying and prioritizing risk responses, the areas to address FIRST are those with:
low cost effectiveness ratios and high risk levels
high cost effectiveness ratios and low risk levels.
high cost effectiveness ratios and high risk levels
low cost effectiveness ratios and low risk levels.
The areas to address first when classifying and prioritizing risk responses are those with high cost effectiveness ratios and high risk levels, as they represent the most optimal and urgent risk responses that can reduce the risk exposure and impact significantly with a reasonable cost. Theother options are not the areas to address first, as they may indicate suboptimal or less urgent risk responses that may not align with the risk tolerance and appetite of the organization. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 109.
Which of the following provides the MOST helpful reference point when communicating the results of a risk assessment to stakeholders?
Risk tolerance
Risk appetite
Risk awareness
Risk policy
According to the CRISC Review Manual1, risk tolerance is the acceptable level of variation that management is willing to allow for any particular risk as it pursues its objectives. Risk tolerance provides a helpful reference point when communicating the results of a risk assessment to stakeholders, as it helps to compare the current level of risk exposure with the desired level of risk exposure, and to prioritize and allocate resources for risk response. Risk tolerance also helps to align the risk assessment results with the stakeholder expectations and preferences, and to facilitate risk-based decision making. References = CRISC Review Manual1, page 192.
Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to update when a software upgrade renders an existing key control ineffective?
Audit engagement letter
Risk profile
IT risk register
Change control documentation
An IT risk register is a document that records and tracks the IT risks that have been identified and assessed by the risk practitioner. It contains information such as the risk description, the risk owner, the risk level, the risk response, the risk status, and the risk monitoring and reporting activities. An IT risk register is a dynamic document that needs to be updated regularly to reflect the changes in the IT environment and the risk landscape. When a software upgrade renders an existing key control ineffective, the risk practitioner should update the IT risk register to indicate the new risk level, the new risk response, and the new risk monitoring and reporting activities. This will ensure that the IT risk register remains accurate, relevant, and useful for IT risk management. Updating the IT risk register is more important than updating the audit engagement letter, the risk profile, or the change control documentation, because the IT risk register is the primary source of information and guidance for managing IT risks. The audit engagement letter is a formal agreement between the auditor and the auditee that defines the scope, objectives, and terms of the audit. The risk profile is a summary of the organization’s risk appetite, risk tolerance, and risk exposure. The change control documentation is a record of the changes that have been made to the IT systems and processes. These documents are important for IT risk management, but they are not as critical as the IT risk register for updating when a key controlbecomes ineffective. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.4: Risk Register, pp. 69-711
Which stakeholder is MOST important to include when defining a risk profile during me selection process for a new third party application'?
The third-party risk manager
The application vendor
The business process owner
The information security manager
A risk profile is a summary of the nature and level of risk that an organization faces. It includes information such as the sources, causes, and consequences of the risks, their likelihood and impact, their interrelationships and dependencies, and their alignment with the risk appetite and tolerance. A risk profile is influenced by various factors, such as the organization’s objectives, strategies, activities, processes, resources, capabilities, culture, etc. When defining a risk profile during the selection process for a new third party application, the stakeholder that is most important to include is the business process owner, who is the person who has the authority and responsibility for the design, execution, and performance of a business process. The business process owner can provide valuable input and insight into the requirements, expectations, and dependencies of the business process that will use the new third party application, and the potential risks and opportunities that may arise from the selection of the application. The business process owner can also help to prioritize and address the risks, and ensure that the risk profile is aligned with the business objectives and strategies. References = 5
Which of the following BEST helps to ensure disaster recovery staff members
are able to complete their assigned tasks effectively during a disaster?
Performing parallel disaster recovery testing
Documenting the order of system and application restoration
Involving disaster recovery staff members in risk assessments
Conducting regular tabletop exercises and scenario analysis
Which of the following is the BEST way to prevent the loss of highly sensitive data when disposing of storage media?
Physical destruction
Degaussing
Data anonymization
Data deletion
When disposing of storage media, the best way to prevent the loss of highly sensitive data is physical destruction. Here’s why:
Physical Destruction:
Physical destruction involves destroying the storage media so that the data it contains cannot be recovered or reconstructed.
Methods include shredding, crushing, incinerating, or using industrial-grade degaussers that destroy the magnetic fields on the media.
Comparison with Other Methods:
Degaussing:This method erases data by disrupting the magnetic fields of the storage media. While effective for some types of media, it may not work on all (e.g., solid-state drives) and does not provide a visual confirmation that the data is irrecoverable.
Data Anonymization:This process involves altering data to prevent identification of individuals, but it does not destroy the data itself and is not applicable for disposing of storage media.
Data Deletion:Simply deleting data does not remove it permanently. Deleted data can often be recovered using specialized software unless it is overwritten multiple times, which is still less reliable than physical destruction.
Security Best Practices:
Physical destruction is considered the most secure method because it ensures that the media is rendered completely unusable and the data cannot be retrieved by any means.
This method is recommended by various standards and frameworks, including NIST Special Publication 800-88 Guidelines for Media Sanitization.
Which of the following is the MOST important driver of an effective enterprise risk management (ERM) program?
Risk policy
Risk committee
Risk culture
Risk management plan
Risk culture is the foundation upon which ERM is built. It dictates how employees perceive, communicate, and act on risk. A strong risk culture ensures consistency in risk behaviors, supports governance, and sustains long-term effectiveness of the ERM.
The MAIN purpose of reviewing a control after implementation is to validate that the control:
operates as intended.
is being monitored.
meets regulatory requirements.
operates efficiently.
The main purpose of reviewing a control after implementation is to validate that the control operates as intended, as this can help to ensure that the control is effective and efficient in mitigating the risk, and that it meets the control objectives and requirements. Reviewing a control after implementation can also help to identify and address any issues or gaps that may arise during the control operation, and to monitor and evaluate the performance and impact of the control. Reviewing a control after implementation can also provide feedback and information to the control owners and stakeholders, and enable them to adjust the control design and implementation accordingly. References = Most Asked CRISC Exam Questions andAnswers. CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, Question254. ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, Question 254. CRISC by Isaca Actual Free Exam Q&As, Question 9.
Which of the following is the BEST indicator of an effective IT security awareness program?
Decreased success rate of internal phishing tests
Decreased number of reported security incidents
Number of disciplinary actions issued for security violations
Number of employees that complete security training
The best indicator of an effective IT security awareness program is the decreased success rate of internal phishing tests. Phishing is a type of social engineering attack that attempts to trick the users into revealing their personal or confidential information, or clicking on malicious links or attachments, by impersonating a legitimate entity or person. Internal phishing tests are simulated phishing attacks that are conducted by the enterprise to test the awareness and behavior of the employees in response to phishing emails. A decreased success rate of internal phishing tests means that fewer employees fall victim to the phishing attempts, and that they are more aware and vigilant of the phishing threats and techniques. A decreased success rate of internal phishing tests also implies that the IT security awareness program has effectively educated and trained the employees on how to recognize and report phishing emails, and how to protect themselves and the enterprise from phishing attacks. A decreased number of reported security incidents, a number of disciplinary actions issued for security violations, and a number of employees that complete security training are not as good indicators of an effective IT security awareness program as a decreased success rate of internal phishing tests, as they do not directly measure theawareness and behavior of the employees in relation to phishing, and may be influenced by otherfactors such as reporting mechanisms, enforcement policies, and training availability. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 220.
The PRIMARY benefit of conducting a risk workshop using a top-down approach instead of a bottom-up approach is the ability to:
identify specific project risk.
obtain a holistic view of IT strategy risk.
understand risk associated with complex processes.
incorporate subject matter expertise.
Obtaining a holistic view of IT strategy risk is the primary benefit of conducting a risk workshop using a top-down approach instead of a bottom-up approach, because it helps to identify and assess the risks that may affect the alignment and integration of IT with the organization’s objectives and strategy. A risk workshop is a collaborative and interactive method of conducting a risk assessment, where the risk practitioner facilitates a group discussion with the relevant stakeholders to identify, analyze, and evaluate the risks and their controls. A top-down approach is a method of conducting a risk workshop that starts from the high-level or strategic perspective, and then drills down to the lower-level or operational details. A bottom-up approach is a methodof conducting a risk workshop that starts from the low-level or operational details, and then aggregates them to the higher-level or strategic perspective. A top-down approach can offer a holistic view of IT strategy risk, as it helps to understand the big picture and the interrelationships of the risks and their impacts across the organization. A bottom-up approach can offer a detailed view of specific project or process risk, as it helps to capture the granular and technical aspects of the risks and their controls. Therefore, obtaining a holistic view of IT strategy risk is the primary benefit of using a top-down approach, as it supports the strategic alignment and integration of IT with the organization. Identifying specific project risk, understanding risk associated with complex processes, and incorporating subject matter expertise are all possible benefits of conducting a risk workshop, but they are not the primary benefit of using a top-down approach, as they are more suitable for a bottom-up approach. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.2.2, page 87
While conducting an organization-wide risk assessment, it is noted that many of the information security policies have not changed in the past three years. The BEST course of action is to:
review and update the policies to align with industry standards.
determine that the policies should be updated annually.
report that the policies are adequate and do not need to be updated frequently.
review the policies against current needs to determine adequacy.
Information security policies are the foundation of an organization’s security program, as they define the objectives, roles, responsibilities, and standards for protecting the information assets and systems. However, information security policies are not static, and they need to be reviewed and updated regularly to reflect the changes in the organization’s environment, risk profile, and compliance requirements. Therefore, the best course of action when conducting an organization-wide risk assessment is to review the policies against current needs to determine adequacy. This means comparing the policies with the current threats, vulnerabilities, controls, and best practices, and identifying any gaps or weaknesses that need to be addressed. The other options are not the best course of action, as they do not consider the current needs of the organization. Reviewing and updating the policies to align with industry standards may not be sufficient, as the organization may have specific or unique needs that are not covered by the standards. Determining that the policies should be updated annually may not be realistic, as the frequency of updates may depend on the nature and complexity of the policies and the organization. Reporting that the policies are adequate and do not need to be updated frequently may not be accurate, as the policies may be outdated or ineffective, and may expose the organization to unnecessary risks. References = Risk Assessment and Analysis Methods: Qualitative and Quantitative - ISACA, Does Your Organization Need a Security Risk Assessment? - ISACA, SP 800-39, Managing Information Security Risk: Organization, Mission …
A risk assessment indicates the residual risk associated with a new bring your own device (BYOD) program is within organizational risk tolerance. Which of the following should the risk practitioner
recommend be done NEXT?
Implement targeted awareness training for new BYOD users.
Implement monitoring to detect control deterioration.
Identify log sources to monitor BYOD usage and risk impact.
Reduce the risk tolerance level.
A risk assessment indicates the residual risk associated with a new bring your own device (BYOD) program is within organizational risk tolerance. This means that the potential benefits of BYOD outweigh the potential risks, and that the controls in place are adequate to mitigate those risks.
The next step for the risk practitioner is to identify log sources to monitor BYOD usage and risk impact. Log sources are records of events or activities that occur in a system or network, such as file access, network traffic, user behavior, etc. Log sources can provide valuable information about how BYOD devices are used, what data they access, what applications they run, what threats they encounter, etc.
By monitoring log sources, the risk practitioner can track and measure the actual performance and security of BYOD devices, compare them with the expected outcomes and standards,identify any deviations or anomalies that may indicate a breach or a vulnerability, and take appropriate actions to address them.
Therefore, identifying log sources to monitor BYOD usage and risk impact is a recommended action after a successful risk assessment.
The references for this answer are:
Risk IT Framework, page 10
Information Technology & Security, page 4
Risk Scenarios Starter Pack, page 2
A bank has outsourced its statement printing function to an external service provider. Which of the following is the MOST critical requirement to include in the contract?
Monitoring of service costs
Provision of internal audit reports
Notification of sub-contracting arrangements
Confidentiality of customer data
The MOST critical requirement to include in the contract is the confidentiality of customer data, because it is a legal and ethical obligation of the bank to protect the privacy and security of its customers’ personal and financial information. Outsourcing the statement printing function to an external service provider exposes the customer data to potential unauthorized access, disclosure, or misuse by the service provider or its sub-contractors. Therefore, the contract should specify the terms and conditions for the handling, storage, and disposal of the customer data, as well as the penalties for any breach of confidentiality. The other options are not as critical as the confidentiality of customer data, because:
Option A: Monitoring of service costs is an important requirement to ensure that the service provider delivers the statement printing function within the agreed budget and scope, but it is not as critical as the confidentiality of customer data, which has legal and reputational implications for the bank.
Option B: Provision of internal audit reports is a useful requirement to verify that the service provider complies with the internal and external standards and regulations for the statement printing function, but it is not as critical as the confidentiality of customer data, which is a core value of the bank and its customers.
Option C: Notification of sub-contracting arrangements is a relevant requirement to ensure that the service provider does not delegate the statement printing function to another party without the bank’s consent and oversight, but it is not as critical as the confidentiality of customer data, which is the primary responsibility of the bank and its service provider. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, ISACA, 2020, p. 197.
Which of the following would be the GREATEST concern related to data privacy when implementing an Internet of Things (loT) solution that collects personally identifiable information (Pll)?
A privacy impact assessment has not been completed.
Data encryption methods apply to a subset of Pll obtained.
The data privacy officer was not consulted.
Insufficient access controls are used on the loT devices.
According to the CRISC Review Manual1, access controls are the policies, procedures, practices, and technologies that are designed and implemented to prevent unauthorized or inappropriate access to IT resources and data. Access controls are essential for ensuring the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of data, especially personally identifiable information (Pll), which is any information that can be used to identify, locate, or contact an individual. Insufficient access controls are the greatest concern related to data privacy when implementing an Internet of Things (loT) solution that collects Pll, as they can expose the data to various risks and threats, such asdata leakage, theft, loss, corruption, manipulation, or misuse. Insufficient access controls can also cause legal, regulatory, ethical, or reputational issues for the organization, if the data privacy rights and expectations of the individuals are violated or compromised. References = CRISC Review Manual1, page 240, 253.
Reviewing historical risk events is MOST useful for which of the following processes within the risk management life cycle?
Risk monitoring
Risk mitigation
Risk aggregation
Risk assessment
Reviewing historical risk events is most useful for the risk assessment process within the risk management life cycle. Risk assessment is the process of identifying, analyzing, and evaluating the risks that may affect the project or the organization1. Reviewing historical risk events can help to:
Identify the sources, causes, and consequences of past risks and learn from the successes and failures of previous projects or organizations
Analyze the likelihood and impact of potential risks based on historical data and trends, and use statistical methods or models to estimate the probability and severity of risk scenarios
Evaluate the level of risk exposure and compare it with the risk appetite and tolerance of the project or the organization, and prioritize the risks that need further attention or action
Use historical risk events as inputs or examples for risk identification and analysis techniques, such as brainstorming, checklists, interviews, surveys, SWOT analysis, root cause analysis, or Monte Carlo simulation2
References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5: Risk Assessment Process3
Which of the following should be the PRIMARY focus of a risk owner once a decision is made to mitigate a risk?
Updating the risk register to include the risk mitigation plan
Determining processes for monitoring the effectiveness of the controls
Ensuring that control design reduces risk to an acceptable level
Confirming to management the controls reduce the likelihood of the risk
The primary focus of a risk owner once a decision is made to mitigate a risk is to ensure that the control design reduces the risk to an acceptable level. This means that the risk owner shouldverify that the control objectives, specifications, and implementation are aligned with the risk mitigation plan, and that the control is effective in reducing the risk exposure to within the risk appetite and tolerance of the enterprise. The risk owner should also ensure that the control design is consistent with the enterprise’s policies, standards, and procedures, and that it complies with any relevant laws, regulations, or contractual obligations. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.4, page 185.
Which of the following aspects of risk can be transferred to a third party?
Reputation impact
Ownership
Financial impact
Accountability
While responsibility and accountability generally remain with the enterprise, financial impact (e.g., via insurance or outsourcing) can be transferred to a third party.
Which of the following is MOST important for managing ethical risk?
Involving senior management in resolving ethical disputes
Developing metrics to trend reported ethics violations
Identifying the ethical concerns of each stakeholder
Establishing a code of conduct for employee behavior
Establishing a code of conduct for employee behavior is the most important factor for managing ethical risk, because it defines the standards and expectations for ethical conduct and decision making within the organization, and provides guidance and direction for employees to act in a responsible and ethical manner. Ethical risk is the risk of violating the moral principles or values that govern the behavior and actions of individuals or organizations, such as honesty, integrity, fairness, or respect. A code of conduct is a document that outlines the ethical principles, values, and rules that the organization and its employees must follow, and the consequences of non-compliance. A code of conduct helps to promote a positive and ethical culture within the organization, and to prevent or mitigate the ethical risks that may arise from conflicts of interest, fraud, corruption, discrimination, or other misconduct. Involving senior management in resolving ethical disputes, developing metrics to trend reported ethics violations, and identifying the ethical concerns of each stakeholder are all useful factors for managing ethical risk, but they are not the most important factor, as they do not directly address the ethical conduct and decision making of employees. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2, Section 2.5.1, page 67
A risk practitioner is reporting on an increasing trend of ransomware attacks in the industry. Which of the following information is MOST important to include to enable an informed response decision by key stakeholders?
Methods of attack progression
Losses incurred by industry peers
Most recent antivirus scan reports
Potential impact of events
The potential impact of events is the estimated magnitude and likelihood of the consequences that may result from a risk scenario. The potential impact of events can help key stakeholders understand the severity and urgency of the risk, and prioritize the appropriate response actions. The potential impact of events can be expressed in quantitative or qualitative terms, such as financial loss, operational disruption, reputational damage, legal liability, etc. The potential impact of events is the most important information to include when reporting on an increasing trend of ransomware attacks in the industry, as it can help stakeholders assess the level of risk exposure and the adequacy of the existing controls. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.3: Risk Analysis, p. 87-89.
Which of the following statements BEST illustrates the relationship between key performance indicators (KPIs) and key control indicators (KCIs)?
KPIs measure manual controls, while KCIs measure automated controls.
KPIs and KCIs both contribute to understanding of control effectiveness.
A robust KCI program will replace the need to measure KPIs.
KCIs are applied at the operational level while KPIs are at the strategic level.
Key performance indicators (KPIs) are metrics or measures that provide information on the progress and performance of an organization or a team toward an intended result orobjective. KPIs can help to monitor and evaluate the achievement of strategic, operational, or tactical goals, and to support the decision making and improvement of the organization or the team1.
Key control indicators (KCIs) are metrics or measures that provide information on the status and effectiveness of the controls or safeguards that are implemented to manage the risks or threats that an organization or a team faces. KCIs can help to identify and assess the strengths and weaknesses of the controls or safeguards, and to ensure the compliance and accountability of the organization or the team2.
The statement that best illustrates the relationship between KPIs and KCIs is that KPIs and KCIs both contribute to understanding of control effectiveness, because they can help to:
Measure and compare the actual and expected outcomes and impacts of the controls or safeguards, and to determine the gaps or deviations
Analyze and understand the causes and consequences of the gaps or deviations, and to identify the root problems or issues
Evaluate and report the performance and compliance of the controls or safeguards, and to communicate the results and feedback to the stakeholders
Improve and optimize the design and implementation of the controls or safeguards, and to enhance the efficiency and effectiveness of the risk management process34
The other statements do not illustrate the relationship between KPIs and KCIs accurately, but rather some of the differences or misconceptions between them. KPIs measure manual controls, while KCIs measure automated controls is a difference between KPIs and KCIs, but not a general one. KPIs and KCIs can measure both manual and automated controls, depending on the type and nature of the controls or safeguards.A robust KCI program will replace the need to measure KPIs is a misconception about KPIs and KCIs, as they are not mutually exclusive or substitutable. KPIs and KCIs complement and support each other, as they provide different but related information on the performance and risk management of the organization or the team. KCIs are applied at the operational level while KPIs are at the strategic level is a difference between KPIs and KCIs, but not a universal one. KPIs and KCIs can be applied at different levels of the organization or the team, depending on the scope and purpose of the measurement and evaluation. References =
Key Performance Indicator (KPI): Definition, Types, and Examples
Key Control Indicators - ISACA
Key Control Indicators: What They Are and How to Use Them
Key Performance Indicators vs. Key Control Indicators: What’s the Difference?
[CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition]
Which of the following management actions will MOST likely change the likelihood rating of a risk scenario related to remote network access?
Creating metrics to track remote connections
Updating remote desktop software
Implementing multi-factor authentication (MFA)
Updating the organizational policy for remote access
Implementing multi-factor authentication (MFA) directly reduces the likelihood of unauthorized access by adding an extra layer of verification to remote network access. ISACA and CRISC materials emphasize that technical controls (e.g., MFA) meaningfully reduce the probability of threat scenarios involving remote access
Which of the following is MOST important for effective communication of a risk profile to relevant stakeholders?
Emphasizing risk in the risk profile that is related to critical business activities
Customizing the presentation of the risk profile to the intended audience
Including details of risk with high deviation from the risk appetite
Providing information on the efficiency of controls for risk mitigation
Customizing the risk profile presentation ensures that stakeholders receive information in a format and context relevant to their roles. Tailored communication improves understanding, aligns risk discussions with decision-making needs, and ensures the stakeholders are equipped to act on the information effectively.
Accept the residual risk due to the low likelihood of occurrence.
Implement additional mitigation measures.
Determine whether residual risk is within risk appetite.
Adopt a new risk assessment method to avoid the residual risk.
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
When a risk treatment plan does not reduce residual risk as expected, the immediate next step is to evaluate whether the current level of residual risk remains within the organization's defined risk appetite. If the residual risk is acceptable per the risk appetite, it may be tolerable without further mitigation. If it exceeds risk appetite, additional measures should be considered. Changing the risk assessment method is not a direct response to residual risk management. Acceptance should only occur if the risk is within tolerance levels【5:230, 5:231†CRISC_SentenceinNOTE30.pptx】.
To minimize risk in a software development project, when is the BEST time to conduct a risk analysis?
During the business requirement definitions phase
Before periodic steering committee meetings
At each stage of the development life cycle
During the business case development
The best time to conduct a risk analysis in a software development project is at each stage of the development life cycle. This is because risks can emerge or change at any point of the project, and they need to be identified, assessed, and managed as soon as possible. By conducting a risk analysis at each stage, the project team can ensure that the risks are aligned with the project objectives, scope, and deliverables, and that the appropriate risk responses are implemented and monitored. Conducting a risk analysis at each stage can also help to avoid or reduce the impact of potential issues, such as schedule delays, cost overruns, quality defects, and customer dissatisfaction. The other options are not the best time to conduct a risk analysis, although they may be useful or necessary depending on the project context and nature. Conducting a risk analysis during the business requirement definitions phase is important, but it is not sufficient, as the risks may change or evolve as the project progresses. Conducting a risk analysis before periodic steering committee meetings is a good practice, but it is not the only time to do so, as the risks may arise or escalate between the meetings. Conducting a risk analysis during the business case development is a part of the project initiation process, but it is not the most effective time, as the risks may not be fully known or understood at that stage. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2: Risk Identification, Section 2.1: Risk Identification Process, p. 79-80.
A risk practitioner is summarizing the results of a high-profile risk assessment sponsored by senior management. The BEST way to support risk-based decisions by senior management would be to:
map findings to objectives.
provide quantified detailed analysis
recommend risk tolerance thresholds.
quantify key risk indicators (KRls).
The best way to support risk-based decisions by senior management would be to map findings to objectives, because this would help them understand how the identified risks affect theachievement of the organization’s goals and priorities. Mapping findings to objectives would also help senior management evaluate the trade-offs between different risk responses and allocate resources accordingly. By linking risks to objectives, the risk practitioner can communicate the value and impact of risk management in a clear and relevant way. References = Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2022, p. 17
An organization is planning to acquire a new financial system. Which of the following stakeholders would provide the MOST relevant information for analyzing the risk associated with the new IT solution?
Project sponsor
Process owner
Risk manager
Internal auditor
The process owner is the stakeholder who is responsible for the business process that will be supported by the new IT solution. The process owner has the best knowledge of the businessrequirements, objectives, and risks associated with the process. The process owner can provide the most relevant information for analyzing the risk associated with the new IT solution, such as the expected benefits, costs, performance, functionality, security, and compliance of the solution. The process owner can also help to identify and evaluate the potential impact and likelihood of the risk scenarios related to the new IT solution. The other stakeholders may have some information or insights, but they are not as directly involved or affected by the new IT solution as the process owner. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.3.1.1, pp. 58-59.
A business unit is implementing a data analytics platform to enhance its customer relationship management (CRM) system primarily to process data that has been provided by its customers. Which of the following presents the GREATEST risk to the organization's reputation?
Third-party software is used for data analytics.
Data usage exceeds individual consent.
Revenue generated is not disclosed to customers.
Use of a data analytics system is not disclosed to customers.
Data usage exceeding individual consent presents the greatest risk to the organization’s reputation, as it violates the privacy and trust of the customers and exposes the organization to legal and regulatory liabilities. Customers have the right to know and control how their personal data is collected, processed, and shared by the organization, and they expect the organization to respect their preferences and comply with the applicable laws and standards. If the organization uses the data for purposes beyond the scope of the consent, or without obtaining the consent in the first place, it may damage its reputation and lose its customers’ loyalty and confidence. Third-party software used for data analytics, revenue generated from data analytics, and use of a data analytics system are not inherently risky to the organization’s reputation, as long as they are transparent, secure, and ethical. References = Most Asked CRISC Exam Questions and Answers - The Knowledge Academy; ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 203.
Which of the following roles would provide the MOST important input when identifying IT risk scenarios?
Information security managers
Internal auditors
Business process owners
Operational risk managers
Business process owners would provide the most important input when identifying IT risk scenarios. IT risk scenarios are the situations or events that may affect the organization’s objectives, operations, or performance due to the use of information andtechnology1. Identifying IT risk scenarios means finding,recognizing, and describing the IT risks that the organization faces, as well as their sources, drivers, consequences, and responses2. Business process owners are the persons or entities who are responsible for the design, implementation, and operation of the business processes that support the organization’s goals and values3. Business process owners would provide the most important input when identifying IT risk scenarios, because they can:
Provide the context and perspective of the business objectives, strategies, and requirements that are affected or supported by the IT risks and controls;
Identify and prioritize the IT risks that are relevant and significant to their business processes, as well as the IT assets and resources that are involved or impacted by the IT risks;
Evaluate and communicate the likelihood and impact of the IT risks on their business processes, as well as the risk appetite and tolerance of their business units;
Suggest and implement the most suitable and effective IT risk response actions or measures to mitigate the IT risks, as well as monitor and report on the IT risk and control performance;
Align and integrate the IT risk management activities and outcomes with the business risk management framework, policies, and standards. The other options are not the most important roles for providing input when identifying IT risk scenarios, as they are either less relevant or less specific than business process owners. Information security managers are the persons or entities who are responsible for the planning, implementation, and maintenance of the information security measures and controls that protect the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the organization’s data and systems4. Information security managers can provide input when identifying IT risk scenarios, because they can:
Provide the expertise and guidance on the information security risks and controls that are related to the use of information and technology;
Identify and assess the information security vulnerabilities and threats that may affect the organization’s data and systems, as well as the information security assets and resources that are involved or impacted by the information security risks;
Recommend and implement the most appropriate and effective information security risk response actions or measures to reduce or eliminate the information security risks, as well as monitor and report on the information security risk and control performance;
Align and integrate the information security risk management activities and outcomes with the information security framework, policies, and standards. However, information security managers are not the most important roles for providing input when identifying IT risk scenarios, because they may not have the full understanding or visibility of the business objectives, strategies, and requirements that are affected or supported by the IT risks and controls, or the risk appetite and tolerance of the business units. Internal auditors are the persons or entities who areresponsible for theindependent and objective assurance and consulting on the effectiveness and efficiency of the organization’s governance, risk management, and internal control system5. Internal auditors can provide input when identifying IT risk scenarios, because they can:
Provide the assurance and validation on the design and operation of the IT risks and controls that are related to the use of information and technology;
Identify and evaluate the IT risk and control gaps or deficiencies that may affect the organization’s objectives, operations, or performance, as well as the IT risk and control objectives and activities that are involved or impacted by the IT risk and control gaps or deficiencies;
Report and recommend improvements or enhancements to the IT risks and controls, as well as follow up and verify the implementation and effectiveness of the IT risk and control improvements or enhancements;
Align and integrate the IT risk and control assurance and consulting activities and outcomes with the internal audit framework, policies, and standards. However, internal auditors are not the most important roles for providing input when identifying IT risk scenarios, because they may not have the authority or responsibility to implement or operate the IT risks and controls, or to decide or prioritize the IT risk response actions or measures. Operational risk managers are the persons or entities who are responsible for the identification, analysis, evaluation, and treatment of the risks that arise from the failures or inadequacies of the organization’s people, processes, systems, or external events6. Operational risk managers can provide input when identifying IT risk scenarios, because they can:
Provide the oversight and coordination of the operational risk management activities and performance across the organization, including the IT risks and controls that are related to the use of information and technology;
Identify and prioritize the operational risks that are relevant and significant to the organization, as well as the operational assets and resources that are involved or impacted by the operational risks;
Evaluate and communicate the likelihood and impact of the operational risks on the organization, as well as the risk appetite and tolerance of the organization;
Suggest and implement the most suitable and effective operational risk response actions or measures to mitigate the operational risks, as well as monitor and report on the operational risk and control performance;
Align and integrate the operational risk management activities and outcomes with the operational risk management framework, policies, and standards. However, operational risk managers are not the most important roles for providing input when identifying IT risk scenarios, because they may not have the specific knowledge or expertise on the IT risks and controls that are related to the use of information and technology, or the context and perspective of the business processes that are affected or supported by the IT risks and controls. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3, Section 3.1.1, Page 85.
What is a risk practitioner's BEST approach to monitor and measure how quickly an exposure to a specific risk can affect the organization?
Create an asset valuation report.
Create key performance indicators (KPls).
Create key risk indicators (KRIs).
Create a risk volatility report.
Key risk indicators (KRIs) are metrics that measure the exposure to a given risk at a particular time. They can also provide early warning signs of a potential change in risk level. By monitoring KRIs, risk practitioners can assess how quickly an exposure to a specific risk can affect the organization and take appropriate actions.
References
•Risk management at the speed of business - PwC
•Risk velocity measures how fast an exposure can affect an organization | Business Insurance
Sensitive data has been lost after an employee inadvertently removed a file from the premises, in violation of organizational policy. Which of the following controls MOST likely failed?
Background checks
Awareness training
User access
Policy management
Awareness training is the most likely control that failed in this scenario, as it is designed to educate employees on the proper handling and protection of sensitive data, and the consequences of violating the organizational policy. Awareness training can help to prevent or reduce the occurrence of human errors, such as inadvertently removing a file from the premises, that may result in data loss or breach. The other options are not the most likely controls that failed, as they are either not directly related to the scenario or not sufficient to prevent the incident. Background checks are used to verify the identity, qualifications, and trustworthiness of potential or current employees, but they do not ensure that employees will always follow the policy or avoidmistakes. User access is used to restrict the access to information systems or resources based on the identity, role, or credentials of the user, but it does not prevent the user from copying or removing the data once they have access. Policy management is used to create, communicate, and enforce the organizational policy, but it does not ensure that employees will understand orcomply with the policy. References = Sensitive Data Essentials – The Lifecycle Of A Sensitive File; Personal data breach examples | ICO; How do I prevent staff accidentally sending personal information … - GCIT; 10 Ways to Protect Sensitive Employee Information; My personal data has been lost after a breach, what are my rights …
Improvements in the design and implementation of a control will MOST likely result in an update to:
inherent risk.
residual risk.
risk appetite
risk tolerance
Residual risk is the risk that remains after applying controls to mitigate the inherent risk. Inherent risk is the risk that exists before considering the controls. Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. Risk tolerance is the acceptable level of variation from the risk appetite. Improvements in the design and implementation of a control will most likely result in an update to the residual risk, because they will reduce the likelihood and impact of the risk event, and therefore lower the risk exposure and value. By improving the design and implementation of a control, the organization can enhance the effectiveness and efficiency of the control, and ensure that it is aligned with the risk objectives, expectations, and outcomes. The improvement can also address any gaps, overlaps, redundancies, or conflicts among the controls, and any changes or enhancements that are needed to optimize the controls. The other options are less likely to be updated due to improvements in the design and implementation of a control. The inherent risk will not change, as it is based on the nature and value of the asset and the threats and vulnerabilities that exist. The risk appetite and the risk tolerance will also not change, as they are based on the organization’s culture, strategy, and stakeholder expectations. Therefore, the most likely factor to be updated is the residual risk, as it reflects the actual risk level that the organization faces after applying the controls. References = Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2022, p. 131
Which of the following is PRIMARILY responsible for providing assurance to the board of directors and senior management during the evaluation of a risk management program implementation?
Risk management
Business units
External audit
Internal audit
Internal audit provides independent assurance to the board and senior management regarding the effectiveness of risk management program implementation, consistent withGovernance and Assurance Principles.
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when sharing risk management updates with executive management?
Including trend analysis of risk metrics
Using an aggregated view of organizational risk
Relying on key risk indicator (KRI) data
Ensuring relevance to organizational goals
The most important consideration when sharing risk management updates with executive management is ensuring relevance to organizational goals. This means that the risk information presented should align with the strategic objectives and priorities of the organization, and demonstrate how risk management supports the achievement of those goals. Executive management is responsible for setting the direction and vision of the organization, and therefore needs to understand how risk management contributes to the value creation and protection of the organization. By ensuring relevance to organizational goals, risk management updates can help executive management make informed decisions, allocate resources, and communicate with stakeholders.
Some of the ways to ensure relevance to organizational goals are:
Linking risk management updates to the organization’s mission, vision, values, and strategy
Highlighting the key risks and opportunities that affect the organization’s performance and competitiveness
Providing clear and concise risk reports that focus on the most critical and material risks
Using a common risk language and framework that is understood by executive management
Providing actionable recommendations and solutions to address the identified risks
Aligning risk management updates with the organization’s reporting cycle and governance structure
References =
The Importance of Integrating Risk Management with Strategy
Four steps for managing risk at the CEO level
5 Key Principles of Successful Risk Management
Which of the following is the BEST approach when a risk practitioner has been asked by a business unit manager to exclude an in-scope system from a risk assessment?
Postpone the risk assessment.
Facilitate the exception process.
Accept the manager's request.
Reject the manager's request.
Facilitating the exception process ensures that any deviations from the standard risk assessment procedures are formally documented, reviewed, and approved by appropriate governance bodies. This approach maintains the integrity of the risk management process while addressing the business unit manager's concerns.
Which of the following poses the GREATEST risk to an organization's operations during a major it transformation?
Lack of robust awareness programs
infrequent risk assessments of key controls
Rapid changes in IT procedures
Unavailability of critical IT systems
Unavailability of critical IT systems poses the greatest risk to an organization’s operations during a major IT transformation, because it can disrupt the business continuity, productivity, and performance of the organization. Unavailability of critical IT systems can also cause financial, reputational, or legal damages to the organization, and affect the quality and delivery of products or services to the customers. The other options are not the greatest risks, although they may also pose some challenges or threats to the organization during a major IT transformation. Lack of robust awareness programs, infrequent risk assessments of key controls, and rapid changes in IT procedures are examples of management or process risks that can affect the planning, execution,or monitoring of the IT transformation, but they do not have the same impact or severity as the unavailability of critical IT systems. References = CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions
Which of the following is MOST important to the effective monitoring of key risk indicators (KRIS)?
Updating the threat inventory with new threats
Automating log data analysis
Preventing the generation of false alerts
Determining threshold levels
Key risk indicators (KRIs) are metrics that provide information about the level of exposure to a specific risk or a group of risks.
The most important factor to the effective monitoring of KRIs is determining threshold levels. This means that the acceptable or unacceptable values or ranges of the KRIs are defined and agreed upon by the relevant stakeholders.
Determining threshold levels helps to evaluate the actual performance and impact of the risks, compare them with the risk appetite and tolerance of the organization, identify any deviations or breaches that may require attention or action, and report them to the appropriate parties for decision making or improvement actions.
The other options are not the most important factors to the effective monitoring of KRIs. They are either secondary or not essential for KRIs.
The references for this answer are:
Risk IT Framework, page 15
Information Technology & Security, page 9
Risk Scenarios Starter Pack, page 7
Which of the following is MOST critical when designing controls?
Involvement of internal audit
Involvement of process owner
Quantitative impact of the risk
Identification of key risk indicators
The most critical factor when designing controls is the involvement of the process owner, who is the person responsible for the performance and outcomes of a business process. The process owner has the best knowledge and understanding of the process objectives, activities, inputs,outputs, resources, and risks. The process owner can provide valuable input and feedback on the design of controls that are relevant, effective, efficient, and aligned with the process goals. The process owner can also ensure that the controls are implemented, monitored, and improved as needed. The involvement of the process owner can also increase the acceptance and ownership of the controls by the process participants and stakeholders. The other options are less critical when designing controls. The involvement of internal audit can provide assurance and advice on the adequacy and effectiveness of the controls, but internal audit is not responsible for the design or implementation of the controls. The quantitative impact of the risk can help to prioritize and justify the controls, but it is not sufficient to determine the appropriate type and level of controls. The identification of key risk indicators can help to monitor and measure the risk and the performance of the controls, but it is not the main driver of the control design. References = Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2022, p. 181
A new risk practitioner finds that decisions for implementing risk response plans are not being made. Which of the following would MOST likely explain this situation?
Risk ownership is not being assigned properly.
The organization has a high level of risk appetite.
Risk management procedures are outdated.
The organization's risk awareness program is ineffective.
Which of the following is the MOST efficient method for monitoring control effectiveness?
Conduct control self-assessments (CSAs)
Review system performance logs
Compare controls to business metrics
Perform independent periodic control testing
Control Self-Assessments (CSAs)provide an efficient way for process owners and staff to assess control effectiveness continuously. ISACA recognizes CSAs as a proactive approach that encourages accountability and early detection of control weaknesses, reducing the need for frequent external testing.
===========
Which of the following would be a risk practitioner's GREATEST concern with the use of a vulnerability scanning tool?
Increased time to remediate vulnerabilities
Inaccurate reporting of results
Increased number of vulnerabilities
Network performance degradation
The greatest concern for a risk practitioner with the use of a vulnerability scanning tool is the inaccurate reporting of results. A vulnerability scanning tool is a software that scans the network or system for known vulnerabilities and generates a report of the findings. However, the tool may produce false positives (reporting vulnerabilities that do not exist) or false negatives (missing vulnerabilities that do exist). This can lead to incorrect risk assessment, ineffective risk response, and wasted resources. Increased time to remediate vulnerabilities, increased number of vulnerabilities, and network performance degradation are other possible concerns, but they are not as critical as the inaccurate reporting of results. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 7; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 202.
After undertaking a risk assessment of a production system, the MOST appropriate action is for the risk manager to:
recommend a program that minimizes the concerns of that production system.
inform the development team of the concerns, and together formulate risk reduction measures.
inform the process owner of the concerns and propose measures to reduce them
inform the IT manager of the concerns and propose measures to reduce them.
A risk assessment of a production system is a process of identifying, analyzing, evaluating, and treating the risks that may affect the performance, quality, or safety of the production system, which is a system that transforms inputs into outputs using various resources, processes, and technologies12.
The most appropriate action for the risk manager to take after undertaking a risk assessment of a production system is to inform the process owner of the concerns and propose measures to reduce them, which is a process of communicating and consulting with the person who is responsible for the design, operation, and improvement of the production system, and suggesting possible risk responses that can prevent, mitigate, transfer, or accept the risks34.
This action is the most appropriate because it ensures the involvement and collaboration of the process owner, who has the authority and accountability to implement and monitor the risk responses, and who can provide feedback and input on the feasibility and effectiveness of the proposed measures34.
This action is also the most appropriate because it supports the risk management process and objectives, which are to identify and address the risks that may affect the achievement of the organization’s goals and the delivery of value to the stakeholders34.
The other options are not the most appropriate actions, but rather possible alternatives or supplements that may have some limitations or drawbacks. For example:
Recommending a program that minimizes the concerns of the production system is an action that involves designing and planning a set of coordinated and interrelated activities and tasks that aim to reduce the likelihood or impact of the risks34. However, this action is notthe most appropriate because it does not involve the process owner, who is the key stakeholder and decision maker for the production system, and who may have different views or preferences on the risk responses34.
Informing the development team of the concerns, and together formulating risk reduction measures is an action that involves communicating and consulting with the group of people who are responsible for creating, testing, and deploying the products or services that are produced by the production system, and jointly developing possible risk responses34. However, this action is not the most appropriate because it does not involvethe process owner, who is the primary owner and user of the production system, and who may have different needs or expectations on the risk responses34.
Informing the IT manager of the concerns and proposing measures to reduce them is an action that involves communicating and consulting with the person who is responsible for managing and overseeing the IT resources, processes, and systems that support the production system, and suggesting possible risk responses34. However, this action is not the most appropriate because it does not involve the process owner, who is the main stakeholder and beneficiary of the production system, and who may have different requirements or constraints on the risk responses34. References =
1: Risk Assessment for the Production Process1
2: Risk Assessment for Industrial Equipment2
3: Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2009
4: IT Risk Management Framework, University of Toronto, 2017
Which of the following would MOST effectively enable a business operations manager to identify events exceeding risk thresholds?
Continuous monitoring
A control self-assessment
Transaction logging
Benchmarking against peers
Events exceeding risk thresholds are situations or occurrences that result in the actual level of risk exceeding the acceptable or tolerable level of risk, as defined by the organization’s risk appetite, criteria, and objectives12.
The most effective way to enable a business operations manager to identify events exceeding risk thresholds is to implement continuous monitoring, which is a process that involves collecting and analyzing data and information on the performance and status of the business processes, systems, and controls, and detecting and reporting any deviations, anomalies, or issues that may indicate a risk event34.
Continuous monitoring is the most effective way because it provides timely and accurate visibility and insight into the risk landscape, and enables the business operations manager to identify and respond to the events exceeding risk thresholds before they escalate or cause significant harm or damage to the organization34.
Continuous monitoring is also the most effective way because it supports the risk management process and objectives, which are to identify and address the risks that may affect the achievement of the organization’s goals and the delivery of value to the stakeholders34.
The other options are not the most effective ways, but rather possible tools or techniques that may complement or enhance the continuous monitoring. For example:
A control self-assessment is a technique that involves engaging and empowering the business process owners and operators to evaluate and report on the effectiveness and efficiency of the controls that are designed and implemented to mitigate the risks56. However, this technique is not the most effective way because it is periodic rather than continuous, and it may not capture or communicate the events exceeding risk thresholds in a timely or consistent manner56.
Transaction logging is a tool that involves recording and storing the details and history of the transactions or activities that are performed by the business processes or systems, and providing an audit trail for verification or investigation purposes78. However, this tool is not the most effective way because it is passive rather than active, and it may not detect or report the events exceeding risk thresholds unless they are analyzed or queried78.
Benchmarking against peers is a technique that involves comparing and contrasting the performance and practices of the business processes or systems with those of the similar or leading organizations in the same or related industry, and identifying the gaps or opportunities for improvement . However, this technique is not the most effective way because it is external rather than internal, and it may not reflect or align with the organization’s specific risk appetite, criteria, and objectives . References =
1: Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2009
2: IT Risk Management Framework, University of Toronto, 2017
3: Continuous Monitoring - ISACA1
4: Continuous Monitoring: A New Approach to Risk Management - ISACA Journal2
5: Risk and control self-assessment - KPMG Global3
6: Control Self Assessments - PwC4
7: Transaction Log - Wikipedia5
8: Transaction Logging - IBM6
Benchmarking - Wikipedia7
Benchmarking: Definition, Types, Process, Advantages & Examples
When communicating changes in the IT risk profile, which of the following should be included to BEST enable stakeholder decision making?
List of recent incidents affecting industry peers
Results of external attacks and related compensating controls
Gaps between current and desired states of the control environment
Review of leading IT risk management practices within the industry
The best thing to include when communicating changes in the IT risk profile is the gaps between the current and desired states of the control environment, as this shows the stakeholders the extent and impact of the changes, and the actions and resources needed to address them. The control environment is the set of policies, processes, and systems that provide reasonableassurance that the IT risks are identified, assessed, and treated effectively and efficiently. The current state of the control environment reflects the existing level and performance of the controls, and the residual risk that remains after the controls are applied. The desired state of the control environment reflects the target level and performance of the controls, and the risk appetite and tolerance of the organization. The gaps between the current and desired states of the control environment indicate the areas of improvement or enhancement for the IT risk management process, and the priorities and strategies for risk response. The other options are not the best things to include when communicating changes in the IT risk profile, although they may be useful or relevant information. A list of recent incidents affecting industry peers can provide some context and comparison for the IT risk profile, but it does not measure or explain the changes in the IT risk level or the control environment. Results of external attacks and related compensating controls can demonstrate the security and resilience of the IT systems and networks, but they do not cover the entire scope or spectrum of the IT risk profile or the control environment. A review of leading IT risk management practices within the industry can provide some insights and benchmarks for the IT risk management process, but it does not reflect thespecific situation or needs of the organization or the stakeholders. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, page 181.
Which of the following should be the MOST important consideration for senior management when developing a risk response strategy?
Cost of controls
Risk tolerance
Risk appetite
Probability definition
Risk response strategy is the approach that an organization takes to address the risks that it faces across its various functions, processes, and activities. Risk response strategy involves selecting and implementingthe appropriate risk response options, such as avoidance, mitigation, transfer, or acceptance, for each risk, based on the risk level, the risk appetite, and the cost-benefit analysis1.
The most important consideration for senior management when developing a risk response strategy is the risk appetite of the organization. Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in order to achieve its objectives. Risk appetite reflects the organization’s risk attitude and its willingness to take on risk in specific scenarios. Risk appetite is usually expressed in a qualitative statement approved by the board of directors2.
Considering the risk appetite of the organization is essential for developing a risk response strategy, because it can help to:
Align the risk response strategy with the overall business strategy and vision, and ensure that the risk response options support the achievement of the organizational objectives
Balance the risk response strategy with the expected benefits and opportunities, and ensure that the risk response options do not eliminate or reduce the potential value or performance of the organization
Enhance the risk response strategy with the stakeholder expectations and requirements, and ensure that the risk response options meet the needs and interests of the customers, suppliers, partners, regulators, and other parties
Optimize the risk response strategy with the available resources and capabilities, and ensure that the risk response options are feasible and cost-effective for the organization34
The other options are not as important as the risk appetite of the organization for developing a risk response strategy, but rather some of the factors or outcomes of it. Cost of controls is the amount of resources and funds that are required to implement and maintain the risk response controls, such as policies, procedures, or technologies, that aim to prevent or reduce the negative effects of the risks. Cost of controls is a factor that can affect the selection and implementation of the risk response options, but it is not the primary consideration for developing the risk response strategy. Risk tolerance is the acceptable variation in the outcomes related to specific objectives or risks. Risk tolerance is a factor that can measure the risk analysis and guide the risk response, but it is not the primary consideration for developing the risk response strategy. Probability definition is the process of estimating the likelihood or frequency of the risk events, based on historical data, statistical analysis, expert judgment, or other methods. Probability definition is anoutcome of the risk analysis that can inform the risk response, but it is not the primary consideration for developing the risk response strategy. References =
Risk Response - ISACA
Risk Appetite vs. Risk Tolerance: What is the Difference? - ISACA
Risk Response Strategies: Types & Examples (+ Free Template)
Risk Response Strategy - ISACA
[CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition]
A risk practitioner has discovered a deficiency in a critical system that cannot be patched. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action?
Report the issue to internal audit.
Submit a request to change management.
Conduct a risk assessment.
Review the business impact assessment.
The first course of action for a risk practitioner when discovering a deficiency in a critical system that cannot be patched is to conduct a risk assessment. A risk assessment is a process of identifying, analyzing, and evaluating the risks that could affect the achievement of the objectives of the system or the organization. A risk assessment helps to determine the level and nature of the risk exposure, and to prioritize and respond to the risks. Conducting a risk assessment is the first course of action, as it helps to understand the source, cause, and impact of the deficiency, and to estimate the likelihood and consequences of the risk events that could exploit the deficiency. Conducting a risk assessment also helps to identify and evaluate the existing or potential controls or mitigations that could address the deficiency, and to recommend the appropriate risk treatment options. Reporting the issue to internal audit, submitting a request to change management, and reviewing the business impact assessment are not the first courses ofaction, as they are either the outputs or the inputs of the risk assessment process, and they do not address the primary need of assessing the risk situation and status. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 49.
Which of the following is MOST important to consider when determining risk appetite?
Service level agreements (SLAs)
Risk heat map
IT capacity
Risk culture
Risk culture encompasses the values, beliefs, and attitudes towards risk within an organization. It significantly influences how risk appetite is defined and communicated. Understanding the organization's risk culture ensures that the established risk appetite aligns with stakeholder expectations and supports effective risk management practices.
Several newly identified risk scenarios are being integrated into an organization's risk register. The MOST appropriate risk owner would be the individual who:
is in charge of information security.
is responsible for enterprise risk management (ERM)
can implement remediation action plans.
is accountable for loss if the risk materializes.
According to the CRISC Review Manual, a risk owner is the person who is accountable for the risk and its associated mitigation actions. The risk owner is responsible for monitoring the risk, reporting the risk status, and implementing the risk response. Therefore, the most appropriate risk owner would be the individual who is accountable for loss if the risk materializes, as it implies that they have the authority and the incentive to manage the risk effectively. The other options are not the most appropriate risk owners, as they are not directly accountable for the risk or its consequences. The person who is in charge of information security is responsible for overseeing the IT security function and ensuring that the IT security policy is enforced, but they may not have the authority or the resources to manage the risk. The person who is responsible for enterprise risk management (ERM) is responsible for establishing and maintaining the ERM framework and processes, but they may not have the knowledge or the involvement to manage the risk. The person who can implement remediation action plans is responsible for executing the risk response, but they may not have the decision-making power or the accountability to manage the risk. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3, Section 3.1.2, page 108.
The MOST important objective of information security controls is to:
Identify threats and vulnerability
Ensure alignment with industry standards
Provide measurable risk reduction
Enforce strong security solutions
The most important objective of information security controls is to provide measurable risk reduction. Information security controls are the policies, procedures, techniques, or technologies that are implemented to protect the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information assets. The main purpose of information security controls is to reduce the risk of unauthorized access, use, disclosure,modification, or destruction of information assets, and to ensure that the information assets support the enterprise’s objectives and performance. Information security controls should be measurable, meaning that they should have clear and quantifiable criteria for evaluating their effectiveness and efficiency in reducing the risk exposure to an acceptable level. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3, Section 3.1.1, page 1151
Which of the following is the BEST key control indicator (KCI) for measuring the security of a blockchain network?
Number of active nodes
Blockchain size in gigabytes
Average transaction speed
Number of validated transactions
The number of validated transactions is a critical indicator of a blockchain network's security. It reflects the network's ability to accurately and securely process transactions, ensuring data integrity and trustworthiness. A higher number of validated transactions indicates robust consensus mechanisms and effective security controls within the blockchain infrastructure.
A vendor’s planned maintenance schedule will cause a critical application to temporarily lose failover capabilities. Of the following, who should approve this proposed schedule?
Business application owner
Business continuity manager
Chief risk officer (CRO)
IT infrastructure manager
The business application owner is accountable for business impact and must approve any change that affects application availability. ISACA’s CRISC emphasis on ownership roles indicates business owners should approve changes with risk implications.
A poster has been displayed in a data center that reads. "Anyone caught taking photographs in the data center may be subject to disciplinary action." Which of the following control types has been implemented?
Corrective
Detective
Deterrent
Preventative
A deterrent control is a type of control that has been implemented by displaying a poster that reads “Anyone caught taking photographs in the data center may be subject to disciplinary action.”, as it aims to discourage or prevent unauthorized or malicious activities by warning the potential perpetrators of the consequences or sanctions. The other options are not the correct types of control, as they are more related to the correction, detection, or prevention of unauthorized or malicious activities, respectively, rather than the deterrence of unauthorized or malicious activities. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 154.
The FIRST task when developing a business continuity plan should be to:
determine data backup and recovery availability at an alternate site.
identify critical business functions and resources.
define roles and responsibilities for implementation.
identify recovery time objectives (RTOs) for critical business applications.
A business continuity plan (BCP) is a system of prevention and recovery from potential threats to a company. The plan ensures that personnel and assets are protected and are able to function quickly in the event of a disaster1. The first task when developing a BCP should be to identify critical business functions and resources, because this will help to determine the scope, objectives, and priorities of the plan. Critical business functions and resources are those that are essential for the continuity of the company’s operations, and that would cause significant disruption or damage if they were interrupted or lost. By identifying critical business functions and resources, the company can focus its efforts and resources on protecting and restoring them, and minimizing the impact of a disaster. The other options are not the first task when developing a BCP, because they depend on the identification of critical business functions and resources, as explained below:
A. Determine data backup and recovery availability at an alternate site is a task that relates to the recovery strategy of the BCP, which aims to restore the data and information systems that support the critical business functions and resources. However, this task cannot be performed without first identifying which data and information systems are critical, and what level of availability and recovery they require.
C. Define roles and responsibilities for implementation is a task that relates to the organization and governance of the BCP, which aims to assign and communicate the duties and expectations of the personnel involved in the plan. However, this task cannot be performed without first identifying which personnel are critical, and what functions and resources they are responsible for.
D. Identify recovery time objectives (RTOs) for critical business applications is a task that relates to the analysis and evaluation of the BCP, which aims to measure the acceptable downtime and recovery speed of the critical business functions and resources. However, this task cannot be performed without first identifying which business applications are critical, and what impact and likelihood they have. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.1, page 115. What Is a Business Continuity Plan (BCP), and How Does It Work?, Business continuity plan (BCP) in 8 steps, with templates | BDC.ca, How Develop a Business Continuity Plan - Invenio IT, Business Continuity Planning | Ready.gov, Develop a Robust Business Continuity Plan | Wrike
Which of the following is the BEST method of creating risk awareness in an organization?
Marking the risk register available to project stakeholders
Ensuring senior management commitment to risk training
Providing regular communication to risk managers
Appointing the risk manager from the business units
The best method of creating risk awareness in an organization is to ensure senior management commitment to risk training. Senior management plays a vital role in setting the tone and direction of the risk culture and governance in the organization. By demonstrating their support and participation in risk training, they can influence and motivate the employees to follow the risk policies and procedures, and to enhance their risk knowledge and skills. Marking the risk register available to project stakeholders, providing regular communication to risk managers, and appointing the risk manager from the business units are other methods of creating risk awareness, but they are not as effective as ensuring senior management commitment to risk training. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 12; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 215.
Which of the following should be the PRIMARY input when designing IT controls?
Benchmark of industry standards
Internal and external risk reports
Recommendations from IT risk experts
Outcome of control self-assessments
The primary input when designing IT controls should be internal and external risk reports. IT controls are specific activities performed by persons or systems to ensure that business objectives are met, and thatthe confidentiality, integrity, and availability of data and the overall management of the IT function are ensured1. Designing IT controls means creating and implementing the appropriate measures or actions to reduce the likelihood or impact of the IT risks that may affect the organization2. Internal and external risk reports are documents that provide information and analysis on the current and potential IT risks that the organization faces, as well as their sources, drivers, consequences, and responses3. Internal risk reports are generated by the organization itself, such as by the IT risk management function, the internal audit function, or the business units. External risk reports are obtained from external sources, such as regulators, industry associations, or third-party service providers. Internal and external risk reports are the primary input when designing IT controls, because they help to:
Identify and prioritize the IT risks that need to be addressed by the IT controls;
Evaluate the likelihood and impact of the IT risks, and compare them against the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance;
Determine the most suitable and effective IT control objectives and activities to mitigate the IT risks;
Align the IT control design and implementation with the organization’s objectives, strategies, and values;
Monitor and measure the performance and effectiveness of the IT controls in reducing the IT risks. The other options are not the primary input when designing IT controls, as they are either less relevant or less specific than internal and external risk reports. Benchmark of industry standards is a comparison of the organization’s IT control practices and performance with those of other organizations in the same industry or sector4. Benchmark of industry standards can help to improve the quality and consistency of the IT control design and implementation, as well as to identify the best practices and gaps. However, benchmark of industry standards is not the primary input when designing IT controls, as it does not address the specific IT risks that the organization faces, or the IT control objectives and activities that are appropriate and effective for the organization. Recommendations from IT risk experts are the suggestions or advice from the professionals or specialists who have the knowledge and experience in IT risk management and IT control design and implementation5. Recommendations from IT risk experts can help to enhance the IT control design and implementation, as well as to provide guidance and support to the organization. However, recommendations from IT risk experts are not the primary inputwhen designing IT controls, as they are based on the opinions and perceptions of the experts, and may not reflect the actual or objective level and nature of the IT risks, or the IT control objectives and activities that are suitable and efficient for the organization. Outcome of control self-assessments is the result or conclusion of the evaluation and testing of the design and operation of the existingIT controls by the organization itself, such as by the IT control owners, the IT risk management function, or the business units6. Outcome of control self-assessments can help to improve the IT control design and implementation, as well as to detect and correct any issues or deficiencies. However, outcome of control self-assessments is not the primary input when designing IT controls, as it does not cover the new or emerging IT risks that the organization may face, or the IT control objectives and activities that are relevant and necessary for the organization. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.1, Page 189.
An organization is considering adopting artificial intelligence (AI). Which of the
following is the risk practitioner's MOST important course of action?
Develop key risk indicators (KRIs).
Ensure sufficient pre-implementation testing.
Identify applicable risk scenarios.
Identify the organization's critical data.
Artificial intelligence (AI) is a branch of computer science that aims to create machines or systems that can perform tasks that normally require human intelligence, such as learning, reasoning, decision making, etc.
An organization that is considering adopting AI should be aware of the potential risks and challenges that may arise from using AI, such as ethical, legal, social, technical, operational, or security issues.
The most important course of action for the risk practitioner is to identify applicable risk scenarios. This means that the risk practitioner should analyze the context and objectives of theAI adoption, the stakeholders and their expectations, the data and information sources and quality, the AI models and algorithms and their reliability, the AI outputs and outcomes and their impact, and the AI governance and oversight mechanisms and their effectiveness.
Identifying applicable risk scenarios helps to assess the likelihood and impact of the risks, prioritize the risks, design and implement appropriate risk responses, monitor and evaluate the risk performance, and report and communicate the risk status and issues.
The other options are not the most important courses of action for the risk practitioner. They are either secondary or not essential for AI risk management.
The references for this answer are:
Risk IT Framework, page 24
Information Technology & Security, page 18
Risk Scenarios Starter Pack, page 16
Which of the following should be management's PRIMARY consideration when approving risk response action plans?
Ability of the action plans to address multiple risk scenarios
Ease of implementing the risk treatment solution
Changes in residual risk after implementing the plans
Prioritization for implementing the action plans
The management’s primary consideration when approving risk response action plans should be the changes in residual risk after implementing the plans. Residual risk is the level of risk that remains after the implementation of risk responses1. It indicates the degree of exposure or uncertainty that the organization still faces, and the potential impact or consequences of the risk events. The management should evaluate the effectiveness and adequacy of the risk responses, and decide whether the residual risk is acceptable or not2. The management should also compare the residual risk with the risk appetite, which is the amount and type of risk that the organization is willing to accept or pursue in order to achieve its objectives3. The management should ensure that the residual risk is aligned with the risk appetite, and that the risk responses are consistent and proportional to the risk level4.
The other options are not the primary consideration when approving risk response action plans, because:
Ability of the action plans to address multiple risk scenarios is a desirable but not essential criterion for approving risk response action plans. Risk scenarios are hypothetical situations that describe how a risk event could occur and what the consequences could be5. They can help to understand and communicate the nature and impact of the risks, and to design and evaluate the risk responses6. However, not all risk scenarios are equally likely or relevant, and some risk scenarios may be too complex or improbable to address. Therefore, the ability of the action plansto address multiple risk scenarios is not the primary consideration, but rather a secondary or supplementary one.
Ease of implementing the risk treatment solution is a practical but not critical criterion for approving risk response action plans. Risk treatment is the process of selecting and applying appropriate measures to modify the risk7. It can involve different strategies, such as avoid, reduce, transfer, or accept the risk8. The ease of implementing the risk treatment solution depends on various factors, such as the availability of resources, the feasibility of the solution, or the cooperation of the stakeholders. However, the ease of implementation is not the primary consideration, but rather a supporting or facilitating one.
Prioritization for implementing the action plans is a useful but not vital criterion for approving risk response action plans. Prioritization is the process of ranking the action plans according to their importance, urgency, or impact. It can help to allocate the resources, schedule the activities, and monitor the progress of the action plans. However, prioritization is not the primary consideration, but rather a subsequent or follow-up one.
References =
Residual Risk - CIO Wiki
What is Residual Risk? - Definition from Techopedia
Risk Appetite - CIO Wiki
Risk Appetite: What It Is and Why It Matters - Gartner
Risk Scenarios Toolkit - ISACA
Risk Scenarios Starter Pack - ISACA
Risk Treatment - CIO Wiki
Risk Treatment Plan - CIO Wiki
[Prioritization - CIO Wiki]
Which of the following is PRIMARILY a risk management responsibly of the first line of defense?
Implementing risk treatment plans
Validating the status of risk mitigation efforts
Establishing risk policies and standards
Conducting independent reviews of risk assessment results
The primary risk management responsibility of the first line of defense is to implement risk treatment plans. The first line of defense is the operational management and staff who are directly involved in the execution of the business activities and processes. They are responsible for identifying, assessing, and responding to the risks that affect their objectives and performance. Implementing risk treatment plans means applying the appropriate risk response strategies and actions to address the identified risks, and monitoring and reporting the results and outcomes of the risk treatment. The other options are not as primary as implementing risk treatment plans, as they are related to the validation, establishment, or review of the risk management process, not the execution of the risk management process. References = Risk andInformation Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1: IT Risk Identification, Section 1.1: IT Risk Management Process, page 15.
Which of the following issues should be of GREATEST concern when evaluating existing controls during a risk assessment?
A high number of approved exceptions exist with compensating controls.
Successive assessments have the same recurring vulnerabilities.
Redundant compensating controls are in place.
Asset custodians are responsible for defining controls instead of asset owners.
The issue of greatest concern when evaluating existing controls during a risk assessment is the presence of successive assessments with the same recurring vulnerabilities. This indicates that the controls are ineffective or inadequate in addressing the identified risks, and that the risk management process is not functioning properly. Recurring vulnerabilities expose the enterprise to potential losses, breaches, or incidents that could harm its objectives, reputation, or compliance. Therefore, it is essential to identify the root causes of the recurring vulnerabilities, implement corrective actions, and monitor the effectiveness ofthe controls on a regular basis. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.2, page 183.
An audit reveals that there are changes in the environment that are not reflected in the risk profile. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?
Review the risk identification process.
Inform the risk scenario owners.
Create a risk awareness communication plan.
Update the risk register.
The best course of action when an audit reveals that there are changes in the environment that are not reflected in the risk profile is to review the risk identification process. This is because the risk identification process is the first step in the risk management process and it is responsible for identifying and assessing the potential risks that may affect the organization’s objectives. If the risk identification process is not effective, it may result in incomplete, inaccurate, or outdated risk profiles that do not reflect the current environment and the associated risks. Therefore, reviewing the risk identification process will help to ensure that the risk profile is updated and aligned with the changes in the environment and the organization’s strategy. References = Responding to Audit Findings
Which of the following describes the relationship between Key risk indicators (KRIs) and key control indicators (KCIS)?
KCIs are independent from KRIs KRIs.
KCIs and KRIs help in determining risk appetite.
KCIs are defined using data from KRIs.
KCIs provide input for KRIs
Key risk indicators (KRIs) are metrics that provide information on the level of exposure to a given risk. Key control indicators (KCIs) are metrics that measure the performance or effectiveness of a control in mitigating a risk. KCIs provide input for KRIs, because they help to assess the residual risk after applying the control. For example, if the KRI is the number of security incidents, and the KCI is the percentage of incidents detected by the intrusion prevention system (IPS), then the KCI provides input for the KRI by showing how well the IPS is reducing the risk of security breaches. References = CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions
Which of the following should be done FIRST when a new risk scenario has been identified
Estimate the residual risk.
Establish key risk indicators (KRIs).
Design control improvements.
Identify the risk owner.
•A risk owner is the person or entity that has the authority and responsibility to manage a specific risk1. The risk owner is accountable for the implementation and effectiveness of the risk response strategy and the risk treatment plan2.
•Identifying the risk owner is the first step when a new risk scenario has been identified, because the risk owner is the key stakeholder who will be involved in the subsequent steps of the risk management process, such as risk analysis, risk evaluation, risk treatment, and risk monitoring2.
•Identifying the risk owner also helps to clarify the roles and responsibilities of different parties involved in the risk management process, such as the risk manager, the risk analyst, the risk committee, and the risk auditor3. This can improve the communication, coordination, and collaboration among the risk management team and ensure that the risk is managed effectively and efficiently.
•Estimating the residual risk (option A) is not the first step when a new risk scenario has been identified, because the residual risk is the risk that remains after the risk treatment plan has been implemented2. Therefore, estimating the residual risk requires prior steps such as risk analysis, risk evaluation, and risk treatment.
•Establishing key risk indicators (KRIs) (option B) is not the first step when a new risk scenario has been identified, because KRIs are metrics or data points that provide early warning signals or information about the level or trend of a risk4. Therefore, establishing KRIs requires prior steps such as risk identification, risk analysis, and risk evaluation.
•Designing control improvements (option C) is not the first step when a new risk scenario has been identified, because control improvements are part of the risk treatment plan, which is the set of actions and resources needed to implement the chosen risk response strategy2. Therefore,designing control improvements requires prior steps such as risk analysis, risk evaluation, and risk response selection.
References =
•Risk Owner - Institute of Internal Auditors
•Risk Treatment Plan - ISACA
•Risk Management Roles and Responsibilities - 360factors
•Key Risk Indicators: A Practical Guide | SafetyCulture
Which of the following is the FIRST step when developing a business case to drive the adoption of a risk remediation project by senior management?
Calculating the cost
Analyzing cost-effectiveness
Determining the stakeholders
Identifying the objectives
The first step when developing a business case to drive the adoption of a risk remediation project by senior management is to identify the objectives of the project. The objectives are the specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound (SMART) goals that the project aims to accomplish. The objectives should be aligned with the organization’s vision, mission, and strategy, as well as the identified business problem or opportunity. The objectives should also reflect the expected benefits and outcomes of the project, such as reducing the risk exposure, enhancing the security posture, or improving the business performance. Identifying the objectives is the first step because it provides the direction, scope, and justification for the project, and it serves as the basis for evaluating the alternative solutions, estimating the costs and benefits, and communicating the value proposition to the senior management and other stakeholders. The other options are not the first step, although they may be subsequent or concurrent steps in the business case development process. Calculating the cost is a part of the financial analysis, which estimates the total expenditure and funding sources of the project, but it does not define the purpose or the scope of the project. Analyzing cost-effectiveness is a part of the economic analysis, which compares the costs and benefits of the alternative solutions and recommends the optimal one, but it does not specify the goals or the criteria of the project. Determining the stakeholders is a part of the stakeholder analysis, which identifies and assesses the interests, expectations, and influence of the parties involved in or affected by the project, but it does not establish the objectives or the rationale of the project. References = Business case: 7 key steps to build it and use it - Twproject: project …, Guide to developing the Project Business Case - GOV.UK, How to Write a Business Case: Template & Examples | Adobe Workfront
An IT risk threat analysis is BEST used to establish
risk scenarios
risk maps
risk appetite
risk ownership.
An IT risk threat analysis is best used to establish risk scenarios. A risk scenario is a description of a possible event or situation that may affect the achievement of the IT objectives. A riskscenario consists of three elements: a threat, a vulnerability, and an impact. A threat is a potential cause of an unwanted incident. A vulnerability is a weakness or flaw that can be exploited by a threat. An impact is the consequence or effect of the incident on the IT objectives. An IT risk threat analysis is a technique that identifies and evaluates the threats that may pose a risk to the IT assets and processes. An IT risk threat analysis can help to establish risk scenarios by providing the information and context for the threat element of the risk scenario. The other options are not as directly related to an IT risk threat analysis, as they are related to the outcomes, measures, or responsibilities of the IT risk management process, not the inputs or sources of the IT risk scenarios. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1: IT Risk Identification, Section 1.3: IT Risk Scenarios, page 23.
Which of the following is the MOST important outcome of reviewing the risk management process?
Assuring the risk profile supports the IT objectives
Improving the competencies of employees who performed the review
Determining what changes should be made to IS policies to reduce risk
Determining that procedures used in risk assessment are appropriate
The most important outcome of reviewing the risk management process is assuring that the risk profile supports the IT objectives, because this ensures that the organization is managing its IT-related risks in alignment with its business goals and priorities. The risk profile is a summary of the key risks that the organization faces, their likelihood, impact, and response strategies. The IT objectives are the specific and measurable outcomes that the organization expects to achieve from its IT investments and activities. Byreviewing the risk management process, the organization can evaluate whether the risk profile is accurate, complete, and up-to-date, and whether the risk responses are effective, efficient, and consistent with the IT objectives. The review can also identify any gaps, issues, or opportunities for improvement in the risk management process, and provide recommendations for enhancing the process and its outcomes. The review can also help to communicate and report the value and performance of the risk management process to the senior management, the board of directors, and other stakeholders. References = Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2022, p. 17
An organization is participating in an industry benchmarking study that involves providing customer transaction records for analysis Which of the following is the MOST important control to ensure the privacy of customer information?
Nondisclosure agreements (NDAs)
Data anonymization
Data cleansing
Data encryption
Data anonymization is the most important control to ensure the privacy of customer information when participating in an industry benchmarking study that involves providing customer transaction records for analysis. Data anonymization is the process of removing or modifying personally identifiable information (PII) from data sets, such as names, addresses, phone numbers, email addresses, etc., so that the data cannot be traced back to specific individuals.Data anonymization protects the confidentiality and privacy of customers, while still allowing for meaningful analysis and comparison of data. Nondisclosure agreements (NDAs), data cleansing, and data encryption are also useful controls, but they do not eliminate the risk of data breaches or unauthorized access to PII. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.3.1, page 3-21.
Which of the following is the MOST significant risk related to an organization's use of AI technology?
The AI system's contract does not include a right-to-audit clause
The AI system is being used beyond its intended purpose
The AI system is on unsupported infrastructure
The AI system results have not been validated
Unvalidated AI outputs pose considerable integrity and operational risks, potentially leading to erroneous decisions or compliance lapses. ISACA CRISC guidance underscores that ensuring results validity is a highest-priority control for new technologies such as AI.
Which of the following can be interpreted from a single data point on a risk heat map?
Risk tolerance
Risk magnitude
Risk response
Risk appetite
A risk heat map is a kind of risk matrix where risks are ranked based on their potential impact and their likelihood of occurring, which allows you to prioritize the risks that pose the greatest threat. The severity of each risk is indicated by color, usually green for low risk, red for high risk, and yellow for medium risk. Therefore, from a single data point on a risk heat map, one can interpret the risk magnitude, which is the product of impact and likelihood. The other options are not directly related to a single data point on a risk heat map, but rather to the overall risk management strategy and context. References = Risk Assessment and Analysis Methods: Qualitative and Quantitative; What Is a Risk Heat Map, and How Can It Help Your Risk Management Strategy; CRISC Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control – Question599
Which of the following is MOST important to the successful development of IT risk scenarios?
Cost-benefit analysis
Internal and external audit reports
Threat and vulnerability analysis
Control effectiveness assessment
IT risk scenarios are hypothetical situations that describe how IT-related risks can affect the organization’s objectives, operations, or assets1. IT risk scenarios help to make IT risk more concrete and tangible, and to enable proper risk analysis and assessment2. IT risk scenarios are developed after IT risks are identified, and are used as inputs for risk analysis, where the frequency and impact of the scenarios are estimated3.
The most important factor to the successful development of IT risk scenarios is threat and vulnerability analysis. Threat and vulnerability analysis is the process of identifying and evaluating the potential sources and causes of IT risks, such as malicious actors, natural disasters, human errors, or technical failures4. Threat and vulnerability analysis can help to:
Define the scope and boundaries of the IT risk scenarios, and ensure that they are relevant and realistic
Identify the critical assets, processes, or functions that are exposed or affected by the IT risks, and assess their value and importance to the organization
Determine the likelihood and methods of the threat events, and the existing or potential weaknesses or gaps in the IT control environment
Estimate the potential consequences and impacts of the IT risks, such as financial losses, operational disruptions, reputational damages, or compliance violations5
References = IT Scenario Analysis in Enterprise Risk Management - ISACA, IT Risk Scenarios - Morland-Austin, Threat and Vulnerability Analysis - Wikipedia, Threat and Vulnerability Analysis - ISACA
The maturity of an IT risk management program is MOST influenced by:
the organization's risk culture
benchmarking results against similar organizations
industry-specific regulatory requirements
expertise available within the IT department
The maturity of an IT risk management program is most influenced by the organization’s risk culture, as this reflects the shared values, beliefs, and attitudes that shape how the organization perceives and responds to risk. The risk culture determines the level of awareness, commitment, and involvement of the stakeholders in the IT risk management process, as well as the degree of integration and alignment with the enterprise’s objectives and strategy. A mature IT risk management program requires a strong and positive risk culture that fosters trust, collaboration, and accountability among the stakeholders, and supports continuous improvement and learning. The other options are not the most influential factors for the maturity of an IT risk management program, although they may have some impact or relevance. Benchmarking results against similar organizations can provide useful insights and comparisons, but they do not necessarily reflect the organization’s own risk culture or context. Industry-specific regulatory requirements can impose certain standards and expectations, but they do not guarantee the effectiveness or efficiency of the IT risk management program. Expertise available within the IT department can enhance the technical and operational aspects of the IT risk management program, but it does not ensure the strategic and cultural alignment with the enterprise. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1: IT Risk Identification, page 23.
An organization has four different projects competing for funding to reduce overall IT risk. Which project should management defer?
Project Charlie
Project Bravo
Project Alpha
Project Delta
Project Delta should be deferred by management, as it has the lowest return on investment (ROI) among the four competing projects. ROI is a measure of the profitability or efficiency of a project, calculated by dividing the net benefits by the total costs. Project Delta has a net benefit of $100,000 and a total cost of $200,000, resulting in an ROI of 0.5. The other projects have higher ROIs: Project Alpha has an ROI of 1.0, Project Bravo has an ROI of 0.8, and Project Charlie has an ROI of 0.6. Therefore, Project Delta is the least attractive option for reducingoverall IT risk, and management should prioritize the other projects instead. References = How to Manage Project Risk: A 5-Step Guide; Matching the right projects with the right resources; Risk Types in Project Management
Which of the following would be the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) for monitoring the effectiveness of the IT asset management process?
Percentage of unpatched IT assets
Percentage of IT assets without ownership
The number of IT assets securely disposed during the past year
The number of IT assets procured during the previous month
The percentage of unpatched IT assets is a KPI that measures the effectiveness of the IT asset management process in ensuring that the IT assets are updated with the latest security patches and are protected from vulnerabilities. This KPI reflects the compliance of the IT assets with the enterprise’s security policy and standards, and the ability of the IT asset management process to identify and remediate any gaps or risks in the IT asset inventory. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, Question 5. CRISC by Isaca Actual Free Exam Q&As, Question 4. Most Asked CRISC Exam Questions and Answers, Question 10. CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, Question 4.
Which of the following scenarios presents the GREATEST risk for a global organization when implementing a data classification policy?
Data encryption has not been applied to all sensitive data across the organization.
There are many data assets across the organization that need to be classified.
Changes to information handling procedures are not documented.
Changes to data sensitivity during the data life cycle have not been considered.
Changes to data sensitivity during the data life cycle present the greatest risk for a global organization when implementing a data classification policy, as they may result in data being under-protected or over-protected, leading to potential data breaches, compliance violations, or inefficiencies. Data sensitivity refers to the level of confidentiality, integrity, and availability that the data requires, and it may changedepending on the data’s creation, storage, processing,transmission, or disposal. A data classification policy should consider the changes to data sensitivity during the data life cycle and ensure that the appropriate controls and procedures are applied at each stage. Data encryption not applied to all sensitive data, many data assets that need to be classified, and changes to information handling procedures not documented are not the greatest risks, as they do not affect the data classification policy itself, but rather the implementation or execution of the policy. References = CRISC Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control – Question211; ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 211.
Conduct frequent internal audits of IT systems.
Review information from threat intelligence sources.
Define a comprehensive set of key risk indicators (KRIs).
Document thorough IT risk scenarios in the risk register.
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
The identification of advanced persistent threats (APTs) is best supported by timely and relevant external information. Reviewing information from threat intelligence sources enables the organization to detect emerging threats quickly and accurately, reducing the mean time to identify APTs. While internal audits and KRIs are important, they typically focus on internal controls and risk monitoring rather than external threat detection. Thorough documentation of risk scenarios supports risk assessment but does not directly reduce detection time. Therefore, leveraging threat intelligence is the most effective approach for early identification of sophisticated threats.
Who is MOST appropriate to be assigned ownership of a control
The individual responsible for control operation
The individual informed of the control effectiveness
The individual responsible for resting the control
The individual accountable for monitoring control effectiveness
A control is a measure or action that is implemented to reduce the likelihood or impact of a risk event, or to enhance the benefits or opportunities of a risk event. A control owner is a person who is assigned the responsibility and authority for the design, implementation, operation, and maintenance of a control. The most appropriate person to be assigned ownership of a control is the individual accountable for monitoring control effectiveness, which is the process of measuring and evaluating the performance and compliance of the control. By assigning the control ownership to the individual accountable for monitoring control effectiveness, the organization can ensure that the control is aligned with the risk objectives, operates as intended, and delivers the expected results. References = 4
An organization moved its payroll system to a Software as a Service (SaaS) application. A new data privacy regulation stipulates that data can only be processed within the countrywhere it is collected. Which of the following should be done FIRST when addressing this situation?
Analyze data protection methods.
Understand data flows.
Include a right-to-audit clause.
Implement strong access controls.
The first step when addressing the situation of moving the payroll system to a SaaS application and complying with the new data privacy regulation is to understand the data flows. This means identifying where the data is collected, stored, processed, and transferred, and who has access to it. Understanding the data flows can help to determine the scope and impact of the regulation, as well as the potential risks and gaps in the current state. It can also help to identify the roles and responsibilities of the organization and the SaaS provider regarding data protection and compliance. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5, Section 5.3.1.2, p. 237-238
Which of the following is the BEST method to identify unnecessary controls?
Evaluating the impact of removing existing controls
Evaluating existing controls against audit requirements
Reviewing system functionalities associated with business processes
Monitoring existing key risk indicators (KRIs)
The best method to identify unnecessary controls is reviewing system functionalities associated with business processes, because this can help to determine whether the controls are relevant, effective, and efficient for the current business needs and objectives. System functionalities are the capabilities and features of IT systems that support the execution and performance of business processes. Business processes are the set of interrelated activities that transform inputs into outputs to deliver value to customers or stakeholders. By reviewing system functionalities associated with business processes, an organization can assess whether the controls are aligned with the process requirements, expectations, and outcomes, and whether they add value or create waste. The review can also identify any gaps, overlaps, redundancies, or conflicts among the controls, and any changes or improvements that are needed to optimize the controls. The other options are less effective methods to identify unnecessary controls. Evaluating the impact of removing existing controls can help to measure the benefits and costs of the controls, but it does not address the root causes or sources of the unnecessary controls. Evaluating existing controls against audit requirements can help to ensure compliance and assurance, but it does not considerthe business context or purpose of the controls. Monitoring existing key risk indicators (KRIs) can help to measure the level and impact of risks, but it does not evaluate the suitability oradequacy of the controls. References = Surveying Staff to Identify Unnecessary Internal Controls - Methodology and Results
Which of the following tools is MOST effective in identifying trends in the IT risk profile?
Risk self-assessment
Risk register
Risk dashboard
Risk map
A risk dashboard is a graphical tool that displays the key indicators and metrics of the organization’s IT risk profile, such as the risk level, status, trend, performance, etc., using charts, graphs, tables, etc. A risk dashboard can help the organization to monitor and communicate the IT risk profile, and to support the decision making and planning for the IT risk management.
A risk dashboard is the most effective tool in identifying trends in the IT risk profile, because it provides a visual and intuitive representation of the changes and variations in the IT risk profile over time, and highlights the most significant and relevant IT risks that need to be addressed or monitored. A risk dashboard can also help to compare and contrast the IT risk profile with the organization’s IT objectives and risk appetite, and to identify the gaps or opportunities for improvement.
The other options are not the most effective tools in identifying trends in the IT risk profile, because they do not provide the same level of visibility and clarity that a risk dashboard provides, and they may not be updated or aligned with the organization’s IT objectives and risk appetite.
A risk self-assessment is a process of identifying, analyzing, and evaluating the IT risks that may affect the organization’s objectives and operations, using the input and feedback from the individuals or groups that are involved or responsible for the IT activities or functions. A risk self-assessment can help the organization to understand and document the IT risk profile, and to align it with the organization’s IT strategy and culture, but it is not the most effective tool in identifying trends in the IT risk profile, because it may not reflect the current or accurate state and performance of the IT risk profile, and it may not cover all the relevant or emerging IT risks that may exist or arise.
A risk register is a document that records and tracks the information and status of the identified IT risks and their responses. It includes the IT risk description, category, source, cause, impact, probability, priority, response, owner, action plan, status, etc. A risk register can help the organization to identify, analyze, evaluate, and communicate the IT risks and their responses, and to align them with the organization’s IT strategy and culture, but it is not the most effective tool in identifying trends in the IT risk profile, because it may not provide a visual and intuitive representation of the changes and variations in the IT risk profile over time, and it may not highlight the most significant and relevant IT risks that need to be addressed or monitored.
A risk map is a graphical tool that displays the results of the IT risk analysis in a matrix format, using colors and symbols to indicate the level and priority of the IT risks. A risk map can show the distribution and comparison of the IT risks based on various criteria, such as likelihood, impact, category, source, etc. A risk map can help the organization to assess and prioritize the IT risks, and to design and implement appropriate controls or countermeasures to mitigate or prevent the IT risks, but it is not the most effective tool in identifying trends in the IT risk profile, because it may not provide a visual and intuitive representation of the changes and variations in the IT risk profile over time, and it may not reflect the organization’s IT objectives and risk appetite. References =
ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, pp. 19-20, 23-24, 27-28, 31-32, 40-41, 47-48, 54-55, 58-59, 62-63
ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 180
CRISC Practice Quiz and Exam Prep
An organization's risk register contains a large volume of risk scenarios that senior management considers overwhelming. Which of the following would BEST help to improve the risk register?
Analyzing the residual risk components
Performing risk prioritization
Validating the risk appetite level
Conducting a risk assessment
Performing risk prioritization would best help to improve the risk register, which is a document that records and summarizes the key information and data about the identified risks and the risk responses1. Risk prioritization is the process of ranking the risks according to their significance and urgency, based on their probability and impact2. By performing risk prioritization, the organization can:
Reduce the complexity and volume of the risk register, and focus on the most important and relevant risks that require immediate attention and action3.
Enhance the communication and understanding of the risks among the senior management and other stakeholders, and facilitate the decision-making and resource allocation for the risk responses4.
Improve the efficiency and effectiveness of the risk management process, and ensure that the risk register is aligned with the organization’s risk strategy, objectives, and appetite5.
The other options are not the best ways to improve the risk register, because:
Analyzing the residual risk components is not the best way, as it may not address the issue of the large volume of risk scenarios. Residual risk is the level of risk that remains after the implementation of risk responses6. Analyzing the residual risk components can help to measure the exposure or uncertainty of the assets, and to determine the need and extent of the risk responses. However, it may not reduce the complexity or volume of the risk register, as it may add more information or data to the risk register.
Validating the risk appetite level is not the best way, as it may not address the issue of the overwhelming risk scenarios. Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that the organization is willing to accept or pursue in order to achieve its objectives7. Validating the risk appetite levelcan help to ensure that the risk register is consistent and proportional to the risk level, and that the risk responses are suitable and feasible. However, it may not reduce the complexity or volume of the risk register, as it may require more information or data to validate the risk appetite level.
Conducting a risk assessment is not the best way, as it may not address the issue of the existing risk scenarios. Risk assessment is the process of estimating the probability and impact of the risks, and prioritizing the risks based on their significance and urgency. Conducting a risk assessment can help to identify and analyze new or emerging risks, and to update or revise the risk register accordingly. However, it may not reduce the complexity or volume of the risk register, as it may introduce more information or data to the risk register.
References =
Risk Register - CIO Wiki
Risk Prioritization - CIO Wiki
Risk Prioritization: A Guide for Project Managers - ProjectManager.com
Risk Prioritization: How to Prioritize Risks in Project Management - Clarizen
Risk Prioritization: A Key Step in Risk Management - ISACA
Residual Risk - CIO Wiki
Risk Appetite - CIO Wiki
[Risk Assessment - CIO Wiki]
A risk practitioner is organizing risk awareness training for senior management. Which of the following is the MOST important topic to cover in the training session?
The organization's strategic risk management projects
Senior management roles and responsibilities
The organizations risk appetite and tolerance
Senior management allocation of risk management resources
The organization’s risk appetite and tolerance are the most important topics to cover in a risk awareness training for senior management. Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. Risk tolerance is the level of variation from the risk appetite that the organization is prepared to accept. Senior management plays a key role in defining and communicating the risk appetite and tolerance, as well asensuring that they are aligned with the organization’s strategy, culture, and values. By covering these topics in the training session, the risk practitioner can help senior management understand and articulate the risk preferences and boundaries of the organization, as well as monitor andadjust them as needed. The other options are not the most important topics to cover in a risk awareness training for senior management, although they may be relevant and useful. The organization’s strategic risk management projects are specific initiatives or activities that aim to identify, assess, and treat risks that may affect the organization’s objectives. Senior management roles and responsibilities are the duties and expectations that senior management has in relation to risk management, such as providing leadership, oversight, and support. Senior management allocation of risk management resources is the process of assigning and prioritizing the human, financial, and technical resources that are needed to implement and maintain risk management activities. These topics are more operational and tactical than strategic and may vary depending on the context and scope of the risk management function. References = CRISC Review Manual, pages 40-411; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, page 732
To define the risk management strategy which of the following MUST be set by the board of directors?
Operational strategies
Risk governance
Annualized loss expectancy (ALE)
Risk appetite
Risk appetite is the broad-based amount of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. Risk appetite reflects the level of risk that the organization is prepared to take to achieve its strategic goals, and provides guidance and boundaries for the risk management activities and decisions. To define the risk management strategy, which is the plan and approach for managing the risks that may affect the achievement of the organization’s objectives, the factor that must be set by the board of directors is the risk appetite. The board of directors is the highest governing body of the organization, and has the ultimate responsibility and authority for setting the direction and oversight of the organization. By setting the risk appetite, the board of directors can communicate its expectations and preferences for the risk exposure and performance of the organization, and ensure alignment with the business objectives and strategies. References = 3
Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern lo a risk practitioner reviewing the implementation of an emerging technology?
Lack of alignment to best practices
Lack of risk assessment
Lack of risk and control procedures
Lack of management approval
Risk assessment is a key process that identifies, analyzes, and evaluates the risks associated with the implementation of an emerging technology. It helps to determine the potential impact and likelihood of the risks, as well as the appropriate risk responses and controls. Lack of risk assessment can lead to poor decision making, inadequate risk mitigation, and unexpected consequences. Therefore, it should be of greatest concern to a risk practitioner reviewing the implementation of an emerging technology. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5, Section 5.2.1, p. 226-227
It is MOST important that security controls for a new system be documented in:
testing requirements
the implementation plan.
System requirements
The security policy
It is most important that security controls for a new system be documented in the system requirements. The system requirements define the functional and non-functional specifications of the system, including the security controls that are needed to protect the system and its data. Documenting the security controls in the system requirements can help ensure that they are designed, developed, tested, and implemented as part of the system development life cycle. Testing requirements, the implementation plan, and the security policy are other documents that may include security controls, but they are not as important as the system requirements. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 5; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 212.
Which of the following metrics is BEST used to communicate to senior management that the control environment manages risk within appetite and tolerance?
Number of security incidents
Reduction in control expenditures
Number of risk responses executed
Reduction in residual risk
Residual riskrepresents the amount of risk remaining after controls have been applied. Tracking its reduction over time directly indicates whether controls are effectively reducing risk to withintolerance limits.
Which of the following would be a risk practitioner's MOST important action upon learning that an IT control has failed?
Implement a replacement control.
Adjust residual risk rating.
Escalate to senior management.
Review compensating controls.
Upon discovering that an IT control has failed, the risk practitioner's most important action is to review compensating controls. This involves assessing whether other existing controls can mitigate the risk associated with the failed control. Evaluating compensating controls helps determine the immediate impact of the control failure and guides decisions on necessary remediation steps.
Which of the following BEST facilitates the identification of appropriate key performance indicators (KPIs) for a risk management program?
Reviewing control objectives
Aligning with industry best practices
Consulting risk owners
Evaluating KPIs in accordance with risk appetite
The best way to facilitate the identification of appropriate key performance indicators (KPIs) for a risk management program is to evaluate KPIs in accordance with risk appetite. KPIs are metrics that measure the performance and effectiveness of the risk management program, and help monitor and report on the achievement of the risk objectives and outcomes. Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that the organization is willing to accept or pursue in order to achieve its objectives. Evaluating KPIs in accordance with risk appetite helps to identify the appropriate KPIs, because it helps to align the KPIs with the organization’s mission, vision, values, and strategy, and to ensure that the KPIs reflect the organization’s risk tolerance and threshold. Evaluating KPIs in accordance with risk appetite also helps to communicate and coordinate the KPIs with the organization’s stakeholders, such as the board, management, and business units, and to facilitate the risk decision-making and reporting processes. The other options are not as effective as evaluating KPIs in accordance with risk appetite, although they may be part of or derived from the KPI identification process. Reviewing control objectives, aligning with industry best practices, and consulting risk owners are all activities that can help to define or refine the KPIs, but they are not the best way to facilitate the identification of appropriate KPIs. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.5.1, page 4-38.
Which of the following is the BEST metric to measure employee adherence to organizational security policies?
Total number of security policy audit findings
Total number of regulatory violations
Total number of security policy exceptions
Total number of opened phishing emails
Tracking opened phishing emails provides a real-time behavioral indicator of how well employees follow security awareness and email policies. It is a leading metric of adherence and risk awareness.
To drive effective risk management, it is MOST important that an organization's policy framework is:
Approved by relevant stakeholders.
Aligned to the functional business structure.
Included in employee onboarding materials.
Mapped to an industry-standard framework.
Policies must reflect the actual structure and processes of the business to be enforceable and effective. Alignment ensures that policies are understood, applicable, and tailored to how the business operates.
Which of the following is the MOST important reason to report on changes or trends related to an organization's IT risk profile?
To benchmark against a risk management framework
To predict external regulatory changes
To adapt to emerging threats
To reduce the cost of performing control activities
As the threat landscape evolves, reporting on IT risk profile trends enables the organization tostay proactive. It helps ensure controls and strategies remain effective againstnew or increasing threats.
Which of the following is MOST important to consider when determining the risk associated with re-identification of obfuscated personal data?
The type of shared data
The level of residual risk after data loss prevention (DLP) controls are implemented
The monetary value of the unique records that could be re-identified
The impact to affected stakeholders
The impact to affected stakeholdersis the most critical factor when considering risks tied to re-identification. ISACA notes that risk is ultimately measured by how it affects stakeholders—including customers, partners, and regulators—particularly when personal data is involved.
===========
Which of the following is the MOST useful information for prioritizing risk mitigation?
Cost of risk mitigation
Asset criticality
Acceptable risk level
Business impact assessment
Business Impact Assessment (BIA):
BIA identifies and evaluates the potential effects of interruptions to critical business operations. It helps determine the priority of risk mitigation efforts based on the potential impact on business functions.
BIA provides detailed information on which processes and systems are most critical to the organization's operations and their respective impact levels.
Prioritizing Risk Mitigation:
The results of a BIA guide decision-makers in prioritizing which risks to address first based on their potential to disrupt critical business operations.
Risks that could cause significant operational, financial, or reputational damage are prioritized higher.
Comparing Other Factors:
Cost of Risk Mitigation:Important but secondary to understanding the impact on business operations.
Asset Criticality:Relevant but typically part of the BIA process.
Acceptable Risk Level:Defines the threshold but does not prioritize specific risks.
References:
The CRISC Review Manual discusses how BIA facilitates risk prioritization by identifying critical processes and their impacts (CRISC Review Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.7 Business Impact Analysis).
The MAIN goal of the risk analysis process is to determine the:
potential severity of impact
frequency and magnitude of loss
control deficiencies
threats and vulnerabilities
The main goal of the risk analysis process is to determine the frequency and magnitude of loss, because this will help to measure the level of risk exposure and the need for risk mitigation controls. Frequency refers to how often a risk event may occur, while magnitude refers to how much harm or damage a risk event may cause. By determining the frequency and magnitude of loss, the risk analysis process can quantify the impact and likelihood of the risks, and assign a risk rating and priority. The other options are not the main goal of the risk analysis process, because they are either inputs or outputs of the process, as explained below:
A. Potential severity of impact is an output of the risk analysis process, as it is the result of estimating the consequences of a risk event on the organization’s objectives, assets, or processes. The potential severity of impact is influenced by the magnitude of loss, but also by other factors, such as the timing, duration, and scope of the risk event.
C. Control deficiencies are an input of the risk analysis process, as they are the gaps or weaknesses in the existing controls that may increase the risk exposure or reduce the risk mitigation effectiveness. Control deficiencies are identified by comparing the current control environment with the desired control environment, and by evaluating the design and operation of the controls.
D. Threats and vulnerabilities are inputs of the risk analysis process, as they are the sources and causes of the risks that may affect the organization’s objectives, assets, or processes. Threats are external or internal factors that have the potential to exploit the vulnerabilities, while vulnerabilitiesare internal or external weaknesses that increase the susceptibility to the threats. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2, Section 2.3.1, page 45. What is Risk Analysis? Process, Types, Examples & Methods, Risk Analysis Tutorial - The Process | solver, What is the goal of a risk assessment? - Creative Safety Supply
Which of the following factors will have the GREATEST impact on the implementation of a risk mitigation strategy for an organization?
Cost-benefit analysis
Risk tolerance
Known vulnerabilities
Cyber insurance
Risk tolerance defines the boundaries for acceptable risk levels and directly impacts decision-making for mitigation strategies. A well-defined tolerance helps prioritize actions and allocate resources effectively, emphasizing its central role in theRisk Responsedomain.
When reporting risk assessment results to senior management, which of the following is MOST important to include to enable risk-based decision making?
Risk action plans and associated owners
Recent audit and self-assessment results
Potential losses compared to treatment cost
A list of assets exposed to the highest risk
When reporting risk assessment results to senior management, the most important information to include to enable risk-based decision making is the potential losses compared to treatment cost. This information helps to quantify the impact and likelihood of the risks, and to evaluate the cost and benefit of the risk responses. This information also helps to prioritize and allocate resources for the risk management program, and to align the risk management program with the enterprise’s objectives, strategy, and risk appetite. The other options are not as important as the potential losses compared to treatment cost, as they provide different types of information for the risk management process:
Risk action plans and associated owners are the documents that specify the actions to be taken to address the identified risks, the resources required, the timelines, the owners, and the expected outcomes. This information helps to implement and monitor the risk management program, and to assign the authority and accountability for the risk management activities.
Recent audit and self-assessment results are the outcomes of the independent and objective examination of the risk management program, such as by internal or external auditors, or by the risk owners or practitioners themselves. This information helps to provide assurance and feedback on the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk management program, and to identify the gaps or weaknesses that need to be addressed.
A list of assets exposed to the highest risk are the resources that have the most value for the enterprise, such as hardware, software, data, or services, and that are affected by or contribute to the highest risks. This information helps to identify and protect the critical assets of theenterprise, and to reduce the exposure and impact of the risks to the assets. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.3.1.1, pp. 58-59.
Which of the following BEST supports the communication of risk assessment results to stakeholders?
Monitoring of high-risk areas
Classification of risk profiles
Periodic review of the risk register
Assignment of risk ownership
A risk profile is a summary of the key risks that affect an organization, a business unit, a process, or a project. A risk profile can help stakeholders understand the current and potential exposure to various sources of uncertainty, and prioritize the risk response accordingly. Classification of risk profiles is the process of grouping and categorizing risks based on common characteristics, such as source, impact, likelihood, or response strategy. Classification of risk profiles can help communicate risk assessment results to stakeholders by providing a clear and consistent way of presenting and comparing risks across different domains, levels, or perspectives. Classification of risk profiles can also help identify patterns, trends, and interrelationships among risks, and facilitate the allocation of resources and responsibilities for risk management. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.1: Risk Profile, p. 193-195.
Which of the following BEST indicates the effective implementation of a risk treatment plan?
Inherent risk is managed within an acceptable level.
Residual risk is managed within appetite and tolerance.
Risk treatments are aligned with industry peers.
Key controls are identified and documented.
The effective implementation of a risk treatment plan is best indicated by managing residual risk within the organization’s appetite and tolerance levels. Residual risk is the remaining risk aftercontrols have been applied, and ensuring it is within acceptable levels demonstrates that the risk treatment plan is effective.
Managing Residual Risk within Appetite and Tolerance (Answer B):
Definition: Residual risk is the risk remaining after risk treatment measures have been implemented.
Significance: Managing residual risk within the set appetite and tolerance levels shows that the implemented controls are effective and aligned with the organization’s risk management objectives.
Outcome: It ensures that the organization's risk exposure is kept within acceptable boundaries, thereby protecting its assets and operations.
Comparison with Other Options:
A. Inherent risk is managed within an acceptable level:
Definition: Inherent risk is the risk before any controls are applied.
Limitation: The focus should be on residual risk post-treatment.
C. Risk treatments are aligned with industry peers:
Purpose: While benchmarking is useful, it does not directly indicate the effectiveness of risk treatment.
D. Key controls are identified and documented:
Purpose: Identifying and documenting controls is necessary, but effectiveness is shown by managing residual risk.
Which of the following proposed benefits is MOST likely to influence senior management approval to reallocate budget for a new security initiative?
Reduction in the number of incidents
Reduction in inherent risk
Reduction in residual risk
Reduction in the number of known vulnerabilities
The proposed benefit that is most likely to influence senior management approval to reallocate budget for a new security initiative is the reduction in residual risk, as it indicates the expected value and outcome of the initiative in terms of reducing the risk exposure and impact to the level that is aligned with the risk tolerance and appetite of the organization. The other options are not the most likely benefits, as they may not reflect the actual or optimal risk reduction, or may not be relevant or measurable for the senior management, respectively. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 111.
Which of the following is the BEST control to minimize the risk associated with scope creep in software development?
An established process for project change management
Retention of test data and results for review purposes
Business managements review of functional requirements
Segregation between development, test, and production
The best control to minimize the risk associated with scope creep in software development is an established process for project change management. Scope creep is the uncontrolled expansion of the project scope due to changes in requirements, specifications, or expectations. A project change management process can help to prevent or reduce scope creep by defining the procedures for requesting, reviewing, approving, and implementing changes in the project. Retention of test data and results, business management review of functional requirements, and segregation between development, test, and production are other possible controls, but they are not as effective as a project change management process. References = ISACA Certified in Riskand Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 11; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 144.
Which of the following is the BEST indication of a mature organizational risk culture?
Corporate risk appetite is communicated to staff members.
Risk owners understand and accept accountability for risk.
Risk policy has been published and acknowledged by employees.
Management encourages the reporting of policy breaches.
Organizational risk culture is the term describing the values, beliefs, knowledge, attitudes and understanding about risk shared by a group of people with a common purpose. Organizationalrisk culture influences how the organization identifies, assesses, and manages risks, and how it aligns its risk appetite and tolerance with its objectives and strategies1.
The best indication of a mature organizational risk culture is that risk owners understand and accept accountability for risk, because it means that the organization:
Clearly defines and assigns the roles and responsibilities of the risk owners, who are the individuals or groups who have the authority and ability to manage the risks within their scope or domain
Empowers and supports the risk owners to perform their risk management duties, such as identifying, assessing, responding, monitoring, and reporting the risks
Holds the risk owners accountable for the outcomes and consequences of the risks, and evaluates their performance and compliance with the risk policies, standards, and procedures
Encourages and rewards the risk owners for demonstrating risk awareness and competence, and for contributing to the risk management improvement and learning23
The other options are not the best indications of a mature organizational risk culture, but rather some of the elements or aspects of it. Corporate risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that the organization is willing to accept in order to achieve its objectives. Corporate risk appetite is communicated to staff members to guide their risk decision making and behavior, and to ensure the consistency and alignment of the risk taking and tolerance across the organization. Risk policy is the document that establishes the principles, framework, and process for managing the risks within the organization. Risk policy is published and acknowledged by employees to ensure their awareness and compliance with the risk management expectations and requirements. Management is the group of individuals who have the authority and responsibility to direct and control the organization’s activities and resources. Management encourages the reporting of policy breaches to ensure the transparency and accountability of the risk management performance and outcomes, and to identify and address the risk management issues and gaps4. References =
Risk culture - Institute of Risk Management
Risk Owner - ISACA
Taking control of organizational risk culture | McKinsey
[CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition]
Which of the following is the BEST evidence that a user account has been properly authorized?
An email from the user accepting the account
Notification from human resources that the account is active
User privileges matching the request form
Formal approval of the account by the user's manager
According to the CRISC Review Manual, formal approval of the account by the user’s manager is the best evidence that a user account has been properly authorized, because it ensures that the user’s role and access rights are consistent with the business needs and the principle of least privilege. The user’s manager is responsible for verifying the user’s identity, job function, and access requirements, and for approving or rejecting the account request. The other options are not the best evidence of proper authorization, because they do not involve the user’s manager’s approval. An email from the user accepting the account is a confirmation of the account creation, but it does not indicate that the account was authorized by the user’s manager. Notification from human resources that the account is active is an administrative process that does not verify the user’s access rights and role. User privileges matching the request form is a verification of the account configuration, but it does not ensure that the request form was approved by the user’s manager. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 4, Section 4.1.2, page 163.
Which of the following is the MOST effective way to assess the risk associated with outsourcing IT processes?
Review the vendor's penetration test results
Review the contract and service level agreements (SLAs) periodically
Benchmark industry peers using the same vendor services
Analyze gaps between the current and future state
Penetration test resultsprovide direct evidence of the vendor’s technical security posture and ability to defend against real-world attacks. This is more effective than reviewing contracts or benchmarking, which are indirect measures.
Which of the following management actions will MOST likely change the likelihood rating of a risk scenario related to remote network access?
Creating metrics to track remote connections
Updating the organizational policy for remote access
Updating remote desktop software
Implementing multi-factor authentication
Automated asset management software is the best method to track asset inventory, as it can provide accurate, timely, and comprehensive information about the organization’s IT assets, such as their location, status, configuration, ownership, and value. Automated asset management software can also help to optimize the utilization, performance, and lifecycle of the IT assets, and to reduce the risks of loss, theft, damage, or obsolescence. Automated asset management software can integrate with other systems, such as configuration management database (CMDB), service desk, and security tools, to enable better visibility, control, and governance of the IT assets.
Well-developed, data-driven risk measurements should be:
reflective of the lowest organizational level.
a data feed taken directly from operational production systems.
reported to management the same day data is collected.
focused on providing a forward-looking view.
Well-developed, data-driven risk measurements should be focused on providing a forward-looking view, as they enable the organization to anticipate and prepare for the potential changes and impacts of the risk level and exposure, and to take proactive and appropriate actions toaddress the risk. The other options are not the characteristics of well-developed, data-driven risk measurements, as they may not reflect the strategic, comprehensive, or timely aspects of the risk measurements, respectively. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 110.
Which of the following BEST enables a risk practitioner to identify the consequences of losing critical resources due to a disaster?
Risk management action plans
Business impact analysis (BIA)
What-if technique
Tabletop exercise results
Business Impact Analysis (BIA):
Purpose: A BIA is a systematic process to evaluate the potential effects of an interruption to critical business operations as a result of a disaster, accident, or emergency.
Identification of Consequences: It identifies critical resources and the consequences of their loss, allowing an organization to determine the operational and financial impacts of such losses.
Steps Involved in BIA:
Identify Critical Functions: Determine which business functions and processes are essential to the organization's operations.
Assess Impact: Evaluate the impact of losing these functions on the organization’s ability to operate.
Estimate Downtime Tolerance: Determine the maximum allowable downtime for critical functions before significant harm occurs.
Identify Dependencies: Document dependencies between systems, processes, and resources to understand how disruptions to one part affect the whole.
Comparison with Other Options:
Risk Management Action Plans: These are detailed plans developed to address identified risks but do not specifically focus on the impact of losing critical resources.
What-if Technique: This is a brainstorming technique used to explore potential risks and their impacts but is not as structured as a BIA.
Tabletop Exercise Results: These exercises simulate disaster scenarios to test response plans but do not provide the comprehensive impact analysis that a BIA does.
Best Practices:
Regular Updates: Regularly update the BIA to reflect changes in the business environment and operational dependencies.
Integration with DR/BC Plans: Ensure that findings from the BIA are integrated into disaster recovery (DR) and business continuity (BC) plans to enhance overall preparedness.
The PRIMARY goal of a risk management program is to:
facilitate resource availability.
help ensure objectives are met.
safeguard corporate assets.
help prevent operational losses.
According to the What Is Risk Management & Why Is It Important? article, risk management is the systematic process of identifying, assessing, and mitigating threats or uncertainties that can affect your organization. The primary goal of a risk management program is to help ensure objectives are met, by aligning the risk management process with the organization’s strategy, vision, mission, values, and objectives. By having a risk management program, an organization can identify potential problems before they occur and have a plan for addressing them, as well as monitor and report on the effectiveness of the risk responses. This can help the organization to achieve its desired outcomes and create value for its stakeholders. References = What Is Risk Management & Why Is It Important?
An organization has established workflows in its service desk to support employee reports of security-related concerns. Which of the following is the MOST efficient approach to analyze these concerns?
Map concerns to organizational assets.
Sort concerns by likelihood.
Align concerns to key vendors.
Prioritize concerns based on frequency of reports.
Prioritizing concerns based on frequency of reports is the most efficient approach to analyze the security-related concerns reported by employees, because it helps to identify and focus on the most common or recurring issues that may pose the highest risk or impact to the organization. A security-related concern is a potential or actual problem or threat that may affect the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of the organization’s IT systems or data. A service desk is a function that provides a single point of contact for users to report and resolve their IT-related issues or requests. A workflow is a sequence of steps or tasks that are performed to achieve a specific goal or outcome. A workflow for supporting employee reports of security-related concerns may include capturing, categorizing, prioritizing, assigning, and resolving the concerns. Prioritizing concerns based on frequency of reports is the most efficient approach, as it helps to optimize the use of resources and time, and to reduce the likelihood and severity of security incidents or breaches. Mapping concerns to organizational assets, sorting concerns by likelihood, and aligning concerns to key vendors are all possible approaches to analyze the security-related concerns, but they are not the most efficient approach, as they may require more data collection, analysis, or coordination, and may not reflect the urgency or importance of the concerns. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5, Section 5.3.2, page 200
Who should be responsible for determining which stakeholders need to be involved in the development of a risk scenario?
Risk owner
Risk practitioner
Compliance manager
Control owner
The risk practitioner is responsible for determining which stakeholders need to be involved in the development of a risk scenario, as they have the knowledge and skills to facilitate the process and ensure that the relevant perspectives and information are considered. The risk owner, the compliance manager, and the control owner are examples of stakeholders who may participate in the risk scenario development, but they are not responsible for determining who should be involved. References = Risk Scenarios Toolkit, page 9; CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 101.
A business impact analysis (BIA) has documented the duration of maximum allowable outage for each of an organization's applications. Which of the following MUST be aligned with the maximum allowable outage?
Mean time to restore (MTTR)
Recovery time objective (RTO)
Recovery point objective (RPO)
Mean time to detect (MTTD)
The recovery time objective (RTO) is the planned recovery time for a process or system which should occur before reaching the business process’s maximum tolerable downtime (MTD) or maximum allowable outage (MAO). The RTO must be aligned with the MAO to ensure that the continuity of the business process is not compromised by a prolonged outage. The RTO is determined by the business impact analysis (BIA) based on the criticality and urgency of the business process and its dependencies. The RTO also helps to select and implement appropriate recovery methods and procedures for the process or system. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 6: IT Risk Monitoring and Reporting, Section 6.2: ITRisk Reporting, Page 307; What is the difference between RPO, RTO, and MTD? - Tandem Blog.
When developing a response plan to address security incidents regarding sensitive data loss, it is MOST important
revalidate current key risk indicators (KRIs).
revise risk management procedures.
review the data classification policy.
revalidate existing risk scenarios.
When developing a response plan to address security incidents regarding sensitive data loss, it is most important to review the data classification policy. A data classification policy is a document that defines the categories and levels of data based on their sensitivity, value, and criticality, and specifies the appropriate security measures and handling procedures for each data type. A data classification policy helps to identify and protect the sensitive data that could be exposed or compromised in a security incident, and to comply with the relevant laws, regulations, standards, and contracts. Reviewing the data classification policy is important when developing a response plan, because it helps to determine the scope, impact, and priority of the security incident, and to select the most appropriate and effective response actions and strategies. Reviewing the data classification policy also helps to communicate and coordinate the response plan with the internal and external stakeholders, such as the data owners, users, custodians, and regulators, and to report and disclose the security incident as required. The other options are not as important as reviewing the data classification policy, although they may be part of or derived from the response plan. Revalidating current key risk indicators (KRIs), revising risk management procedures, and revalidating existing risk scenarios are all activities that can help to improve or update the risk management process, but they are not the most important when developing aresponse plan. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5, Section 5.3.1, page 5-25.
Which of the following roles would be MOST helpful in providing a high-level view of risk related to customer data loss?
Customer database manager
Customer data custodian
Data privacy officer
Audit committee
A data privacy officer is a role that is responsible for ensuring that the organization complies with the applicable laws, regulations, and standards regarding the collection, processing, storage, and disclosure of customer data1. A data privacy officer is also responsible for developing and implementing policies, procedures, and controls to protect the privacy and security of customer data, and to prevent or mitigate the risk of customer data loss2. A data privacy officer is the most helpful role in providing a high-level view of risk related to customer data loss, because:
A data privacy officer has the knowledge and expertise of the legal and ethical requirements and best practices for customer data protection, and can identify and assess the potential threats and vulnerabilities that may compromise customer data3.
A data privacy officer has the authority and accountability to oversee and monitor the customer data lifecycle, and to ensure that the organization follows the principles of data minimization, purpose limitation, accuracy, integrity, confidentiality, and accountability4.
A data privacy officer has the visibility and communication skills to report and advise the management and other stakeholders on the customer data risk profile, and to recommend and implement appropriate risk responses and improvement actions5.
The other options are not the most helpful roles in providing a high-level view of risk related to customer data loss, because:
A customer database manager is a role that is responsible for designing, developing, maintaining, and optimizing the database systems that store and manage customer data6. A customer database manager may have some technical skills and knowledge to protect the customer data from unauthorized access, modification, or deletion, but may not have the comprehensive or holistic view of the customer data risk, as they may focus only on the database level, and not on the organizational or regulatory level.
A customer data custodian is a role that is responsible for handling, processing, and storing customer data according to the instructions and permissions of the data owner7. A customer data custodian may have some operational duties and responsibilities to safeguard the customer data from accidental or intentional loss, damage, or disclosure, but may not have the strategic or analyticalview of the customer data risk, as they may follow only the predefined rules and procedures, and not the risk management principles and practices.
An audit committee is a group of independent directors or members that is responsible for overseeing and evaluating the organization’s financial reporting, internal control, and auditfunctions. An audit committee may have some oversight and assurance roles andresponsibilities to review and verify the organization’s compliance and performance regarding customer data protection, but may not have the direct or proactive view of the customer data risk, as they may rely only on the audit reports and findings, and not on the risk assessment and analysis.
References =
Data Privacy Officer - CIO Wiki
What is a Data Protection Officer (DPO)? - Definition from Techopedia
Data Privacy Officer: Roles and Responsibilities - ISACA
Data Protection Principles - CIO Wiki
Data Privacy Officer: How to Be One and Why You Need One - ISACA
Database Manager - CIO Wiki
Data Custodian - CIO Wiki
[Audit Committee - CIO Wiki]
Which of the following is the BEST indicator of executive management's support for IT risk mitigation efforts?
The number of stakeholders involved in IT risk identification workshops
The percentage of corporate budget allocated to IT risk activities
The percentage of incidents presented to the board
The number of executives attending IT security awareness training
The best indicator of executive management’s support for IT risk mitigation efforts is the number of executives attending IT security awareness training. This shows that the executives are committed to enhancing their knowledge and skills on IT security issues, and that they are setting a positive example for the rest of the organization. The number of stakeholders involved in IT risk identification workshops, the percentage of corporate budget allocated to IT risk activities, and the percentage of incidents presented to the board are other possible indicators, but they are not as strong as the number of executives attending IT security awareness training. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 7; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 202.
Which types of controls are BEST used to minimize the risk associated with a vulnerability?
Detective
Preventive
Deterrent
Directive
Preventive controls are the best types of controls to minimize the risk associated with a vulnerability, because they aim to avoid or reduce the occurrence of a threat or an exploit. Preventive controls can include physical, technical, or administrative measures, such as locks, firewalls, encryption, policies, training, or backup. Preventive controls can also involve eliminating or substituting the source of the vulnerability, such as outdated software or hardware.
References
•ISACA CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, Domain 3: Risk Response, Section 3.2.1: Control Types
•Hazard Controls - Princeton University
•Risk Control | Techniques and Importance of Risk Control - EDUCBA
The risk appetite for an organization could be derived from which of the following?
Cost of controls
Annual loss expectancy (ALE)
Inherent risk
Residual risk
According to the CRISC Review Manual1, cost of controls is the amount of money or resources that an organization is willing to spend to implement and maintain risk responses. Cost of controls is one of the factors that influences the risk appetite of an organization, as it reflects thetrade-off between the benefits and costs of risk responses. Cost of controls helps to determine the optimal level of risk that an organization can accept in pursuit of its objectives, and to align the risk responses with the organization’s strategy, goals, and culture. References = CRISC Review Manual1, page 193.
Which of the following is a specific concern related to machine learning algorithms?
Low software quality
Lack of access controls
Data breaches
Data bias
Data biasin machine learning algorithms can lead to inaccurate predictions or decisions, as biases in training data are amplified in the output. Addressing bias is essential for ethical and reliable algorithm performance.
Which of the following is MOST helpful in verifying that the implementation of a risk mitigation control has been completed as intended?
An updated risk register
Risk assessment results
Technical control validation
Control testing results
Control testing is the process of verifying that the risk mitigation controls are designed and operating effectively, and that they achieve the intended objectives and outcomes. Control testing can involve various methods, such as observation, inspection, inquiry, re-performance, or simulation. Control testing results can provide evidence and assurance that the implementation of a risk mitigation control has been completed as intended, and that the control is functioning properly and consistently. Control testing results can also identify any issues or deficiencies in the control design or operation, and recommend corrective actions or improvements. The other options are not as helpful as control testing results, because they do not provide a direct and objective verification of the control implementation, but rather focus on other aspects or outputs of the risk management process, as explained below:
A. An updated risk register is a document that records and tracks the identified risks, their characteristics, and their status. An updated risk register can reflect the changes in the risk profile and exposure after the implementation of a risk mitigation control, but it does not verify that the control implementation has been completed as intended, or that the control is effective and reliable.
B. Risk assessment results are the outputs of the risk analysis and evaluation process, which measure the impact and likelihood of the risks, and assign a risk rating and priority. Risk assessment results can indicate the level of risk exposure and the need for risk mitigation controls, but they do not verify that the control implementation has been completed as intended, or that the control is effective and reliable.
C. Technical control validation is the process of ensuring that the technical aspects of a control, such as hardware, software, or network components, are configured and functioning correctly. Technical control validation can verify that the control implementation meets the technical specifications and requirements, but it does not verify that the control implementation has been completed as intended, or that the control is effective and reliable from a businessperspective. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.3.3, page 130.
Which of the following is the BEST way to reduce the likelihood of an individual performing a potentially harmful action as the result of unnecessary entitlement?
Application monitoring
Separation of duty
Least privilege
Nonrepudiation
Least privilege is the best way to reduce the likelihood of an individual performing a potentially harmful action as the result of unnecessary entitlement, because it limits the access and permissions of the individual to the minimum level that is required to perform their role or function, and prevents the individual from accessing or modifying the resources or data that are not relevant or authorized. An entitlement is a right or privilege that grants an individual the ability to access or use a resource or data, such as a file, a system, or an application. An unnecessary entitlement is an entitlement that is not needed or justified for the individual’s role or function, and may pose a risk of unauthorized or inappropriate access or use of the resource or data. A potentially harmful action is an action that may cause harm or damage to the organization or its objectives, such as a data breach, a fraud, or a sabotage. Least privilege is thebest way, as it helps to minimize the exposure and impact of the unnecessary entitlement, and to reduce the likelihood and severity of the potentially harmful action. Application monitoring, separation of duty, and nonrepudiation are all possible ways to reduce the likelihoodof an individual performing a potentially harmful action as the result of unnecessary entitlement, but they are not the best way, as they do not directly address the unnecessary entitlement, and may not prevent the potentially harmful action. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5, Section 5.3.2, page 200
When developing risk treatment alternatives for a Business case, it is MOST helpful to show risk reduction based on:
cost-benefit analysis.
risk appetite.
regulatory guidelines
control efficiency
Cost-benefit analysis is the most helpful tool to show risk reduction based on when developing risk treatment alternatives for a business case, because it compares the expected costs and benefits of each alternative and helps to select the most optimal and feasible one. Cost-benefit analysis also helps to justify the investment and resources required for the risk treatment plan and to demonstrate the value and return of the risk reduction. The other options are not the most helpful tools, although they may also be considered when developing risk treatment alternatives. Risk appetite, regulatory guidelines, and control efficiency are examples of factors or criteria that influence the selection of risk treatment alternatives, but they do not show the risk reduction based on the alternatives. References = CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions
A vendor's planned maintenance schedule will cause a critical application to temporarily lose failover capabilities. Of the following, who should approve this proposed schedule?
Business continuity manager
Chief risk officer (CRO)
IT infrastructure manager
Business application owner
The business application owner is responsible for the application's performance and availability. Therefore, they should approve any maintenance schedules that could impact the application's functionality, including temporary loss of failover capabilities. Their approval ensures that the business implications are considered and that appropriate contingency plans are in place.
The PRIMARY benefit of classifying information assets is that it helps to:
communicate risk to senior management
assign risk ownership
facilitate internal audit
determine the appropriate level of control
Classifying information assets is a process of identifying and categorizing the data and information resources that are owned, controlled, or used by an organization, based on their value, sensitivity, and criticality.
Classifying information assets helps to determine the appropriate level of control that is needed to protect them from unauthorized access, use, disclosure, modification, or destruction. Control level refers to the degree of protection or assurance that a control provides against a risk.
Classifying information assets also helps to communicate risk to senior management, assign risk ownership, and facilitate internal audit. These are other benefits of risk management that are not directly related to determining the appropriate level of control.
The references for this answer are:
Risk IT Framework, page 11
Information Technology & Security, page 5
Risk Scenarios Starter Pack, page 3
Which of the following is the BEST metric to demonstrate the effectiveness of an organization's change management process?
Increase in the frequency of changes
Percent of unauthorized changes
Increase in the number of emergency changes
Average time to complete changes
A change management process is a set of procedures and activities that aim to ensure that changes in an organization’s IT systems and services are implemented in a controlled and coordinated manner. The effectiveness of a change management process can be measured by how well it reduces the risks and costs associated with changes, and how well it supports the business objectives and customer expectations. One of the best metrics to demonstrate the effectiveness of a change management process is the percent of unauthorized changes. Unauthorized changes are changes that are made without following the established change management process, such as obtaining approval, documenting the change, testing the change, and communicating the change. Unauthorized changes can introduce errors, defects, security breaches, and disruptions to the IT systems and services, and can negatively affect the business performance and customer satisfaction. Therefore, a low percent of unauthorized changes indicates that the change management process is effective in ensuring that changes are properly planned, approved, executed, and monitored. The other options are not the best metrics to demonstrate the effectiveness of a change management process, as they do not directly reflect the quality and control of the changes. An increase in the frequency of changes may indicate that the organization is agile and responsive to the changing business needs and customer demands, but it does not necessarily mean that the changes are well-managed and beneficial. An increase in the number of emergency changes may indicate that the organization is able to handle urgent and critical situations, but it may also suggest that the organization is reactive and lacks proper planning and analysis of the changes. The average time to complete changes may indicate the efficiency and speed of the change management process, but it does not measure the effectiveness and value of the changes. References = CRISC Review Manual, pages 156-1571; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, page 712
Which of the following is MOST important when developing risk scenarios?
The scenarios are based on industry best practice.
The scenarios focus on current vulnerabilities.
The scenarios are relevant to the organization.
The scenarios include technical consequences.
According to the CRISC Review Manual1, risk scenarios are hypothetical situations that describe the potential causes, impacts, and responses of a risk event. Risk scenarios are useful tools for identifying, analyzing, and communicating risks in a clear and understandable way. The most important factor when developing risk scenarios is to ensure that they are relevant to the organization, as this helps to capture the specific context, objectives, processes, and resources of the organization, and to reflect the actual risk exposure and appetite of the organization. Relevant risk scenarios also help to engage and involve the stakeholders, and to facilitate risk-based decision making and action planning. References = CRISC Review Manual1, page 206.
As part of an overall IT risk management plan, an IT risk register BEST helps management:
align IT processes with business objectives.
communicate the enterprise risk management policy.
stay current with existing control status.
understand the organizational risk profile.
An IT risk register is a document that is used as a risk management tool to identify, analyze, and track the potential risks related to the use of information technology within an organization. An IT risk register helps management to understand the organizational risk profile, which is a comprehensive and structured representation of the risks that the organization faces. The risk profile helps the organization to understand its risk exposure, appetite, and tolerance, and to align its risk management strategy with its business objectives and context. The risk register is an essential input for creating and updating the risk profile, as it provides the data and analysis ofthe risks that need to be prioritized and addressed12. The other options are not the best answers, as they are either not directly shown or derived from the IT risk register. Aligning IT processes with business objectives is a goal of IT governance, which may be influenced by the IT risk register, but not solely determined by it. Communicating the enterprise risk management policy is a responsibility of the senior management and the board of directors, which may use the IT risk register as a reference, but not as the main source. Staying current with existing control status is a function of IT audit and assurance, which may rely on the IT risk register as a basis, but not as the only evidence. References = Risk Register: A Project Manager’s Guide with Examples [2023] • Asana; Complete Guide to IT Risk Management | CompTIA
An organization is implementing internet of Things (loT) technology to control temperature and lighting in its headquarters. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern?
Insufficient network isolation
impact on network performance
insecure data transmission protocols
Lack of interoperability between sensors
Insecure data transmission protocols should be of greatest concern when an organization is implementing internet of Things (IoT) technology to control temperature and lighting in its headquarters, because they can expose the IoT devices and data to unauthorized access,interception, or manipulation. Insecure data transmission protocols can also compromise the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the IoT system and the information it collects and transmits. The other options are not the greatest concerns, although they may also pose some challenges or risks to the IoT implementation. Insufficient network isolation, impact on networkperformance, and lack of interoperability between sensors are examples of technical or operational issues that can affect the functionality, efficiency, or compatibility of the IoT system, but they do not have the same severity or impact as insecure data transmission protocols. References = CRISC Sample Questions 2024
Which type of indicators should be developed to measure the effectiveness of an organization's firewall rule set?
Key risk indicators (KRIs)
Key management indicators (KMIs)
Key performance indicators (KPIs)
Key control indicators (KCIs)
The best type of indicators to measure the effectiveness of an organization’s firewall rule set are key control indicators (KCIs). A firewall is a device or software that filters the network traffic based on a set of rules or policies. A firewall rule set is the configuration of the firewall that defines the criteria for allowing or blocking the traffic. A key control indicator is a metric that measures the performance and effectiveness of a control in achieving its objectives and mitigating the risks. A key control indicator can help to evaluate the adequacy and efficiency of the firewall rule set, and to identify any gaps, weaknesses, or issues that need to be addressed.Key risk indicators (KRIs), key management indicators (KMIs), and key performance indicators (KPIs) are not as suitable as key control indicators, as they measure different aspects of the risk management process, such as the level and nature of the risk exposure, the alignment and integration of the risk management activities, and the achievement of the risk management goals and targets. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 220.
Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of using an entry in the risk register to track the aggregate risk associated with server failure?
It provides a cost-benefit analysis on control options available for implementation.
It provides a view on where controls should be applied to maximize the uptime of servers.
It provides historical information about the impact of individual servers malfunctioning.
It provides a comprehensive view of the impact should the servers simultaneously fail.
Using an entry in the risk register to track the aggregate risk associated with server failure provides a comprehensive view of the impact should the servers simultaneously fail, as it considers the combined effect of the server failure on the enterprise’s objectives and operations. The risk register is a document that records and tracks the identified risks, their likelihood, impact, and mitigation strategies. By aggregating the risk associated with server failure, the risk register can help to estimate the worst-case scenario and to prioritize the risk response accordingly. It provides a cost-benefit analysis on controloptions available for implementation, it provides a view on where controls should be applied to maximize the uptime of servers, and it provides historical information about the impact of individual servers malfunctioning are not the primary benefits of using an entry in the risk register to track the aggregate risk associated with server failure, but rather the possible outcomes or actions of using the risk register. References = CRISC Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control –Question220; ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 220.
A multinational company needs to implement a new centralized security system. The risk practitioner has identified a conflict between the organization's data-handling policy and local privacy regulations. Which of the following would be the BEST recommendation?
Request a policy exception from senior management.
Comply with the organizational policy.
Report the noncompliance to the local regulatory agency.
Request an exception from the local regulatory agency.
Which of the following requirements is MOST important to include in an outsourcing contract to help ensure sensitive data stored with a service provider is secure?
A third-party assessment report of control environment effectiveness must be provided at least annually.
Incidents related to data toss must be reported to the organization immediately after they occur.
Risk assessment results must be provided to the organization at least annually.
A cyber insurance policy must be purchased to cover data loss events.
The most important requirement to include in an outsourcing contract to help ensure sensitive data stored with a service provider is secure is a third-party assessment report of control environment effectiveness. This will help to verify that the service provider has implemented adequate security controls and practices to protect the data, and that they comply with the enterprise’s security policies and standards. A third-party assessment report also provides an independent and objective assurance of the service provider’s security posture and performance. Incidents related to data loss, risk assessment results, and cyber insurance policy are also important requirements to include in an outsourcing contract, but they are not as important as a third-party assessment report. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 5, Section 5.2.1.2, page 2461
1: ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC®) Exam Guide, Answer to Question 643.
Which of the following is MOST effective in continuous risk management process improvement?
Periodic assessments
Change management
Awareness training
Policy updates
Continuous risk management process improvement is the practice of evaluating and enhancing the risk management process on a regular basis, to ensure that it is effective, efficient, and aligned with the business objectives and strategy. Continuous risk management processimprovement can help identify and address the gaps, weaknesses, or opportunities for improvement in the risk management process, and ensure that the process is responsive and adaptable to the changing risk environment. The most effective method for continuous risk management process improvement is periodic assessments, which are systematic and objective evaluations of the risk management process, performed at predefined intervals or after significant events. Periodic assessments can help measure and monitor the performance and maturity of the risk management process, using criteria such as the risk management framework, standards, policies, procedures, methods, tools, roles, responsibilities, and results. Periodic assessments can also help identify and analyze the strengths, weaknesses, threats, and opportunities of the risk management process, and provide feedback and recommendations for improvement. Periodic assessments can also help communicate and report the status and progress of the risk management process to the stakeholders, and obtain their input and support for improvement actions. References = Continuous Risk Management Guidebook, p. 7-8, ISO 31000: riskmanagement and its continuous improvement, How Continuous Monitoring Drives Risk Management.
A failed IT system upgrade project has resulted in the corruption of an organization's asset inventory database. Which of the following controls BEST mitigates the impact of this incident?
Encryption
Authentication
Configuration
Backups
Backups are the best control to mitigate the impact of a failed IT system upgrade project that has resulted in the corruption of an organization’s asset inventory database, as they allow theorganization to restore the data from a previous state and resume normal operations. Encryption, authentication, and configuration are not the best controls, as they do not address the data corruption issue, but rather the datasecurity, access, and quality issues, respectively. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 153.
What should be the PRIMARY consideration related to data privacy protection when there are plans for a business initiative to make use of personal information?
Do not collect or retain data that is not needed.
Redact data where possible.
Limit access to the personal data.
Ensure all data is encrypted at rest and during transit.
Data privacy protection is the process of safeguarding the personal information of individuals from unauthorized access, use, disclosure, modification, or destruction. Personal information is any information that can be used to identify, locate, or contact an individual, such as name, address, phone number, email, social security number, etc. When there are plans for a business initiative to make use of personal information, the primary consideration related to data privacyprotection is to do not collect or retain data that is not needed. This means that the organization should only collect the minimum amount of personal information that is necessary for the purpose of the business initiative, and should only retain the data for as long as it is required by law or business needs. By doing so, the organization can reduce the risk of data breaches,comply with the data protection regulations, respect the data subjects’ rights, and enhance the trust and reputation of the organization. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 159.
An organization is concerned that a change in its market situation may impact the current level of acceptable risk for senior management. As a result, which of the following is MOST important to reevaluate?
Risk classification
Risk policy
Risk strategy
Risk appetite
Risk Appetite:
Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to take in order to meet its objectives. It reflects the organization’s risk tolerance and guides decision-making at all levels.
Impact of Market Changes:
A change in the market situation can alter the risk landscape, potentially affecting the organization’s ability to achieve its objectives. This might necessitate a reassessment of what level of risk is acceptable.
Senior management needs to ensure that the risk appetite remains aligned with the new market conditions and organizational goals.
Reevaluation Process:
Reevaluating the risk appetite involves assessing the organization's capacity to bear risk and determining if the current acceptable risk levels are still appropriate.
This might involve more conservative or aggressive risk-taking strategies based on the new market dynamics.
Other Considerations:
Risk Classification:This categorizes risks but does not directly address changes in acceptable risk levels.
Risk Policy:While important, the policy outlines the approach to managing risk and is influenced by the risk appetite.
Risk Strategy:This defines how risks are managed but should be aligned with the risk appetite.
References:
The CRISC Review Manual emphasizes the importance of aligning risk appetite with the organization’s strategic objectives and market conditions (CRISC Review Manual, Chapter 1: Governance, Section 1.10 Risk Appetite, Tolerance, and Capacity) .
An organization plans to implement a new Software as a Service (SaaS) speech-to-text solution Which of the following is MOST important to mitigate risk associated with data privacy?
Secure encryption protocols are utilized.
Multi-factor authentication is set up for users.
The solution architecture is approved by IT.
A risk transfer clause is included in the contact
Utilizing secure encryption protocols is the most important factor to mitigate risk associated with data privacy when implementing a new Software as a Service (SaaS) speech-to-text solution, as it ensures that the data is protected from unauthorized access, interception, or modification during the transmission and storage in the cloud. Setting up multi-factor authentication for users, approving the solution architecture by IT, and including a risk transfer clause in the contract are not the most important factors, as they may not address the data privacy issue, but rather the data access, quality, or liability issue, respectively. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 153.
Which of the following would BEST mitigate the risk associated with reputational damage from inappropriate use of social media sites by employees?
Validating employee social media accounts and passwords
Monitoring Internet usage on employee workstations
Disabling social media access from the organization's technology
Implementing training and awareness programs
The best way to mitigate the risk of reputational damage from inappropriate use of social media sites by employees is to implement training and awareness programs that educate them on the acceptable andunacceptable use of social media, the potential consequences of violating the policy, and the best practices for protecting the organization’s reputation and information. Training and awareness programs can also help to foster a culture of risk awareness and responsibility among employees, and encourage them to report any incidents or issues related to social media use. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3, Section 3.2.4, page 131.
An organization is planning to engage a cloud-based service provider for some of its data-intensive business processes. Which of the following is MOST important to help define the IT risk associated with this outsourcing activity?
Service level agreement
Customer service reviews
Scope of services provided
Right to audit the provider
According to the CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), the right to audit the provider is the most important factor to help define the IT risk associated with outsourcing activity to a cloud-based service provider, as it enables the organization to verify the compliance and performance of the provider with the contractual obligations and service level agreements. The right to audit the provider helps to:
Assess the security, availability, confidentiality, integrity, and privacy of the data and processes hosted by the provider
Identify and evaluate the risks and controls related to the cloud-based services and the provider’s infrastructure
Monitor and measure the quality and effectiveness of the cloud-based services and the provider’s governance and management practices
Report and resolve any issues or incidents related to the cloud-based services and the provider’s operations
Ensure the alignment of the cloud-based services and the provider’s policies and standards with the organization’s objectives and requirements
References = CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3: IT Risk Response, Section 3.3: Risk Response Options, pp. 176-1771
An organization has built up its cash reserves and has now become financially able to support additional risk while meeting its objectives. What is this change MOST likely to impact?
Risk profile
Risk capacity
Risk indicators
Risk tolerance
Risk capacity is the amount of risk that an organization can financially afford to take, without jeopardizing its ability to meet its objectives or obligations. Risk capacity is determined by factors such as the organization’s income, assets, liabilities, and cash flow. An organization that has built up its cash reserves has increased its risk capacity, as it has more financial resources and flexibility to support additional risk. This may enable the organization to pursue more opportunities or initiatives that involve higher risk and higher reward.
Risk profile is a summary of the key risks that an organization faces, and their implications for the organization’s objectives and strategy. Risk profile may change due to factors such as new technologies, business initiatives, or external events, but not necessarily due to changes in cash reserves.
Risk indicators are metrics or indicators that help to monitor and evaluate the likelihood or impact of a risk, or the effectiveness or efficiency of a control. Risk indicators may vary depending on the risk sources, scenarios, or responses, but not necessarily due to changes in cash reserves.
Risk tolerance is the amount of risk that an organization is willing to accept, based on its risk appetite and risk capacity. Risk tolerance is influenced by factors such as the organization’s culture, values, and objectives, as well as the risk environment and expectations. Risk tolerance may change due to changes in cash reserves, but it is not the most likely impact, as it also depends on the organization’s risk appetite and other factors.
Which of the following BEST indicates that an organization's disaster recovery plan (DRP) will mitigate the risk of the organization failing to recover from a major service disruption?
An experienced and certified disaster recovery team
A record of quarterly disaster recovery tests
A comprehensive list of critical applications
A defined recovery point objective (RPO)
Frequent and well-documented testing of the DRP demonstrates the plan's effectiveness and readiness to handle real disruptions.
Which of the following is MOST important to include in a risk assessment of an emerging technology?
Risk response plans
Risk and control ownership
Key controls
Impact and likelihood ratings
The most important thing to include in a risk assessment of an emerging technology is the impact and likelihood ratings of the risks associated with the technology. Impact and likelihood ratings are the measures of the potential consequences and probabilities of the risk events that could affect the achievement of the enterprise’s objectives. Impact and likelihood ratings can help to evaluate the level andnature of the risk exposure, and to prioritize the risks for further analysis and response. Impact and likelihood ratings can also help to communicate the risk profile and appetite of the enterprise, and to support the risk-based decision making. Risk response plans, risk and control ownership, and key controls are not as important as impact and likelihood ratings, as they are the outputs or outcomes of the risk assessment process, and not the inputs or components of the risk assessment process. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 49.
Which of the following is MOST important for an organization that wants to reduce IT operational risk?
Increasing senior management's understanding of IT operations
Increasing the frequency of data backups
Minimizing complexity of IT infrastructure
Decentralizing IT infrastructure
According to the Operational Risk: Overview, Importance, and Examples article, operational risk is the risk of loss resulting from inadequate or failed internal processes, people, and systems. One of the factors that can increase operational risk is the complexity of IT infrastructure, which refers to the number, variety, and interdependence of IT components, such as hardware, software, networks, and data. A complex IT infrastructure can pose challenges for IT management, such as increased costs, reduced performance, lower reliability, highervulnerability, and more difficulty in troubleshooting and maintenance. Therefore, minimizing the complexity of IT infrastructure can help reduce IT operational risk, as it can simplify IT operations, improve IT efficiency and effectiveness, enhance IT security and resilience, and facilitate IT innovation and adaptation. References = Operational Risk: Overview, Importance, and Examples
Which of the following will be the GREATEST concern when assessing the risk profile of an organization?
The risk profile was not updated after a recent incident
The risk profile was developed without using industry standards.
The risk profile was last reviewed two years ago.
The risk profile does not contain historical loss data.
The greatest concern when assessing the risk profile of an organization is that the risk profile was last reviewed two years ago. A risk profile is a snapshot of the current risk exposure and appetite of the organization, based on the identification, analysis, and evaluation of the risks that could affect the achievement of the organization’s objectives. A risk profile should be reviewed and updated regularly, atleast annually, or whenever there are significant changes in the internal or external environment, such as new projects, strategies, regulations, or incidents. A risk profile that was last reviewed two years ago may not reflect the current risk situation and status of the organization, and may lead to inaccurate or incomplete risk assessment and response. The risk profile not being updated after a recent incident, the risk profile being developed without using industry standards, and the risk profile not containing historical loss data are also concerns, but they are not as critical as the risk profile being outdated. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 48.
Which of the following is the MOST important criteria for selecting key risk indicators (KRIs)?
Historical data availability
Implementation and reporting effort
Ability to display trends
Sensitivity and reliability
Sensitivity and reliability are the most important criteria for selecting KRIs, as they indicate how well the KRIs reflect the changes in the risk level and how consistent and accurate the KRIs are in measuring the risk.Sensitivity means that the KRIs should respond quickly and proportionally to the variations in the risk exposure, and provide early warning signals of potential risk events. Reliability means that the KRIs should be based on valid and verifiable data sources, and produce consistent and comparable results over time and across different units or functions. Historical data availability, implementation and reporting effort, and ability to display trends are also useful criteria, but they are not as critical as sensitivity and reliability.
In an organization with a mature risk management program, which of the following would provide the BEST evidence that the IT risk profile is up to date?
Risk questionnaire
Risk register
Management assertion
Compliance manual
A risk register is a tool that records and tracks the risks that may affect the organization, as well as the actions that are taken or planned to manage them1. A risk register provides the best evidence that the IT risk profile is up to date, because it reflects the current and potential IT risks that the organization faces, as well as their likelihood, impact, severity, owner, status, and response2. An IT risk profile is a document that describes the types, amounts, and priority of ITrisk that the organization finds acceptable and unacceptable3. An IT risk profile is developed collaboratively with various stakeholders within the organization, including business leaders, data and process owners, enterprise risk management, internal and external audit, legal, compliance, privacy, and IT risk management and security4. By maintaining and updating the risk register regularly, the organization can ensure that the IT risk profile is aligned with the changing IT risk environment, and that the IT risk management activities and performance are consistent and effective. The other options are not the best evidence that the IT risk profile is up to date, as they are either less comprehensive or less relevant than the risk register. A risk questionnaire is a tool that collects and analyzes the opinions and perceptions of the stakeholders about the risks that may affect the organization5. A risk questionnaire can help to identify and assess the risks, as well as to communicate and report on the risk status and issues. However, a risk questionnaire is not the best evidence that the IT risk profile is up to date, as it may not capture all the IT risks that the organization faces, or reflect the actual or objective level and nature of the IT risks. A management assertion is a statement or declaration made by the management about the accuracy and completeness of the information or data that they provide or report. A management assertion can help to increase the confidence and trust of the stakeholders and auditors in the information or data, as well as to demonstrate the accountability and responsibility of the management. However, a management assertion is not the best evidence that the IT risk profile is up to date, as it does not provide the details or outcomes of the IT risk management activities or performance, or verify the validity and reliability of the IT risk information or data. A compliance manual is a document that contains the policies, procedures, and standards that the organization must follow to meet the legal, regulatory, or contractual requirements that apply to its activities or operations. A compliance manual can help to ensure the quality and consistency of the organization’s compliance activities or performance, as well as to avoid or reduce the penalties or sanctions for non-compliance. However, a compliance manual is not the best evidence that the IT risk profile is up to date, as it does not address the IT risks that the organization faces, or the IT risk management activities or performance. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.1.5, Page 55.
An IT risk practitioner has determined that mitigation activities differ from an approved risk action plan. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?
Report the observation to the chief risk officer (CRO).
Validate the adequacy of the implemented risk mitigation measures.
Update the risk register with the implemented risk mitigation actions.
Revert the implemented mitigation measures until approval is obtained
This can help to:
Ensure that the implemented measures are effective and efficient in reducing the risk level to an acceptable level, and that they are aligned with the risk appetite and tolerance of the organization2.
Identify and address any gaps, issues, or challenges that may arise from the deviation from the approved risk action plan, and recommend and implement appropriate improvement actions or contingency plans3.
Communicate and report the results and outcomes of the validation to the relevant stakeholders, such as the risk owner, the risk committee, or the chief risk officer, and obtain their feedback and approval4.
The other options are not the best course of action, because:
Reporting the observation to the chief risk officer (CRO) is not the best course of action, as it may not provide sufficient information or evidence to support the deviation from the approved risk action plan. The CRO may not be able to evaluate or approve the implemented risk mitigation measures without knowing their adequacy or impact on the risk level5.
Updating the risk register with the implemented risk mitigation actions is not the best course of action, as it may not reflect the current or accurate risk status or performance. The risk register is a document that records and summarizes the key information and data about the identified risks and the risk responses6. Updating the risk register without validating the adequacy of the implemented risk mitigation measures may create inconsistencies or inaccuracies in the risk register.
Reverting the implemented mitigation measures until approval is obtained is not the best course of action, as it may expose the organization to higher or unacceptable levels of risk. Reverting the implemented mitigation measures may undo or negate the benefits or outcomes of the risk mitigation, and may increase the likelihood or impact of the risk events7.
References =
ISACA Risk Starter Kit provides risk management templates and policies
Risk Appetite and Tolerance - CIO Wiki
Risk Monitoring and Review - The National Academies Press
Risk Reporting - CIO Wiki
Chief Risk Officer - CIO Wiki
Risk Register - CIO Wiki
Risk Mitigation - CIO Wiki
Who is accountable for the process when an IT stakeholder operates a key control to address a risk scenario?
Data custodian
Risk owner
System owner
IT manager
The risk owner is accountable for managing risk, including overseeing controls addressing identified risk scenarios, regardless of who operates them.
What can be determined from the risk scenario chart?
Relative positions on the risk map
Risk treatment options
Capability of enterprise to implement
The multiple risk factors addressed by a chosen response
The risk scenario chart shows the initial and residual risk ratings, and the project cost, for four projects named Sierra, Tango, Uniform, and Victor. The initial risk rating is the level of risk before applying any controls or mitigation measures, while the residual risk rating is the level of risk after applying the controls or measures. The project cost is the amount of resources required to implement the project. These three factors can be used to determine the relative positions of the projects on a risk map, which is a graphical tool for displaying the risks based on their impact and likelihood. The risk map can help to prioritize and compare the risks, and to select the most appropriate risk response strategy. The other options are not the best answers, as they are not directly shown or derived from the risk scenario chart. The risk treatment options are the possible actions that can be taken to address the risks, such as accept, avoid, mitigate, or transfer. The capability of enterprise to implement is the ability of the organization to execute the risk response plan,considering the available resources, skills, and constraints. The multiple risk factors addressed by a chosen response are the various elements that contribute to or affect the risk, such as the threat sources, events, vulnerabilities, assets, and impacts. These factors are not explicitly stated or measured in the risk scenario chart, and may require further analysis or information. References = How to Write Strong Risk Scenarios and Statements - ISACA; Identifying the Right Risk Scenarios to Measure with FAIR; How to write good risk scenarios and statements
What is the MOST important consideration when selecting key performance indicators (KPIs) for control monitoring?
Source information is acquired at stable cost.
Source information is tailored by removing outliers.
Source information is readily quantifiable.
Source information is consistently available.
The most important consideration when selecting KPIs for control monitoring is that the source information is consistently available, meaning that it can be obtained regularly, reliably, and timely from the same or equivalent data sources. This ensures that the KPIs can measure the performance of the controls over time and across different units or functions, and provide meaningful and comparable results. Source information that is acquired at stable cost, tailored by removing outliers, or readily quantifiable are also desirable, but not as essential as consistency.
Which of the following is the MAIN reason to continuously monitor IT-related risk?
To redefine the risk appetite and risk tolerance levels based on changes in risk factors
To update the risk register to reflect changes in levels of identified and new IT-related risk
To ensure risk levels are within acceptable limits of the organization's risk appetite and risk tolerance
To help identify root causes of incidents and recommend suitable long-term solutions
According to the CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), the main reason to continuously monitor IT-related risk is to ensure risk levels are within acceptable limits of the organization’srisk appetite and risk tolerance. The risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives, while the risk tolerance is the acceptable variation in outcomes related to specific performance measures linked to objectives. Continuous monitoring is a process that tracks the security state of an information system on an ongoing basis and maintains the security authorization for the system over time. Continuous monitoring helps to:
Provide ongoing assurance that the implemented security controls are operating effectively and efficiently
Detect changes in the risk profile of the information system and the environment of operation
Identify new or emerging threats and vulnerabilities that may affect the information system
Support risk-based decisions by providing timely and relevant risk information to stakeholders
Facilitate the implementation of corrective actions and risk mitigation strategies
Promote accountability and transparency in the risk management process
Enhance the security awareness and culture within the organization
References = CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 4: IT Risk Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.1: IT Risk Monitoring, pp. 213-2141
Which of the following is a risk practitioner's BEST recommendation upon learning that an employee inadvertently disclosed sensitive data to a vendor?
Enroll the employee in additional security training.
Invoke the incident response plan.
Conduct an internal audit.
Instruct the vendor to delete the data.
The best recommendation for a risk practitioner upon learning that an employee inadvertently disclosed sensitive data to a vendor is to invoke the incident response plan. An incident responseplan is a document that defines the roles, responsibilities, procedures, and resources fordetecting, analyzing, containing, eradicating, recovering, and reporting on security incidents that could affect the organization’s IT systems or data. An incident response plan helps to protect and restore the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the organization’s information assets, and to comply with the relevant laws, regulations, standards, and contracts. Invoking the incident response plan is the best recommendation, because it helps to respond to and mitigate the security incident, and to minimize the damage and impact of the data disclosure. Invoking the incident response plan also helps to communicate and coordinate the incident response actions and strategies with the internal and external stakeholders, such as the data owners, users, custodians, and regulators, and to report and disclose the incident as required. The other options are not as effective as invoking the incident response plan, although they may be part of or derived from the incident response plan. Enrolling the employee in additional security training, conducting an internal audit, and instructing the vendor to delete the data are all examples of corrective or preventive actions, which may help to prevent or deter the recurrence of the data disclosure, or to verify or validate the data security, but they do not necessarily address or resolve the current security incident. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5, Section 5.4.1, page 5-32.
In an organization dependent on data analytics to drive decision-making, which of the following would BEST help to minimize the risk associated with inaccurate data?
Establishing an intellectual property agreement
Evaluating each of the data sources for vulnerabilities
Periodically reviewing big data strategies
Benchmarking to industry best practice
Periodically reviewing big data strategies is the best option to minimize the risk of inaccurate data, because it allows the organization to assess the quality, validity, and reliability of the data sources and the analytics methods. It also enables the organization to identify and address any gaps, errors, or inconsistencies in the data and the results. By reviewing the big data strategies, the organization can ensure that the data analytics are aligned with the business objectives and the risk appetite.
Establishing an intellectual property agreement is not relevant to the risk of inaccurate data, as it is a legal measure to protect the ownership and use of the data, not its quality or accuracy.
Evaluating each of the data sources for vulnerabilities is a good practice, but it is not sufficient to minimize the risk of inaccurate data, as it only focuses on the security aspect of the data, not the validity or reliability of the data itself.
Benchmarking to industry best practice is a useful way to compare the performance and results of the data analytics, but it does not directly address the risk of inaccurate data, as it assumes that the data and the methods are already valid and reliable. References = Risk IT Framework, 2nd Edition, ISACA, 2019, page 62-63.
A key performance indicator (KPI) shows that a process is operating inefficiently, even though no control issues were noted during the most recent risk assessment. Which of the following should be done FIRST?
Implement new controls.
Recalibrate the key performance indicator (KPI).
Redesign the process.
Re-evaluate the existing control design.
Understanding KPIs:
Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) are metrics used to evaluate the efficiency and effectiveness of a process. They must be accurate and relevant to provide meaningful insights.
Process Inefficiency Despite No Control Issues:
If a KPI shows inefficiency but no control issues are noted, it suggests that the KPI may not be accurately reflecting the process performance.
Recalibrating the KPI ensures that it correctly measures what it is intended to, providing a true picture of the process efficiency.
Steps for Recalibration:
Review the current KPI and its alignment with process objectives.
Adjust the KPI parameters or thresholds to better reflect process performance.
Validate the recalibrated KPI with historical data to ensure accuracy.
Comparing Other Actions:
Implementing New Controls:Premature without understanding the root cause of the KPI discrepancy.
Redesigning the Process:Extensive and unnecessary if the KPI is simply miscalibrated.
Re-Evaluating Existing Control Design:Important but secondary to ensuring KPI accuracy.
References:
The CRISC Review Manual emphasizes the importance of accurate KPIs in monitoring process performance and the need for recalibration when discrepancies are found (CRISC Review Manual, Chapter 3: Risk Response and Mitigation, Section 3.14 Key Performance Indicators).
Which of the following observations would be GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner reviewing the implementation status of management action plans?
Management has not determined a final implementation date.
Management has not completed an early mitigation milestone.
Management has not secured resources for mitigation activities.
Management has not begun the implementation.
The observation that would be of GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner reviewing the implementation status of management action plans is that management has not begun the implementation, because it indicates that the management action plans are not being executed or monitored, and that the risks are not being addressed or mitigated. The lack of implementation may also imply that the management action plans are not realistic, feasible, or aligned with the enterprise’s strategy and objectives. The other options are not as concerning as the lack of implementation, because:
Option A: Management has not determined a final implementation date is a concern, but not the greatest one, because it may affect the timely completion and delivery of the management action plans, but it does not necessarily mean that the management action plans are not being executed or monitored.
Option B: Management has not completed an early mitigation milestone is a concern, but not the greatest one, because it may indicate a delay or deviation in the progress and performance of the management action plans, but it does not necessarily mean that the management action plans are not being executed or monitored.
Option C: Management has not secured resources for mitigation activities is a concern, but not the greatest one, because it may affect the quality and effectiveness of the management actionplans, but it does not necessarily mean that the management action plans are not being executed or monitored. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, ISACA, 2020, p. 123.
Which of the following is MOST helpful in identifying gaps between the current and desired state of the IT risk environment?
Analyzing risk appetite and tolerance levels
Assessing identified risk and recording results in the risk register
Evaluating risk scenarios and assessing current controls
Reviewing guidance from industry best practices and standards
Evaluating risk scenarios and assessing current controls is the most helpful in identifying gaps between the current and desired state of the IT risk environment, because it allows the risk practitioner to compare the actual and expected outcomes of the IT processes and activities under different situations. A risk scenario is a hypothetical situation that describes a possible event or sequence of events that may affect the IT objectives and performance. A risk scenario can be based on various factors, such as the sources of risk, the risk drivers, the risk events, the risk impacts, and the risk responses. A risk scenario can also include the likelihood and severity of the risk, as well as the assumptions and uncertainties involved. Evaluating risk scenarios helps the risk practitioner to understand the nature and extent of the IT risks, as well as the potential consequences and opportunities that may arise from them. Assessing current controls is the process of examining and testing the existing controls that are implemented to manage the IT risks. A control is a measure or action that reduces the likelihood or impact of a risk, or enhances the benefits or opportunities of a risk. Assessing current controls helps the risk practitioner to determine the effectiveness and efficiency of the controls, as well as their alignment with the IT objectives and requirements. By evaluating risk scenarios and assessing current controls, the risk practitioner can identify the gaps between the current and desired state of the IT risk environment. The gaps can be related to the following aspects: - The IT objectives and performance: The gaps can indicate the difference between the actual and expected results of theIT processes and activities, as well as the deviation from the IT goals and targets. - The IT risk exposure and appetite: The gaps can indicate the difference between the actualand acceptable level of risk that the organization faces or is willing to take in pursuit of the IT objectives. - The IT risk management process and practices: The gaps can indicate the difference between the actual and expected performance of the IT risk management process, as well as the compliance with the IT risk management policies and standards. - The IT risk culture and awareness: The gaps can indicate the difference between the actual and desired level of risk awareness,understanding, and communication among the IT stakeholders, as well as the alignment with the organizational values and culture. Identifying the gaps between the current and desired state of the IT risk environment is important for the risk practitioner, as it can help to prioritize and address the IT risks, as well as to improve and optimize the IT risk management process and practices. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.3: Risk Scenarios, pp. 63-681
Which of the following BEST enables an organization to increase the likelihood of identifying risk associated with unethical employee behavior?
Require a signed agreement by employees to comply with ethics policies
Conduct background checks for new employees
Establish a channel to anonymously report unethical behavior
Implement mandatory ethics training for employees
Anonymous reporting mechanisms (e.g., hotlines, web portals) encourage employees to report unethical behavior without fear of retaliation. This increases visibility into otherwise hidden risks and supports early intervention.
What should be the PRIMARY objective of updating a risk awareness program in response to a steady rise in cybersecurity threats across the industry?
To increase familiarity and understanding of potential security incidents
To ensure compliance with risk management policies and procedures
To reduce the risk of insider threats that could compromise security practices
To lower the organization's risk appetite and tolerance levels
The main goal of updating a risk awareness program in response to rising threats is to ensure employees understand new risks and how to respond to them, thereby enhancing overall security posture.
Which of the following is the MOST important reason to communicate control effectiveness to senior management?
To demonstrate alignment with industry best practices
To assure management that control ownership is assigned
To ensure management understands the current risk status
To align risk management with strategic objectives
According to the ISACA Risk and Information Systems Control study guide and handbook, the most important reason to communicate control effectiveness to senior management is to ensure management understands the current risk status. Control effectiveness is a measure of how well a control reduces the likelihood or impact of a risk event. By communicating control effectiveness, risk managers can provide management with relevant and timely information about the residual risk level, the risk appetite and tolerance, and the potential gaps or weaknesses in the control environment. This can help management make informed decisions about risk response strategies, resource allocation, and risk oversight12
1: ISACA Risk and Information Systems Control Study Guide, 4th Edition, page 33 2: ISACA Risk and Information Systems Control Handbook, 1st Edition, page 25
A penetration test reveals several vulnerabilities in a web-facing application. Which of the following should be the FIRST step in selecting a risk response?
Correct the vulnerabilities to mitigate potential risk exposure.
Develop a risk response action plan with key stakeholders.
Assess the level of risk associated with the vulnerabilities.
Communicate the vulnerabilities to the risk owner.
The first step in selecting a risk response after a penetration test reveals several vulnerabilities in a web-facing application is to assess the level of risk associated with the vulnerabilities, as it involves evaluating the likelihood and impact of the vulnerabilities being exploited, and comparing them with the risk tolerance and appetite of the organization. Correcting the vulnerabilities, developing a risk response action plan, and communicating the vulnerabilities are possible steps in selecting a risk response, but they are not the first step, as they require the prior knowledge of the risk level and the optimal risk response. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 108.
When a high number of approved exceptions are observed during a review of a control procedure, an organization should FIRST initiate a review of the:
Relevant policies.
Threat landscape.
Awareness program.
Risk heat map.
A high number of exceptions often indicate misalignment betweenpoliciesand business needs. Reviewing policies helps determine if they are overly restrictive or need adjustments to reduce exceptions while maintaining security.
The acceptance of control costs that exceed risk exposure MOST likely demonstrates:
corporate culture alignment
low risk tolerance
high risk tolerance
corporate culture misalignment.
The acceptance of control costs that exceed risk exposure most likely demonstrates corporate culture misalignment, as it indicates that the organization is not following the principles and values of effective risk management, and that there is a lack of communication and coordination among the risk owners and stakeholders. Corporate culture misalignment can also result in inefficient and wasteful use of resources, and reduced risk-return trade-off. The organization should align its corporate culture with its risk appetite and tolerance, and ensure that the control costs are proportional and justified by the risk exposure and the expected benefits. References = Most Asked CRISC Exam Questions and Answers. CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, Question 255. ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, Question 255. CRISC by Isaca Actual Free Exam Q&As, Question 9.
Which of the following helps ensure compliance with a nonrepudiation policy requirement for electronic transactions?
Digital signatures
Encrypted passwords
One-time passwords
Digital certificates
Nonrepudiation is the ability to prevent or deny the parties involved in an electronic transaction from disputing or rejecting the validity or authenticity of the transaction. Nonrepudiation ensures that the parties cannot claim that they did not send or receive the transaction, or that the transaction was altered or tampered with.
The tool that helps ensure compliance with a nonrepudiation policy requirement for electronic transactions is digital signatures, which are the electronic equivalents of handwritten signatures that are used to verify the identity and integrity of the sender and the content of the transaction. Digital signatures are generated by applying a cryptographic algorithm to the transaction, using the sender’s private key, which is a secret and unique code that only the sender knows and possesses. The digital signature can be verified by the receiver or any third party, using the sender’s public key, which is a code that is publicly available and corresponds to the sender’s private key. The digital signature can prove that the transaction was sent by the sender, and that the transaction was not altered or tampered with during the transmission.
The other options are not the tools that help ensure compliance with a nonrepudiation policy requirement for electronic transactions, because they do not provide the same level ofverification and validation that digital signatures provide, and they may not be sufficient or effective to prevent or deny the parties from disputing or rejecting the transaction.
Encrypted passwords are the passwords that are converted into a secret or unreadable form, using a cryptographic algorithm, to protect them from unauthorized access or disclosure. Encrypted passwords can help to ensure the confidentiality and security of the passwords, but they are not the tools that help ensure compliance with a nonrepudiation policy requirement for electronic transactions, because they do not verify the identity and integrity of the sender and the content of the transaction, and they may not prevent or deny the parties from disputing or rejecting the transaction.
One-time passwords are the passwords that are valid or usable for only one session or transaction, and that are randomly generated or derived from a dynamic factor, such as time, location, or device. One-time passwords can help to enhance the security and authentication of the parties involved in the transaction, but they are not the tools that help ensure compliance with a nonrepudiation policy requirement for electronic transactions, because they do not verify the identity and integrity of the sender and the content of the transaction, and they may not prevent or deny the parties from disputing or rejecting the transaction.
Digital certificates are the electronic documents that contain the information and credentials of the parties involved in the transaction, such as their name, public key, expirationdate, etc., and that are issued and signed by a trusted authority or entity, such as a certificate authority or a digital signature provider. Digital certificates can help to establish and confirm the identity and trustworthiness of the parties involved in the transaction, but they are not the tools that help ensure compliance with a nonrepudiation policy requirement for electronic transactions, because they do not verify the identity and integrity of the sender and the content of the transaction, and they may not prevent or deny the parties from disputing or rejecting the transaction. References =
ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, pp. 40-41, 47-48, 54-55, 58-59, 62-63
ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 197
CRISC Practice Quiz and Exam Prep
Which of the following would MOST likely cause a risk practitioner to reassess risk scenarios?
A change in the risk management policy
A major security incident
A change in the regulatory environment
An increase in intrusion attempts
The most likely cause for a risk practitioner to reassess risk scenarios is a change in the regulatory environment. A regulatory environment is the set of laws, rules, and standards that apply to an organization and its activities, such as data privacy, security, compliance, or governance. A change in the regulatory environment can occur due to various factors, such as new legislation, court rulings, enforcement actions, or industry trends. A change in the regulatory environment can affect the risk scenarios that the organization faces, as it may introduce new or modified risks, or alter the probability or impact of existing risks. For example, a new regulation may require the organization to implement additional or different controls, or to report or disclose more information, which may increase the cost, complexity, or vulnerability of the organization’s processes and systems. A change in the regulatory environment may also affect the risk appetite, tolerance, and capacity of the organization, as it may impose different requirements or expectations for the organization’s risk management performance and outcomes. Therefore, a risk practitioner should reassess the risk scenarios when there is a change in the regulatory environment, to ensure that the risk scenarios are accurate, complete, and relevant, and that the risk response strategies and plans are appropriate, effective, and compliant. The other options are not the most likely cause, although they may be related or influential to the riskscenarios. A change in the risk management policy is a change in the rules and guidelines that define how the organization manages its risks, such as the roles and responsibilities, the processes and procedures, the tools and techniques, or the reporting and communication. A change in the risk management policy can affect the risk scenarios, as it may change the way the organization identifies, analyzes, evaluates, and responds to the risks, but it does not directly create or modify the risks themselves. A major security incident is an event or situation that compromises the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of the organization’s information or systems, such as a data breach, a denial-of-service attack, or a ransomware infection. A major security incident can affect the risk scenarios, as it may indicate or reveal the existence or severity of the risks, or trigger or escalate the consequences of the risks, but it is not a cause, rather it is an effect of the risks. An increase in intrusion attempts is an increase in the frequency or intensity of the unauthorized or malicious attempts to access or exploit the organization’s information or systems, such as phishing, malware, or brute-force attacks. An increase in intrusion attempts can affect the risk scenarios, as it may increase the likelihood or impact of the risks, or expose or exacerbate the vulnerabilities of the organization’s processes and systems, but it is not a cause, rather it is a manifestation of the risks. References = Risk Scenarios Toolkit -ISACA, How to Write Strong Risk Scenarios and Statements - ISACA, The Impact of Regulatory Change on Business - Deloitte
Which of the following is the FIRST step when conducting a business impact analysis (BIA)?
Identifying critical information assets
Identifying events impacting continuity of operations.
Creating a data classification scheme
Analyzing previous risk assessment results
The first step when conducting a business impact analysis (BIA) is identifying critical information assets. A BIA is a process of analyzing the potential impacts of disruptive events on the business processes,functions, and resources. A BIA identifies the criticality, dependencies, recovery priorities, and recovery objectives of the business processes, and quantifies the financial and non-financial impacts of disruption. Information assets are the data, information, and knowledge that are essential for the operation and performance of the business processes. Identifying critical information assets is the first step of the BIA, as it helps to determine which information assets are vital for the continuity and recovery of the business processes, and whichinformation assets are most vulnerable or exposed to the disruptive events. Identifying critical information assets also helps to scope and focus the BIA on the most important and relevant information assets, and to avoid unnecessary or redundant analysis. Identifying events impacting continuity of operations, creating a data classification scheme, and analyzing previous risk assessment results are not the first steps of the BIA, as they are either the inputs or the outputs of the BIA, and they depend on the identification of critical information assets. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 130.
The BEST way to demonstrate alignment of the risk profile with business objectives is through:
risk scenarios.
risk tolerance.
risk policy.
risk appetite.
The BEST way to demonstrate alignment of the risk profile with business objectives is through risk scenarios, because they are the descriptions and illustrations of the potential events or situations that may affect the achievement of the business objectives and processes. Risk scenarios can help to demonstrate how the risk profile, which is the summary and representation of the identified and assessed risks, is relatedand relevant to the business objectives and processes, and how the risk responses and controls are designed and implemented to support and enable the business objectives and processes. The other options are not the best way, because:
Option B: Risk tolerance is the level of variation or deviation from the expected or desired outcome that the organization is willing to accept or endure, but it does not demonstrate alignment of the risk profile with business objectives, which is the process of ensuring that the risk profile and the business objectives are consistent and compatible with each other.
Option C: Risk policy is the document that defines the principles, guidelines, and requirements for the risk management process and activities in the organization, but it does not demonstrate alignment of the risk profile with business objectives, which is the process of showing and proving that the risk profile and the business objectives are coherent and integrated with each other.
Option D: Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that the organization is willing to take or pursue in order to achieve its objectives and goals, but it does not demonstrate alignment of the risk profile with business objectives, which is the process of establishing and maintaining that the risk profile and the business objectives are aligned and balanced with each other. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, ISACA, 2020, p. 104.
When an organization is having new software implemented under contract, which of the following is key to controlling escalating costs?
Risk management
Change management
Problem management
Quality management
The key to controlling escalating costs when an organization is having new software implemented under contract is change management, which is the process of identifying, evaluating, approving, and implementing changes to the project scope, schedule, budget, or quality1. Change management can help to control escalating costs by:
Establishing a clear and agreed-upon baseline for the project deliverables, requirements, and expectations, and ensuring that they are aligned with the contract terms and conditions2.
Defining and enforcing a formal and consistent change control process, which includes the roles and responsibilities, the criteria and methods, and the documentation and communication of the changes3.
Assessing and prioritizing the proposed changes, and determining their impact and feasibility, and their alignment with the project objectives and constraints4.
Obtaining the approval and authorization of the relevant stakeholders, such as the project sponsor, the project manager, the contractor, or the customer, before implementing the changes5.
Monitoring and measuring the performance and outcome of the changes, and ensuring that they are delivered within the agreed scope, schedule, budget, and quality6.
References =
Change Management - CIO Wiki
Project Scope Management - CIO Wiki
Change Control - CIO Wiki
Change Impact Analysis - CIO Wiki
Change Approval - CIO Wiki
Change Evaluation - CIO Wiki
Which of the following BEST indicates that security requirements have been incorporated into the system development life cycle (SDLC)?
Comprehensive security training of developers
Validated security requirements and design documents
Completed user acceptance testing (UAT)
Compliance with laws and regulatory requirements
Validated security requirements and design documents demonstrate that security considerations have been integrated into the SDLC from the outset. This proactive approach ensures that security is embedded into system architecture and design, reducing vulnerabilities and enhancing overall system resilience.
An organization recently experienced a cyber attack that resulted in the loss of confidential customer data. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST recommendation after recovery steps have been completed?
Develop new key risk indicators (KRIs).
Perform a root cause analysis.
Recommend the purchase of cyber insurance.
Review the incident response plan.
The risk practitioner’s best recommendation after recovery steps have been completed is B. Perform a root cause analysis. A root cause analysis is a process of identifying and assessing the underlying causes of a problem or an incident. By performing a root cause analysis, the risk practitioner can help the organization to understand how and why the cyber attack happened, what vulnerabilities and gaps were exploited, and what actions and controls can be implemented to prevent or mitigate similar incidents in the future12
A root cause analysis can also help the organization to improve its incident response plan, which is a set of instructions to help IT staff detect, respond to, and recover from network security incidents3 A root cause analysis can provide valuable feedback and lessons learned from the cyber attack, and help the organization to update and test its incident response plan accordingly45
Developing new key risk indicators, recommending the purchase of cyber insurance, and reviewing the incident response plan are all possible actions that the risk practitioner can take after a cyber attack, but they are not the best recommendation. Developing new key risk indicators can help the organization to monitor and measure its risk exposure and performance, but it does not address the root causes of the cyber attack12 Recommending the purchase of cyber insurance can help the organization to hedge against the financial losses caused by cyber incidents, but it does not prevent or solve the underlying issues67 Reviewing the incident response plan can help the organization to evaluate its effectiveness and identify areas for improvement, but it does not explain how and why the cyber attack occurred345
Therefore, the best recommendation is to perform a root cause analysis, as it can help the organization to understand, resolve, and prevent the cyber attack and its consequences12
During implementation of an intrusion detection system (IDS) to monitor network traffic, a high number of alerts is reported. The risk practitioner should recommend to:
reset the alert threshold based on peak traffic
analyze the traffic to minimize the false negatives
analyze the alerts to minimize the false positives
sniff the traffic using a network analyzer
An intrusion detection system (IDS) is a network security tool that monitors network traffic and devices for known malicious activity, suspicious activity or security policy violations1. An IDS can generate alerts when it detects any potential threats, but not all alerts are accurate or relevant. There are two types of errors that can affect the performance and reliability of an IDS: false positives and false negatives2.
A false positive is when an IDS incorrectly flags a benign or normal activity as malicious or suspicious. For example, an IDS may alert on a legitimate network scan or a harmless software update. False positives can reduce the credibility and efficiency of an IDS, as they can overwhelm the security team with unnecessary alerts, distract them from the real threats, and cause them to ignore or disable the IDS3.
A false negative is when an IDS fails to flag a malicious or suspicious activity as such. For example, an IDS may miss a stealthy or novel attack that does not match any known signatures or patterns. False negatives can compromise the security and integrity of the network, as they can allow attackers to bypass the IDS and cause damage or steal data without being detected4.
The risk practitioner should recommend to analyze the alerts to minimize the false positives, because this is the best way to improve the accuracy and usefulness of the IDS. By analyzing the alerts, the risk practitioner can:
Identify the sources and causes of the false positives, such as misconfigured or outdated IDS rules, network anomalies, or legitimate traffic that resembles malicious traffic5.
Adjust or fine-tune the IDS settings, such as the alert threshold, the sensitivity level, the detection method, or the rule base, to reduce the number of false positives without increasing the risk of false negatives.
Validate or verify the alerts with other sources of information, such as logs, network traffic analysis, or threat intelligence, to confirm or dismiss the alerts as true or false positives.
Prioritize or classify the alerts based on their severity, impact, or likelihood, to focus on the most critical or relevant alerts and avoid alert fatigue.
The other options are not the best course of action, because:
Resetting the alert threshold based on peak traffic is not a reliable or effective way to minimize the false positives, as it may also increase the risk of false negatives. The alert threshold is the level of activity or deviation that triggers an alert from the IDS. If the threshold is set too high, the IDS may miss some malicious or suspicious activity that occurs below the threshold. If the threshold is set too low, the IDS may generate too many alerts for normal or benign activity that exceeds the threshold. The optimal threshold depends on various factors, such as the network size, topology, traffic volume, and baseline. Peak traffic is not a good indicator of the optimal threshold, as it may vary depending on the time, day, or season, and it may not reflect the normal or expected network behavior.
Analyzing the traffic to minimize the false negatives is not the main issue or goal in this scenario, as the problem is the high number of alerts, not the low number of alerts. Analyzing thetraffic can help to identify the malicious or suspicious activity that the IDS may have missed, but it does not address the root cause of the false positives or improve the IDS performance. Moreover, analyzing the traffic can be time-consuming and resource-intensive, especially for large or complex networks, and it may require specialized tools or skills that the risk practitioner may not have.
Sniffing the traffic using a network analyzer is not a suitable or feasible option in this scenario, as it may violate the privacy or security policies of the network or the organization. Sniffing the traffic means capturing and inspecting the network packets that are transmitted or received by the devices on the network. A network analyzer is a tool that can perform this function and display the packet data in a readable format. However, sniffing the traffic can also expose sensitive or confidential information, such as passwords, usernames, or credit card numbers, that may be contained in the packets. Therefore, sniffing the traffic may require authorization or consent from the network owners or users, and it may be restricted or prohibited by law or regulation.
References =
What is an intrusion detection system (IDS)? - IBM
Intrusion detection system - Wikipedia
What Are Intrusion Detection Systems? - MUO
12 Best Intrusion Detection System (IDS) Software 2024 - Comparitech
What is an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)? - Fortinet
[False Positive and False Negative in Intrusion Detection System]
[False Positives and False Negatives in Intrusion Detection Systems]
[How to Reduce False Positives for Your IDS/IPS]
[How to Set the Right Alert Thresholds for Your IDS/IPS]
[Network Traffic Analysis: What It Is and How It Works]
[What is a Network Analyzer? - Definition from Techopedia]
A robotic process automation (RPA) project has implemented new robots to enhance the efficiency of a sales business process. Which of the following provides the BEST evidence that the new controls have been implemented successfully?
A post-implementation review has been conducted by key personnel.
A qualified independent party assessed the new controls as effective.
Senior management has signed off on the design of the controls.
Robots have operated without human interference on a daily basis.
Independent Assessment:
Objective Evaluation: An assessment by a qualified independent party ensures that the evaluation of the new controls is unbiased and thorough. It provides a credible verification of the control's effectiveness.
Expertise and Standards: Independent assessors bring specialized expertise and follow established standards and best practices, ensuring a comprehensive review of the control implementation.
Validation and Assurance: This assessment provides assurance to stakeholders that the controls are functioning as intended and meet the required security and operational standards.
Comparison with Other Options:
Post-Implementation Review by Key Personnel: While valuable, this review may lack the objectivity and thoroughness of an independent assessment.
Senior Management Sign-Off: Sign-off from senior management is important but does not provide the detailed validation of control effectiveness that an independent assessment offers.
Daily Operation of Robots without Human Interference: This indicates operational stability but does not verify that all controls are functioning as intended.
Best Practices:
Regular Independent Assessments: Schedule regular independent assessments to continuously validate the effectiveness of controls.
Comprehensive Reporting: Ensure that the independent assessment includes comprehensive reporting on findings and recommendations for improvement.
Follow-Up Actions: Implement any recommended actions from the assessment to address identified gaps or weaknesses in the controls.
A recent regulatory requirement has the potential to affect an organization's use of a third party to supply outsourced business services. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?
Conduct a gap analysis.
Terminate the outsourcing agreement.
Identify compensating controls.
Transfer risk to the third party.
The best course of action when a recent regulatory requirement has the potential to affect an organization’s use of a third party to supply outsourced business services is to conduct a gap analysis, as it involves comparing the current and desired states of compliance, and identifying any gaps or discrepancies that need to be addressed. Terminating the outsourcing agreement, identifying compensating controls, and transferring risk to the third party are not the best courses of action, as they may not be feasible, effective, or appropriate, respectively, and may require the prior knowledge of the compliance gaps and risks. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 111.
Which of the following aspects of an IT risk and control self-assessment would be MOST important to include in a report to senior management?
Changes in control design
A decrease in the number of key controls
Changes in control ownership
An increase in residual risk
An IT risk and control self-assessment (RCSA) is a process that helps organizations identify and evaluate operational risks and assess the effectiveness of their control measures12. It is a structured approach that involves identifying, assessing, mitigating, and monitoring risks across all levels of an organization12.
A report to senior management is a document that summarizes and communicates the results and findings of the RCSA, and provides recommendations and action plans for improving the risk management and control processes34.
The most important aspect of an IT risk and control self-assessment to include in a report to senior management is an increase in residual risk, which is the risk remaining after risk treatment, and represents the exposure or potential impact of the risk on the organization’s objectives56.
An increase in residual risk is the most important aspect because it indicates the level of risk that the organization is willing to accept or tolerate, and the gap between the current and desired risk profile56.
An increase in residual risk is also the most important aspect because it requires the attention and decision of the senior management, who are responsible for defining the organization’s risk appetite, strategy, and criteria, and for ensuring that the residual risk is within the acceptable range56.
The other options are not the most important aspects, but rather possible components or outcomes of an IT risk and control self-assessment that may support or complement the report to senior management. For example:
Changes in control design are components of an IT risk and control self-assessment that involve modifying or updating the control measures to address the changes in the risk environment or the organization’s objectives56. However, changes in control design are not the most importantaspect because they do not measure or reflect the residual risk, which is the ultimate goal of the risk treatment56.
A decrease in the number of key controls is an outcome of an IT risk and control self-assessment that indicates the improvement or optimization of the control processes, and the reduction of the complexity or redundancy of the control measures56. However, a decrease in the number of key controls is not the most important aspect because it does not indicate or imply the residual risk, which may depend on other factors such as the effectiveness or efficiency of the controls56.
Changes in control ownership are components of an IT risk and control self-assessment that involve assigning or reassigning the responsibility and accountability for the control processes to the appropriate individuals or groups within the organization56. However,changes in control ownership are not the most important aspect because they do not affect or determine the residual risk, which is independent of the control owners56. References =
1: Risk and control self-assessment - KPMG Global1
2: Control Self Assessments - PwC2
3: How-To Guide: Implementing Risk Control Self-Assessment Steps4
4: RISK MANAGEMENT SELF-ASSESSMENT TEMPLATE - Smartsheet5
5: Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2009
6: IT Risk Management Framework, University of Toronto, 2017
Which of the following is the BEST key control indicator (KCI) for a vulnerability management program?
Percentage of high-risk vulnerabilities missed
Number of high-risk vulnerabilities outstanding
Defined thresholds for high-risk vulnerabilities
Percentage of high-risk vulnerabilities addressed
A key control indicator (KCI) is a metric that measures the effectiveness of a control in mitigating a risk. A good KCI for a vulnerability management program should reflect how well the program is reducing the exposure to high-risk vulnerabilities. The percentage of high-risk vulnerabilities addressed is a KCI that shows the proportion of identified high-risk vulnerabilities that have been remediated or mitigated within a defined time frame. This KCI can help monitor the progress and performance of the vulnerability management program and identify areas for improvement.
The other options are not the best KCI for a vulnerability management program because they do not measure the effectiveness of the control. The percentage of high-risk vulnerabilities missed is a measure of the completeness of the vulnerability scanning process, not the control. The number of high-risk vulnerabilities outstanding is a measure of the current risk exposure, not the control. The defined thresholds for high-risk vulnerabilities are a measure of the risk appetite, not the control. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3: IT Risk Assessment, Section 3.4: Risk Indicators, p. 133-134.
Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit when senior management periodically reviews and updates risk appetite and tolerance levels?
It ensures compliance with the risk management framework.
It ensures an effective risk aggregation process.
It ensures decisions are risk-informed.
It ensures a consistent approach for risk assessments.
Risk appetite and tolerance reflect strategic priorities. As business and external environments evolve, regular updates ensure that risk responses and decisions remain aligned with organizational goals and acceptable boundaries.
A highly regulated enterprise is developing a new risk management plan to specifically address legal and regulatory risk scenarios What should be done FIRST by IT governance to support this effort?
Request a regulatory risk reporting methodology
Require critical success factors (CSFs) for IT risks.
Establish IT-specific compliance objectives
Communicate IT key risk indicators (KRIs) and triggers
The first thing that should be done by IT governance to support the development of a new risk management plan to specifically address legal and regulatory risk scenarios is to establish IT-specific compliance objectives. Compliance objectives are the goals or targets that the organization sets to ensure that its IT activities and processes comply with the relevant laws, regulations, standards, and contracts. Compliance objectives help to define the scope, criteria, and expectations for the IT compliance program, and to align the IT compliance activities with the organization’s strategy, risk appetite, and performance measures. Compliance objectives also help to communicate and demonstrate the organization’s commitment and accountability for IT compliance to the internal and external stakeholders, such as the board, management, regulators, auditors, and customers. The other options are not the first thing that should be done, although they may be useful or necessary steps or components of the IT compliance program. Requesting a regulatory risk reporting methodology, requiring critical success factors (CSFs) for IT risks, and communicating IT key risk indicators (KRIs) and triggers are all activities that can help to implement and monitor the IT compliance program, but they require the prior definition and agreement of the IT compliance objectives. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2, Section 2.4.1, page 2-37.
A rule-based data loss prevention {DLP) tool has recently been implemented to reduce the risk of sensitive data leakage. Which of the following is MOST likely to change as a result of this implementation?
Risk likelihood
Risk velocity
Risk appetite
Risk impact
A rule-based data loss prevention (DLP) tool is a software solution that identifies and helps prevent unsafe or inappropriate sharing, transfer, or use of sensitive data. It can help an organization monitor and protect sensitive information across on-premises systems, cloud-based locations, and endpoint devices. It can also help an organization comply with regulations such as the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) and General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR). A rule-based DLP tool works by comparing content to the organization’s DLP policy, which defines how the organization labels, shares, and protects data without exposing it to unauthorized users. The tool can then apply protective actions such as encryption, access restrictions, and alerts. As a result of implementing a rule-based DLP tool, the most likely change is the reduction of risk likelihood, which is the probability of a risk event occurring. By detecting and preventing data breaches, exfiltration, or unwanted destruction of sensitive data, a rule-based DLP tool can lower the chance of such incidents happening and thus decrease the risk likelihood. The other options are less likely to change as a result of implementing a rule-based DLP tool. Risk velocity is the speed at which a risk event impacts an organization, which depends on factors such as the nature of the threat, the response time, and the recovery process. Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives, which depends on factors such as the organization’s culture, strategy, and stakeholder expectations. Risk impact is the potential loss or damage that a risk event can cause to an organization, which depends on factors such as the severity of the incident, the extent of theexposure, andthe resilience of the organization. While a rule-based DLP tool may have some influence on these factors, it is not the primary driver of change for them. References = Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2022, p. 13
Which of the following indicates an organization follows IT risk management best practice?
The risk register template uses an industry standard.
The risk register is regularly updated.
All fields in the risk register have been completed.
Controls are listed against risk entries in the register.
According to the IT Risk Management - Basics and Best Practices article, one of the best practices for IT risk management is to keep the risk register up to date. A risk register is a document that records the identified risks, their causes, impacts, likelihood, responses, andstatus. A risk register is a vital tool for IT risk management, as it helps to track and monitor the risks throughout their lifecycle, and to communicate the risks to the relevant stakeholders. However, a risk register is only useful if it reflects the current situation and environment of the organization. Therefore, the risk register should be regularly updated to capture any changes in the risk profile, such as new risks, resolved risks, modified risks, or escalated risks. Updating the risk register will help to ensure that the risk management process is effective and efficient, and that the risk responses are appropriate and timely. References = IT Risk Management - Basics and Best Practices
Which of the following will MOST likely change as a result of the decrease in risk appetite due to a new privacy regulation?
Key risk indicator (KRI) thresholds
Risk trends
Key performance indicators (KPIs)
Risk objectives
KRI thresholds are the levels or points that trigger an action or a response when a KRI reaches or exceeds them. They reflect the risk appetite of the organization, which is the amount and type of risk that it is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. A new privacy regulation may reduce the risk appetite of the organization, as it may impose stricter requirements and penalties for non-compliance. Therefore, the organization may need to adjust its KRI thresholds to lower levels, to ensure that it can identify and manage privacy risks more effectively and proactively
A risk assessment has identified that an organization may not be in compliance with industry regulations. The BEST course of action would be to:
conduct a gap analysis against compliance criteria.
identify necessary controls to ensure compliance.
modify internal assurance activities to include control validation.
collaborate with management to meet compliance requirements.
According to the CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), the best course of action when a risk assessment has identified that an organization may not be in compliance with industry regulations is to conduct a gap analysis against compliance criteria, which is a method of comparing the current state of compliance with the desired or required state of compliance. Conducting a gap analysis against compliance criteria helps to:
Identify and evaluate the differences or discrepancies between the compliance requirements and the actual compliance practices and capabilities
Assess the impact and severity of the compliance gaps on the organization’s objectives and performance
Prioritize the compliance gaps based on their urgency and importance
Develop and implement appropriate actions or measures to close or reduce the compliance gaps
Monitor and measure the effectiveness and efficiency of the actions or measures taken to address the compliance gaps
References = CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 1: IT Risk Identification, Section 1.5: IT Risk Identification Methods and Techniques, pp. 34-351
Which of the following provides the BEST evidence that a selected risk treatment plan is effective?
Identifying key risk indicators (KRIs)
Evaluating the return on investment (ROI)
Evaluating the residual risk level
Performing a cost-benefit analysis
A risk treatment plan is a document that describes the actions and resources required to implement the chosen risk response for a specific risk scenario. A risk response can be to accept, avoid, transfer, or mitigate the risk. The effectiveness of a risk treatment plan can be measured by how well it reduces the risk exposure and achieves the desired outcomes. The best evidence that a selected risk treatment plan is effective is to evaluate the residual risk level, which is the remaining risk after the risk treatment plan has been implemented. The residual risk level should be within the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance, and should reflect the actual risk reduction and value creation of the risk treatment plan. Evaluating the residual risk level can also help to identify any gaps or issues that need to be addressed, and to monitor and report on the risk performance and improvement. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.2.2, p. 108-109
Which organizational role should be accountable for ensuring information assets are appropriately classified?
Data protection officer
Chief information officer (CIO)
Information asset custodian
Information asset owner
The organizational role that should be accountable for ensuring information assets are appropriately classified is the information asset owner, as they have the authority and responsibility to define the classification, retention, and disposal requirements for the information assets they own, and to manage the risk and controls related to the information assets. The other options are not the correct roles, as they have different roles and responsibilities related to the protection, governance, or maintenance of the information assets, respectively, rather than the classification of the information assets. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 154.
Which of the following is the MOST effective way 10 identify an application backdoor prior to implementation'?
User acceptance testing (UAT)
Database activity monitoring
Source code review
Vulnerability analysis
A source code review is the process of examining and analyzing the source code of an application to identify any vulnerabilities, errors, or flaws that may compromise the security, functionality, or performance of the application. A source code review is the most effective way to identify an application backdoor prior to implementation, as it can detect any hidden or unauthorized code that may allow unauthorized access, bypass security controls, or execute malicious commands. A source code review can also help to improvethe quality and reliability of the application, and ensure compliance with the coding standards and best practices. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 181.
Which of the following is the BEST way to determine the value of information assets for risk management purposes?
Assess the loss impact if the information is inadvertently disclosed.
Calculate the overhead required to keep the information secure throughout its life cycle.
Calculate the replacement cost of obtaining the information from alternate sources.
Assess the market value offered by consumers of the information.
The best way to determine the value of information assets for risk management purposes is to assess the loss impact if the information is inadvertently disclosed, as this reflects the potential damage or harm that the organization may suffer due to a breach of confidentiality, integrity, or availability of the information. The loss impact can be measured in terms of financial, operational, reputational, legal, or regulatory consequences, depending on the nature, sensitivity, and criticality of the information. The loss impact can also help the organization to prioritize the protection and mitigation of the information assets, and to align the risk management strategy with the business objectives and risk appetite.
The BEST use of key risk indicators (KRIs) is to provide:
Early indication of increasing exposure to a specific risk.
Lagging indication of major information security incidents.
Early indication of changes to required risk response.
Insight into the performance of a monitored process.
Key risk indicators are designed to provide early warnings about increasing risk exposure, enabling timely risk mitigation efforts. This supports proactive risk management, as outlined in theRisk Monitoring and Reportingdomain of CRISC.
A business unit is updating a risk register with assessment results for a key project. Which of the following is MOST important to capture in the register?
The team that performed the risk assessment
An assigned risk manager to provide oversight
Action plans to address risk scenarios requiring treatment
The methodology used to perform the risk assessment
A risk register is a tool that records and tracks the risks that may affect a project, as well as the actions that are taken or planned to manage them1. A risk register should include information such as the risk description, category, source, impact, likelihood, severity, owner, status, and response2. Among these, the most important information to capture in the risk register is the action plans to address risk scenarios requiring treatment. This is because the action plans are the specific steps that are taken to reduce, avoid, transfer, or accept the risks, depending on thechosen risk treatment option3. The action plans should beclear, realistic, measurable, and aligned with the project objectives and constraints4. The action plans should also be monitored and updated regularly to ensure that they are effective and appropriate for the changing risk environment5. The action plans are essential for managing the risks and ensuring the successful delivery of the project. The other options are not the most important information to capture in the risk register, as they are either less relevant or less actionable than the action plans. The team that performed the risk assessment is the group of people who identified, analyzed, and evaluated the risks, using various tools and techniques6. While this information may be useful foraccountability and communication purposes, it is not as important as the action plans, as it does not indicate how the risks are treated or resolved. The assigned risk manager to provide oversight is the person who has the responsibility and authority to oversee the risk management process and ensure that the risks are properly identified, assessed, treated, and reported. While this information may be useful for governance and coordination purposes, it is not as important as the action plans, as it does not specify what actions are taken or planned to manage the risks. The methodology used to perform the risk assessment is the approach or framework that is used to identify, analyze, and evaluate the risks, based on the project context, scope, and objectives. While this information may be useful for consistency and transparency purposes, it is not as important as the action plans, as it does not describe how the risks are addressed or mitigated. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.1.5, Page 55.
A migration from an in-house developed system to an external cloud-based solution is affecting a previously rated key risk scenario related to payroll processing. Which part of the risk register should be updated FIRST?
Payroll system risk factors
Payroll system risk mitigation plans
Payroll process owner
Payroll administrative controls
Payroll system risk mitigation plans are the actions that are taken to reduce or eliminate the risk associated with payroll processing. When a migration from an in-house developed system to an external cloud-based solution is affecting a previously rated key risk scenario related to payroll processing, the first part of the risk register that should be updated is the payroll system risk mitigation plans. This is because the migration may introduce new risks or change the existing risks, and the risk mitigation plans may need to be revised or replaced accordingly. Updating the payroll system risk mitigation plans can help ensure that the risk level is acceptable and the payroll process is secure and reliable. According to the CRISC Review Manual 2022, one of the key risk treatment techniques is to update the risk action plan, which is a document that outlines the risk mitigation plans1. According to the CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual 2022, updating the risk mitigation plans is the correct answer to this question2.
Payroll system risk factors, payroll process owner, and payroll administrative controls are not the first part of the risk register that should be updated when a migration is affecting a key risk scenario. Payroll system risk factors are the sources or causes of risk, such as threats, vulnerabilities, or uncertainties. Payroll process owner is the person who is responsible for the payroll process and its outcomes. Payroll administrative controls are the policies, procedures, or guidelines that govern the payroll process. These parts of the risk register may also need to be updated, but they are not as urgent or critical as the risk mitigation plans. Updating the risk factors, process owner, and administrative controls can help identify, assess, and monitor the risk, but they do not directly address the risk response. The risk response is the most important part of the risk management process, as it determines how the risk is handled and controlled.
Which of the following should be the PRIMARY driver for an organization on a multi-year cloud implementation to publish a cloud security policy?
Evaluating gaps in the on-premise and cloud security profiles
Establishing minimum cloud security requirements
Enforcing compliance with cloud security parameters
Educating IT staff on variances between on premise and cloud security
The primary driver for an organization on a multi-year cloud implementation to publish a cloud security policy is to establish minimum cloud security requirements, as they specify the standards and expectations for the protection of the data and systems in the cloud environment, and ensure the alignment and compliance of the cloud security strategy with the organizational objectives and regulations. The other options are not the primary drivers, as they are more related to the evaluation, enforcement, or education of the cloud securitypolicy, respectively, rather than the establishment of the cloud security policy. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 155.
The PRIMARY advantage of implementing an IT risk management framework is the:
establishment of a reliable basis for risk-aware decision making.
compliance with relevant legal and regulatory requirements.
improvement of controls within the organization and minimized losses.
alignment of business goals with IT objectives.
An IT risk management framework is a set of principles, processes, and practices that guide and support the identification, analysis, evaluation, treatment, monitoring, and communication of IT-related risks within an organization12.
The primary advantage of implementing an IT risk management framework is the establishment of a reliable basis for risk-aware decision making, which enables the organization to balance the potential benefits and adverse effects of using IT, and to allocate resources and prioritize actions accordingly12.
A reliable basis for risk-aware decision making consists of the following elements12:
A common language and understanding of IT risk, its sources, impacts, and responses
A consistent and structured approach to IT risk identification, analysis, evaluation, and treatment
A clear and transparent governance structure and accountability for IT risk management
A comprehensive and up-to-date IT risk register and profile that reflects the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance
A regular and effective IT risk monitoring and reporting process that provides relevant and timely information to stakeholders
A continuous and proactive IT risk improvement process that incorporates feedback and lessons learned
The other options are not the primary advantage, but rather possible outcomes or benefits of implementing an IT risk management framework. For example:
Compliance with relevant legal and regulatory requirements is an outcome of implementing an IT risk management framework that ensures the organization meets its obligations and avoids penalties or sanctions12.
Improvement of controls within the organization and minimized losses is a benefit of implementing an IT risk management framework that reduces the likelihood and impact of IT-related incidents and events12.
Alignment of business goals with IT objectives is a benefit of implementing an IT risk management framework that ensures the IT strategy and activities support the organization’s mission and vision12. References =
1: Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2009
2: IT Risk Management Framework, University of Toronto, 2017
Which of the following should be the PRIMARY consideration when implementing controls for monitoring user activity logs?
Ensuring availability of resources for log analysis
Implementing log analysis tools to automate controls
Ensuring the control is proportional to the risk
Building correlations between logs collected from different sources
The primary consideration when implementing controls for monitoring user activity logs is ensuring that the control is proportional to the risk, because this helps to optimize the balance between the benefits and costs of the control, and to avoid over- or under-controlling the risk. User activity logs are records of the actions or events performed by users on IT systems, networks, or resources, such as accessing, modifying, or transferring data or files. Monitoring user activity logs can help to detect and prevent potential threats, such as unauthorized access, data leakage, or malicious activity, and to support the investigation and remediation of incidents. However, monitoring user activity logs also involves certain costs and challenges, such as collecting, storing, analyzing, and reporting large amounts of log data, ensuring the accuracy, completeness, and timeliness of the log data, protecting the privacy and security of the log data, and complying with the relevant laws and regulations. Therefore, when implementing controls for monitoring user activity logs, the organization should consider the level and impact of the risk that the control is intended to address, and the value and effectiveness of the control in reducing the risk exposure and impact. The organization should also consider the costs and feasibility of implementing and maintaining the control, and the potential negative consequences or side effects of the control, such as performance degradation, user dissatisfaction, or legal liability. By ensuring that the control is proportional to the risk, the organization can achieve the optimal level of risk management, and avoid wasting resources or creating new risks. References = Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2022, p. 151
An organization has decided to postpone the assessment and treatment of several risk scenarios because stakeholders are unavailable. As a result of this decision, the risk associated with these new entries has been;
mitigated
deferred
accepted.
transferred
The result of postponing the assessment and treatment of several risk scenarios is that the risk associated with these new entries has been accepted. Risk acceptance is a risk response strategy that involves acknowledging the existence of a risk and deciding not to take any action to reduce its likelihood or impact. By postponing the assessment and treatment of the risk scenarios, the organization is implicitly accepting the risk and its consequences. Risk mitigation, deferral, and transfer are other possible risk response strategies, but they are not applicable in this case. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 9; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 137.
During a risk assessment, a key external technology supplier refuses to provide control design and effectiveness information, citing confidentiality concerns. What should the risk practitioner do NEXT?
Escalate the non-cooperation to management
Exclude applicable controls from the assessment.
Review the supplier's contractual obligations.
Request risk acceptance from the business process owner.
The next step for the risk practitioner when a key external technology supplier refuses to provide control design and effectiveness information is to review the supplier’s contractual obligations. The contract between the organization and the supplier should specify the terms and conditions for the provision of the service or function, including the requirements for control design and effectiveness information. By reviewing the contract, the risk practitioner can determine if the supplier is breaching the contract and take appropriate actions to enforce the contract or terminate the relationship. Escalating the non-cooperation to management, excluding applicable controls from the assessment, and requesting risk acceptance from the business process owner are other possible steps, but they are not as effective as reviewing the supplier’s contractual obligations. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 11; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 144.
Which of the following provides the MOST comprehensive information when developing a risk profile for a system?
Results of a business impact analysis (BIA)
Risk assessment results
A mapping of resources to business processes
Key performance indicators (KPIs)
The most comprehensive information for developing a risk profile for a system is the risk assessment results. A risk assessment is a process that identifies, analyzes, and evaluates the risks that could affect the system’s objectives or operations. A risk assessment provides comprehensive information for developing a risk profile, because it helps to determine the likelihood and impact of the risks, and to prioritize them based on their severity and relevance. Arisk assessment also helps to select the most appropriate and effective controls to minimize the risks, such as avoiding, reducing, transferring, or accepting the risks. A risk profile is a document that summarizes the key risks that the system faces or accepts, and their likelihood, impact, and priority. A risk profile helps to identify and prioritize the most critical or relevant risks, and to align them with the system’s objectives, strategy, and risk appetite. The other options are not as comprehensive as the risk assessment results, although they may be part of or derived from the risk profile. Results of a business impact analysis (BIA), a mapping of resources to business processes, and key performance indicators (KPIs) are all factors that could affect the system’s performance and improvement, but they do not necessarily identify, analyze, or evaluate the risks that could affect the system. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.1, page 4-13.
The GREATEST benefit of including low-probability, high-impact events in a risk assessment is the ability to:
develop a comprehensive risk mitigation strategy
develop understandable and realistic risk scenarios
identify root causes for relevant events
perform an aggregated cost-benefit analysis
Low-probability, high-impact events are those that have a low chance of occurring but would cause significant harm if they do. These events are often difficult to predict and quantify, but they can have a major impact on the organization’s objectives, reputation, or operations. By including these events in a risk assessment, the organization can develop understandable and realistic risk scenarios that reflect the potential consequences of different outcomes1. This can help the organization to prioritize its risk management activities and allocate its resources accordingly.
References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5: Risk Assessment Process
Which of the following will BEST support management reporting on risk?
Control self-assessment (CSA)
Risk policy requirements
A risk register
Key performance indicators (KPIs)
Key performance indicators (KPIs) will best support management reporting on risk, as they help to measure and monitor the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk management and control processes. KPIs are metrics or measures that provide information on the current or potentialperformance of a specific activity, process, or objective. KPIs can be classified into two types: leading and lagging. Leading KPIs are predictive indicators that provide early warning signals or trends of future performance. Lagging KPIs are outcome indicators that reflect the actual or historical performance.
KPIs help to support management reporting on risk by providing the following benefits:
They enable a data-driven and evidence-based approach to risk management and reporting, rather than relying on subjective or qualitative judgments.
They facilitate a consistent and standardized way of measuring and communicating risk performance across the organization and to the external stakeholders.
They support the alignment of risk management and control activities with the organizational strategy and objectives, and help to evaluate the achievement of the desired outcomes.
They help to identify and prioritize the areas for improvement and enhancement of the risk management and control processes, and guide the development and implementation of corrective or preventive actions.
They provide feedback and learning opportunities for the risk management and control processes, and help to foster a culture of continuous improvement and innovation.
The other options are not the best choices to support management reporting on risk. Control self-assessment (CSA) is a process that involves the participation and involvement of the staff and managers in assessing the effectiveness and efficiency of the internal controls within their areas of responsibility, but it does not provide a comprehensive or objective view of the risk performance. Risk policy requirements are the documents that define the principles, rules, and guidelines for the risk management and control processes, but they do not provide actual or potential information on the risk performance. A risk register is a tool that records and tracks the information and status of the identified risks and their responses, but it does not measure or monitor the risk performance. References = Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) for Risk Management - Resolver, IT Risk Resources | ISACA, Risk Reporting - Open Risk Manual
Which of the following is an IT business owner's BEST course of action following an unexpected increase in emergency changes?
Evaluating the impact to control objectives
Conducting a root cause analysis
Validating the adequacy of current processes
Reconfiguring the IT infrastructure
Conducting a root cause analysis is the best course of action for an IT business owner following an unexpected increase in emergency changes, as it helps to identify and address the underlying cause(s) of the problem and prevent it from recurring in the future. A root cause analysis is a systematic process of finding and resolving the fundamental factors that contribute to a specific issue or event. A root cause analysis can help to improve the quality and reliability of the IT services and processes, reduce the costs and risks associated with emergency changes, and enhance the customer satisfaction and trust.
The other options are not the best courses of action for an IT business owner following an unexpected increase in emergency changes. Evaluating the impact to control objectives is an important step to assess the potential consequences of the emergency changes on the IT governance and risk management, but it does not provide a solution or mitigation strategy for the problem. Validating the adequacy of current processes is a good practice to ensure that the IT processes are aligned with the business needs and objectives, but it does not address the specific cause(s) of the emergency changes. Reconfiguring the IT infrastructure is a possible action to implement the emergency changes, but it does not prevent the occurrence or recurrence of the problem. References = IT Business Owner’s Best Course of Action Following Unexpected Increase …, ITIL Change Types: Standard vs Normal vs Emergency - Freshworks, Emergency Change Management: Please Stop The Drama
Which of the following is the BEST indication of an improved risk-aware culture following the implementation of a security awareness training program for all employees?
A reduction in the number of help desk calls
An increase in the number of identified system flaws
A reduction in the number of user access resets
An increase in the number of incidents reported
A security awareness training program is an educational program that aims to equip the organization’s employees with the knowledge and skills they need to protect the organization’s data and sensitive information from cyber threats, such as hacking, phishing, or other breaches12.
A risk-aware culture is a culture that values and promotes the understanding and management of risks, and encourages the behaviors and actions that support the organization’s risk objectives and strategy34.
The best indication of an improved risk-aware culture following the implementation of a security awareness training program for all employees is an increase in the number of incidents reported, which is the frequency or rate of security incidents that are detected and communicated by the employees to the appropriate authorities or channels56.
An increase in the number of incidents reported is the best indication because it shows that the employees have gained the awareness and confidence to recognize and report the security incidents that may affect the organization, and that they have the responsibility and accountability to contribute to the organization’s risk management and security posture56.
An increase in the number of incidents reported is also the best indication because it enables the organization to respond and recover from the security incidents more quickly and effectively, and to prevent or reduce the recurrence or escalation of similar incidents in the future56.
The other options are not the best indication, but rather possible outcomes or consequences of an improved risk-aware culture or a security awareness training program. For example:
A reduction in the number of help desk calls is an outcome of an improved risk-aware culture or a security awareness training program that indicates the employees have become more self-reliant and proficient in solving or preventing the common or minor IT issues or problems . However, this outcome does not measure the employees’ awareness or reporting of security incidents, which may be more serious or complex .
An increase in the number of identified system flaws is a consequence of an improved risk-aware culture or a security awareness training program that indicates the employees have become more vigilant and proactive in finding and reporting the vulnerabilities or weaknesses in the IT systems or processes . However, this consequence does not measure the employees’ awareness or reporting of security incidents, which may exploit or leverage the system flaws .
A reduction in the number of user access resets is an outcome of an improved risk-aware culture or a security awareness training program that indicates the employees have become more careful and responsible in managing and protecting their user credentials or accounts . However, this outcome does not measure the employees’ awareness or reporting of security incidents, which may compromise or misuse the user access . References =
1: Security Awareness Training - Cybersecurity Education Online | Proofpoint US5
2: What Is Security Awareness Training and Why Is It Important? - Kaspersky6
3: Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2009
4: IT Risk Management Framework, University of Toronto, 2017
5: Security Incident Reporting and Response, University of Toronto, 2017
6: Security Incident Reporting and Response, ISACA, 2019
IT Help Desk Best Practices, ISACA Journal, Volume 2, 2018
IT Help Desk Best Practices, ISACA Now Blog, February 12, 2018
System Flaw Reporting and Remediation, University of Toronto, 2017
System Flaw Reporting and Remediation, ISACA, 2019
User Access Management and Control, University of Toronto, 2017
User Access Management and Control, ISACA, 2019
Which of the following is the MOST effective key performance indicator (KPI) for change management?
Percentage of changes with a fallback plan
Number of changes implemented
Percentage of successful changes
Average time required to implement a change
According to the CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), the percentage of successful changes is the most effective key performance indicator (KPI) for change management, as it measures thequality and effectiveness of the change management process and its alignment with the organization’s objectives and requirements. The percentage of successful changes helps to:
Evaluate the extent to which the changes have met the expected outcomes and benefits
Identify and analyze the root causes of any failed or problematic changes and implement corrective actions or improvement measures
Monitor and report the performance and progress of the change management process and its impact on the organization
Enhance the confidence and satisfaction of the stakeholders and customers with the change management process and its results
References = CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.4: IT Risk Scenarios, pp. 107-1081
Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of maintaining an information asset inventory?
To provide input to business impact analyses (BIAs)
To protect information assets
To facilitate risk assessments
To manage information asset licensing
An information asset inventory is a list of all the information assets that an organization owns or uses. It includes information such as the asset name, description, owner, location, classification,value, and dependencies. The primary objective of maintaining an information asset inventory is to provide input to business impact analyses (BIAs), which are used to identify the criticality and recovery priorities of information assets in the event of a disruption. By having an updated and accurate information asset inventory, an organization can ensure that the BIAs reflect the current state and needs of the business processes that rely on the information assets. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 74.
Which of the following should a risk practitioner do FIRST when an organization decides to use a cloud service?
Review the vendor selection process and vetting criteria.
Assess whether use of service falls within risk tolerance thresholds.
Establish service level agreements (SLAs) with the vendor.
Check the contract for appropriate security risk and control provisions.
According to the CRISC EXAM TOPIC 2 LONG Flashcards, the first thing that a risk practitioner should do when an organization decides to use a cloud service is to review the vendor selection process and vetting criteria. This is because the vendor selection process and vetting criteria are essential steps to ensure that the cloud service provider meets the organization’s requirements and expectations, and that the risks associated with the cloud service are identified and managed. By reviewing the vendor selection process and vetting criteria, the risk practitioner can evaluate the quality, reliability, security, and compliance of the cloud service provider, and determine if the cloud service is suitable and beneficial for the organization. The risk practitioner can also identify any gaps or weaknesses in the vendor selection process and vetting criteria, and recommend improvements or alternatives accordingly. References = CRISC EXAM TOPIC 2 LONG Flashcards
An organization's recovery team is attempting to recover critical data backups following a major flood in its data center. However, key team members do not know exactly what steps should be taken to address this crisis. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this situation?
Failure to test the disaster recovery plan (DRP)
Lack of well-documented business impact analysis (BIA)
Lack of annual updates to the disaster recovery plan (DRP)
Significant changes in management personnel
The most likely cause of the situation where the recovery team does not know what steps to take to recover critical data backups following a major flood is the failure to test the disaster recovery plan (DRP). A DRP is a document that describes the procedures and resources needed to restore the normal operations of an organization after a disaster. Testing the DRP is essential to ensure that the plan is feasible, effective, and up-to-date. Testing the DRP also helps to train the recovery team members, identify and resolve any issues or gaps, and improve the confidence and readiness of the organization. The lack of a well-documented business impact analysis (BIA), the lack of annual updates to the DRP, and the significant changes in management personnel are also possible factors that could affect the recovery process, butthey are not as likely or as critical as the failure to test the DRP. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5, Section 5.3.1, page 5-19.
What is the PRIMARY reason to periodically review key performance indicators (KPIs)?
Ensure compliance.
Identify trends.
Promote a risk-aware culture.
Optimize resources needed for controls
According to the CRISC Review Manual, the primary reason to periodically review key performance indicators (KPIs) is to identify trends, because it helps to monitor the changes and patterns in the performance and effectiveness of the risk management processes and controls. KPIs are metrics that measure the achievement of the objectives and targets of the risk management activities. Periodically reviewing KPIs allows the organization to evaluate the progress and results of the risk management strategies and actions, and to identify any gaps, issues, or opportunities for improvement. The other options are not the primary reason to periodically review KPIs, as they are related to other aspects or outcomes of the risk management process. Ensuring compliance is the reason to review key risk indicators (KRIs), which are metrics that measure the level of risk exposure and the occurrence of risk events.Promoting a risk-aware culture is the reason to review key goal indicators (KGIs), which are metrics that measure the alignment of the risk management with the business goals and values. Optimizing resources needed for controls is the reason to review key control indicators(KCIs), which are metrics that measure the efficiency and adequacy of the risk controls. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3, Section 3.3.2, page 143.
When establishing an enterprise IT risk management program, it is MOST important to:
review alignment with the organizations strategy.
understand the organization's information security policy.
validate the organization's data classification scheme.
report identified IT risk scenarios to senior management.
The most important thing to do when establishing an enterprise IT risk management program is to review the alignment with the organization’s strategy. The organization’s strategy is the plan or direction that the organization follows to achieve its vision, mission, and goals. The IT risk management program should be aligned with the organization’s strategy, so that it supports and enables the organization’s strategic objectives, and addresses the IT risks that could affect the organization’s performance and value. Reviewing the alignment with the organization’s strategy helps to ensure that the IT risk management program is relevant, effective, and consistent with the organization’s expectations and needs. The other options are not as important as reviewing the alignment with the organization’s strategy, although they may be useful or necessary steps or components of the IT risk management program. Understanding the organization’s information security policy, validating the organization’s data classification scheme, and reporting identified IT risk scenarios to senior management are all activities that can help to implement and improvethe IT risk management program, but they are not the initial or primary thing todo. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2, Section 2.2.1, page 2-12.
In the three lines of defense model, a PRIMARY objective of the second line is to:
Review and evaluate the risk management program.
Ensure risks and controls are effectively managed.
Implement risk management policies regarding roles and responsibilities.
Act as the owner for any operational risk identified as part of the risk program.
The second line of defense provides oversight to ensure risks and controls are effectively managed. This includes compliance, risk management policies, and performance monitoring, aligning withRisk Governanceframeworks and enhancing the organization’s risk resilience.
Which of the following is the FIRST step in managing the risk associated with the leakage of confidential data?
Maintain and review the classified data inventor.
Implement mandatory encryption on data
Conduct an awareness program for data owners and users.
Define and implement a data classification policy
The risk associated with the leakage of confidential data is the possibility and impact of unauthorized disclosure, access, or use of sensitive information that may harm the organization or its stakeholders12.
The first step in managing the risk associated with the leakage of confidential data is to define and implement a data classification policy, which is a document that establishes the criteria, categories, roles, and responsibilities for identifying, labeling, and handling different types of data according to their sensitivity, value, and protection needs34.
Defining and implementing a data classification policy is the first step because it provides the foundation and framework for the data protection strategy, and enables the organization to prioritize and allocate the appropriate resources and controls for the most critical and confidential data34.
Defining and implementing a data classification policy is also the first step because it supports the compliance with the relevant laws and regulations, such as GDPR, HIPAA, or PCI-DSS, that require the organization to classify and protect the personal or financial data of its customers or clients34.
The other options are not the first step, but rather possible subsequent steps that may depend on or follow the data classification policy. For example:
Maintaining and reviewing the classified data inventory is a step that involves creating and updating a record of the data assets that have been classified, and verifying their accuracy and completeness over time34. However, this step is not the first step because it requires the data classification policy to provide the guidance and standards for the data inventory process34.
Implementing mandatory encryption on data is a step that involves applying a cryptographic technique that transforms the data into an unreadable format, and requires a key or a password to decrypt and access the data56. However, this step is not the first step because it requires the dataclassification policy to determine which data needs to be encrypted, and what level of encryption is appropriate56.
Conducting an awareness program for data owners and users is a step that involves educating and training the people who are responsible for or have access to the data, and informing them of their roles, obligations, and best practices for data protection78. However, this step is not the first step because it requires the data classification policy to define the data ownership and user rights, and the data protection policies and procedures78. References =
1: Top Four Damaging Consequences of Data Leakage | ZeroFox1
2: 8 Data Leak Prevention Strategies for 2023 | UpGuard2
3: Data Classification: What It Is, Why You Need It, and How to Do It3
4: Data Classification Policy Template - IT Governance USA4
5: Encryption: What It Is, How It Works, and Why You Need It5
6: Encryption Policy Template - IT Governance USA6
7: What Is Security Awareness Training and Why Is It Important? - Kaspersky7
8: Security Awareness Training - Cybersecurity Education Online | Proofpoint US8
An organization is making significant changes to an application. At what point should the application risk profile be updated?
After user acceptance testing (UAT)
Upon release to production
During backlog scheduling
When reviewing functional requirements
The application risk profile should be updated when reviewing functional requirements. This will help to identify and assess the potential risks that may arise from the changes to the application, and to plan and implement appropriate risk responses. Updating the application risk profile at this stage will also help to ensure that the changes are aligned with the organization’s objectives, policies, and standards, and that they meet the stakeholders’ expectations and needs. Updating the application risk profile after user acceptance testing, upon release to production, or during backlog scheduling are not the best points to update the risk profile, as they may be too late or too early to capture the relevant risks and their impacts. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.1.1.1, page 511
1: ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC®) Exam Guide, Answer to Question 655.
When performing a risk assessment of a new service to support a core business process, which of the following should be done FIRST to ensure continuity of operations?
Define metrics for restoring availability.
Identify conditions that may cause disruptions.
Review incident response procedures.
Evaluate the probability of risk events.
When performing a risk assessment of a new service to support a core business process, the first step is to identify the conditions that may cause disruptions to the service or the process. This involves identifying the sources and causes of potential risk events, such as natural disasters, cyberattacks, human errors, equipment failures, power outages, etc. that may affect the availability, integrity, or confidentiality of the service or the process. By identifying the conditions that may cause disruptions, the risk practitioner can then analyze the probability and impact of the risk events, evaluate the risk exposure, and determine theappropriate risk responses to ensure the continuity of operations. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 66.
Which of the following provides the MOST reliable evidence of a control's effectiveness?
A risk and control self-assessment
Senior management's attestation
A system-generated testing report
detailed process walk-through
The most reliable evidence of a control’s effectiveness is a system-generated testing report. A system-generated testing report is a document that shows the results of automated tests performed by the system to verify that the control is functioning as intended and producing the expected outcomes. A system-generated testing report is reliable, because it is objective, consistent, accurate, and timely, and because it can provide a high level of assurance and confidence in the control’s effectiveness. The other options are not as reliable as a system-generated testing report, although they may provide some evidence of the control’s effectiveness. A risk and control self-assessment, senior management’s attestation, and a detailed process walk-through are all examples of manual or subjective evidence, which may be prone to errors, biases, or inconsistencies, and which may provide a lower level of assurance and confidence in the control’s effectiveness. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.4.1, page 3-32.
A new international data privacy regulation requires personal data to be
disposed after the specified retention period, which is different from the local
regulatory requirement. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's
BEST course of action?
The application code has not been version controlled.
Knowledge of the applications is limited to few employees.
An IT project manager is not assigned to oversee development.
Controls are not applied to the applications.
Which of the following BEST provides an early warning that network access of terminated employees is not being revoked in accordance with the service level agreement (SLA)?
Updating multi-factor authentication
Monitoring key access control performance indicators
Analyzing access control logs for suspicious activity
Revising the service level agreement (SLA)
According to the CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), monitoring key access control performance indicators is the best way to provide an early warning that network access of terminated employees is not being revoked in accordance with the service level agreement (SLA), as it measures the effectiveness and efficiency of the access control process and its alignment with the SLA objectives and requirements. The SLA is a contract that defines the expectations and responsibilities of the service provider and the service recipient in terms of the quality, availability, and scope of the service. Monitoring key access control performance indicators helps to:
Evaluate the extent to which the access control process has met the SLA targets and standards
Identify and report any deviations, errors, or breaches in the access control process and its compliance with the SLA
Recommend and implement corrective actions or improvement measures to address the issues or findings in the access control process
Communicate and coordinate the monitoring results and recommendations with the relevant stakeholders, such as the service provider, the service recipient, and the senior management
References = CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 4: IT Risk Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.1: IT Risk Monitoring, pp. 217-2181
The risk associated with an asset before controls are applied can be expressed as:
a function of the likelihood and impact
the magnitude of an impact
a function of the cost and effectiveness of control.
the likelihood of a given threat
The risk associated with an asset before controls are applied is also known as the inherent risk. It is the level of risk that exists in the absence of any mitigating actions or measures. To express the inherent risk, one needs to consider two factors: the likelihood and the impact of a potential threat. The likelihood is the probability or frequency of a threat occurring, while the impact is the magnitude or severity of the consequences if the threat materializes. The inherent risk can be calculated by multiplying the likelihood and the impact, or by using a risk matrix that assigns a risk rating based on the combination of these two factors. The other options are not correct ways of expressing the inherent risk, as they do not account for both the likelihood and the impact of a threat. The magnitude of an impact is only one component of the risk, and it does not reflect how likely the threat is to happen. The function of the cost and effectiveness of control is related to the residual risk, which is the risk that remains after controls are applied. The likelihood of a given threat is also only one component of the risk, and it does not indicate how severe the impact would be if the threat occurs. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.1.1, Page 47.
When presenting risk, the BEST method to ensure that the risk is measurable against the organization's risk appetite is through the use of a:
risk map
cause-and-effect diagram
maturity model
technology strategy plan.
A risk map is the best method to ensure that the risk is measurable against the organization’s risk appetite, as it is a graphical tool that displays the level and priority of risks based on their likelihood and impact, as well as other factors such as velocity, persistence, and urgency. A risk map can help to compare and communicate the risk levels across different business units, processes, and projects, and to align them with the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance. A risk map can also help to identify the gaps and overlaps in risk management, and to support the decision making and resource allocation for risk response. A cause-and-effect diagram is a tool that helps to identify and analyze the root causes and consequences of a risk or a problem, but it does not measure the risk against the organization’s risk appetite. A maturity model is a tool that helps to assess and improve the capability and performance of a process or a function, but it does not measure the risk against the organization’s risk appetite. A technology strategy plan is a document that outlines the vision, goals, and objectives of the organization’s use of information and technology, but it does not measure the risk against the organization’s risk appetite. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: IT Risk Assessment, page 97.
A vulnerability assessment of a vendor-supplied solution has revealed that the software is susceptible to cross-site scripting and SQL injection attacks. Which of the following will BEST mitigate this issue?
Monitor the databases for abnormal activity
Approve exception to allow the software to continue operating
Require the software vendor to remediate the vulnerabilities
Accept the risk and let the vendor run the software as is
Cross-site scripting (XSS) and SQL injection are two common types of web application attacks that can compromise the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of data and systems. XSS allows an attacker to inject malicious code into a web page that is viewed by other users, while SQL injection allows an attacker to execute arbitrary commands on a database server by manipulating the input parameters of a web application. Both attacks can result in data theft, unauthorized access, defacement, denial of service, and more.
To mitigate these attacks, the best option is to require the software vendor to remediate the vulnerabilities by applying secure coding practices, such as input validation, output encoding, parameterized queries, and HTML sanitization. These techniques can prevent or limit the impact of XSS and SQL injection by ensuring that user input is not interpreted as code or commands by the web browser or the database server. The software vendor should also provide regular updates and patches to fix any known or newly discovered vulnerabilities.
The other options are not effective or acceptable ways to mitigate these attacks. Monitoring the databases for abnormal activity can help detect and respond to SQL injection attacks, but it does not prevent them from happening or address the root cause of the vulnerability. Approving an exception to allow the software to continue operating can expose the organization to unnecessary risks and liabilities, as well as violate compliance requirements and standards. Accepting the risk and letting the vendor run the software as is can also have serious consequences for the organization, as it implies that the potential impact and likelihood of the attacks are low or acceptable, which may not be the case. References =
IT Risk Resources | ISACA
CRISC Certification | Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control | ISACA
Cross Site Scripting Prevention Cheat Sheet - OWASP
A novel technique to prevent SQL injection and cross-site scripting attacks using Knuth-Morris-Pratt string match algorithm | EURASIP Journal on Information Security | Full Text
Difference Between XSS and SQL Injection - GeeksforGeeks
Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of incorporating IT risk scenarios into the corporate risk register?
Corporate incident escalation protocols are established.
Exposure is integrated into the organization's risk profile.
Risk appetite cascades to business unit management
The organization-wide control budget is expanded.
IT risk scenarios are hypothetical situations that describe the sources, causes, and consequences of IT-related risks, and the potential impacts on the organization’s objectives, performance, and value creation12.
A corporate risk register is a document that records and tracks the significant risks that the organization faces, and the responses and actions that are taken to address them34.
The greatest benefit of incorporating IT risk scenarios into the corporate risk register is that exposure is integrated into the organization’s risk profile, which is a comprehensive and integrated representation of the risks that may affect the organization’s objectives, performance, and value creation56.
Exposure is integrated into the organization’s risk profile means that the organization has a complete and consistent view of the IT risk landscape, and the potential impacts andinterdependencies of IT risks on other types of risks, such as financial, operational, strategic, or reputational risks56.
Exposure is integrated into the organization’s risk profile also means that the organization can make informed and balanced decisions on the risk responses and actions, and allocate the appropriate resources and priorities to the IT risk management and control processes56.
The other options are not the greatest benefit, but rather possible outcomes or consequences of incorporating IT risk scenarios into the corporate risk register. For example:
Corporate incident escalation protocols are established is an outcome of incorporating IT risk scenarios into the corporate risk register that indicates the organization has defined and implemented the procedures and mechanisms for reporting and resolving IT-related incidents,and for escalating them to the appropriate authorities or levels when necessary78. However, this outcome does not measure or reflect the exposure or the risk profile of the organization, which may depend on other factors such as the frequency, severity, or complexity of the incidents78.
Risk appetite cascades to business unit management is a consequence of incorporating IT risk scenarios into the corporate risk register that indicates the organization has communicated and aligned the risk appetite, which is the amount and type of risk that the organization is willing to accept or pursue, to the business unit management, who are responsible for executing the risk strategy and objectives at the operational level . However, this consequence does not indicate or imply the exposure or the risk profile of the organization, which may vary depending on the context, environment, or stakeholder expectations .
The organization-wide control budget is expanded is an outcome of incorporating IT risk scenarios into the corporate risk register that indicates the organization has increased the amount of resources and funds that are allocated to the control processes, which are the procedures and activities that aim to ensure the effectiveness and efficiency of the organization’s operations, the reliability of its information, and the compliance with its policies and regulations . However, this outcome does not affect or determine the exposure or the risk profile of the organization, which is independent of the control budget . References =
1: IT Risk Scenarios - Morland-Austin3
2: Risk Scenarios Toolkit, ISACA, 2019
3: Risk Register Template and Examples | Prioritize and Manage Risk1
4: Risk Register Examples for Cybersecurity Leaders4
5: Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2009
6: IT Risk Management Framework, University of Toronto, 2017
7: Security Incident Reporting and Response, University of Toronto, 2017
8: Security Incident Reporting and Response, ISACA, 2019
Risk Appetite: Linking Strategy, Risk and Performance, ISACA, 2012
Risk Appetite and Tolerance, ISACA Journal, Volume 4, 2013
The Control Process | Principles of Management2
Control Management: What it is + Why It’s Essential | Adobe Workfront5
To mitigate the risk of using a spreadsheet to analyze financial data, IT has engaged a third-party vendor to deploy a standard application to automate the process. Which of the following parties should own the risk associated with calculation errors?
business owner
IT department
Risk manager
Third-party provider
According to the CRISC Review Manual1, the business owner is the person who has the authority and accountability for the achievement of the business objectives and the managementof the associated risks. The business owner is ultimately responsible for ensuring that the IT services and solutions support the business needs and goals, and for accepting or rejecting the residual risks after the implementation of risk responses. Therefore, the business owner should own the risk associated with calculation errors, as they are the ones who will be affected by the potential impact of the errors on the financial data and decisions. References = CRISC Review Manual1, page 194.
A bank is experiencing an increasing incidence of customer identity theft. Which of the following is the BEST way to mitigate this risk?
Implement monitoring techniques.
Implement layered security.
Outsource to a local processor.
Conduct an awareness campaign.
The best way to mitigate the risk of customer identity theft is to implement layered security. Layered security is a defense-in-depth approach that applies multiple and diverse security controls at different levels and stages of the information system and the data lifecycle. Layered security can include physical, technical, and administrative controls, such as locks, firewalls, encryption, authentication, authorization, backup, audit, and policy. Layered security can help to protect the customer data and identity from unauthorized access, use, modification, disclosure, or destruction, by creating multiple barriers and deterrents for potential attackers, and by reducing the impact and likelihood of a successful breach. Layered security can also help to comply with the legal and regulatory requirements and standards for data privacy and protection, such as the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (GLBA), the Fair Credit Reporting Act (FCRA), and the Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI DSS)123.The other options are not the best way to mitigate the risk of customer identity theft, although they may be useful or complementary to layered security. Implementing monitoring techniques is a part of the layered security approach, but it is not sufficient, as it mainly focuses on detecting and responding to the incidents, rather than preventing or deterring them. Outsourcing to a local processor is a business decision that may or may not improve the security of the customer data and identity, depending on the quality and reliability of the service provider, and the terms and conditions of the outsourcing contract. Conducting an awareness campaign is a good practice that can help to educate and inform the customers and the employees about the common types, methods, and indicators of identity theft, and the best practices and precautions to prevent or report it, but it does not directly apply or enforce any security controls to the information system or the data.
An organization operates in an environment where reduced time-to-market for new software products is a top business priority. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's GREATEST concern?
Sufficient resources are not assigned to IT development projects.
Customer support help desk staff does not have adequate training.
Email infrastructure does not have proper rollback plans.
The corporate email system does not identify and store phishing emails.
In an environment where reduced time-to-market for new software products is a top business priority, the risk practitioner’s greatest concern should be whether sufficient resources are assigned to IT development projects. Resources include human, financial, technical, and physical assets that are needed to plan, design, develop, test, and deliver high-quality software products in a timely manner. If the IT development projects are under-resourced, they may face challenges such as delays, errors, defects, rework, scope creep, or failure to meet customer expectations or requirements. These challenges can increase the risk of losing competitive advantage, market share, customer satisfaction, or reputation. The other options are less critical, as they are not directly related to the core business priority of reducing time-to-market for new softwareproducts. Customer support help desk staff training, email infrastructure rollback plans, and corporate email system phishing detection are important aspects of information security and customer service, but they are not the primary drivers of software product development anddelivery. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: IT Risk Response, Section 3.2: Risk Response Options, p. 115-116.
An organization has implemented a policy requiring staff members to take a minimum of five consecutive days' leave per year to mitigate the risk of malicious insider activities. Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) of the effectiveness of this policy?
Percentage of staff turnover following five consecutive days of leave
Average number of consecutive days of leave per staff member
Number of suspected malicious activities reported since policy implementation
Financial loss incurred due to malicious activities since policy implementation
The number of suspected malicious activities reported since the policy's implementation directly measures thepolicy's effectiveness in identifying and mitigating insider threats. This aligns withKey Performance Indicators (KPIs)used to evaluate control outcomes.
Which of the following is the MAIN purpose of monitoring risk?
Communication
Risk analysis
Decision support
Benchmarking
The main purpose of monitoring risk is to provide decision support for the organization. Risk monitoring is the process of tracking and reviewing the risk management activities, the risk profile, and the risk performance of the organization. By monitoring risk, the organization can obtain timely and relevant information and feedback on the risk situation, and use it to make informed and effective decisions on risk management and business objectives. Communication, risk analysis, and benchmarking are other possible purposes of risk monitoring, but they are not as important as decision support. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 12; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 215.
An organization has identified that terminated employee accounts are not disabled or deleted within the time required by corporate policy. Unsure of the reason, the organization has decided to monitor the situation for three months to obtain more information. As a result of this decision, the risk has been:
avoided.
accepted.
mitigated.
transferred.
Risk acceptance is a risk response strategy that involves acknowledging the existence and potential impact of a risk, but deciding not to take any action to reduce or eliminate it. Risk acceptance can be appropriate when the cost or effort of implementing a risk response outweighs the benefit, or when there are no feasible or effective risk responses available. An organization has identified that terminated employee accounts are not disabled or deleted within the time required by corporate policy, which poses a security risk to the organization. The organization is unsure of the reason for this issue, and has decided to monitor the situation for three months to obtain more information, rather than taking any immediate action to resolve the issue. As a result of this decision, the risk has been accepted, as the organization has chosen to tolerate the risk exposure for a certain period of time, and has not implemented any controls or measures to prevent or reduce the risk occurrence or impact. References = Risk Response Strategies: Avoid, Transfer, Mitigate, Accept, Risk Response Strategies: What They Are and How to Use Them, Risk Response Strategy: Definition, Types, and Examples.
Accountability for a particular risk is BEST represented in a:
risk register
risk catalog
risk scenario
RACI matrix
A RACI matrix is a tool that assigns the roles and responsibilities for each risk, such as who is responsible, accountable, consulted, and informed. A RACI matrix helps to clarify the expectations and accountabilities for each risk owner and stakeholder, and to ensure that the risk is managed and monitored effectively and efficiently.
A risk register is a document that records and tracks the identified risks, their likelihood, impact, and mitigation strategies. A risk register does not assign the accountability for each risk, but rather the ownership and response.
A risk catalog is a collection of risks that have been identified and categorized based on common attributes, such as source, type, or impact. A risk catalog does not assign the accountability for each risk, but rather the classification and description.
A risk scenario is a technique that simulates the possible outcomes of different risk events and assesses their impact on the enterprise’s objectives and operations. A risk scenario does not assign the accountability for each risk, but rather the analysis and evaluation.
A bank recently incorporated blockchain technology with the potential to impact known risk within the organization. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?
reflect the results of risk assessments.
be available to all stakeholders.
effectively support a business maturity model.
be reviewed by the IT steering committee.
Which of the following is MOST useful when performing a quantitative risk assessment?
RACI matrix
Financial models
Management support
Industry benchmarking
An organization's HR department has implemented a policy requiring staff members to take a minimum of five consecutive days leave per year to mitigate the risk of malicious insideractivities. Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) of the effectiveness of this policy?
Number of malicious activities occurring during staff members leave
Percentage of staff members seeking exception to the policy
Percentage of staff members taking leave according to the policy
Financial loss incurred due to malicious activities during staff members' leave
The best key performance indicator (KPI) of the effectiveness of the policy requiring staff members to take a minimum of five consecutive days leave per year to mitigate the risk ofmalicious insider activities is the percentage of staff members taking leave according to the policy. A KPI is a quantifiable measure that evaluates the performance of a process, activity, or outcome against a predefined target or objective. The percentage of staff members taking leave according to the policy is the best KPI, because it directly measures the compliance and adherence of the staff members to the policy, which is the main objective of the policy. The policy aims to reduce the risk of malicious insider activities by forcing the staff members to take a break from their work, which can help to deter, detect, or prevent any fraudulent or unauthorized actions, such as data theft, sabotage, or manipulation12. The percentage of staffmembers taking leave according to the policy can also help to evaluate the effectiveness and efficiency of the policy implementation and enforcement, and to identify and address any gaps or issues in the policy design or execution. The other options are not the best KPI, although they may be related or influential to the policy effectiveness. The number of malicious activities occurring during staff members’ leave is a measure of the occurrence and impact of the risk events that the policy aims to mitigate, but it is not a direct measure of the policy performance or compliance. The number of malicious activities occurring during staff members’ leave may also be affected by other factors or controls, such as the security systems, the audit procedures, or the external threats, which may not reflect the policy effectiveness. The percentage of staff members seeking exception to the policy is a measure of the resistance or dissatisfaction of the staff members to the policy, but it is not a direct measure of the policy performance or compliance. The percentage of staff members seeking exception to the policy may also be influenced by other factors or circumstances, such as the workload, the personal preferences, or the organizational culture, which may not indicate the policy effectiveness. The financial loss incurred due to malicious activities during staff members’ leave is a measure of the consequence and severity of the risk events that the policy aims to mitigate, but it is not a direct measure of the policy performance or compliance. The financial loss incurred due to malicious activities during staff members’ leave may also vary depending on the type, scale, or frequency of the malicious activities, or the recovery or compensation actions, which may not represent the policy effectiveness. References = How To Measure Risk Management KPI & Metrics - ERM Software, Key Performance Indicators (KPIs): The Ultimate Guide - ClearPoint Strategy
Which of the following is the GREATEST concern when establishing key risk indicators (KRIs)?
High percentage of lagging indicators
Nonexistent benchmark analysis
Incomplete documentation for KRI monitoring
Ineffective methods to assess risk
The greatest concern when establishing key risk indicators (KRIs) is using ineffective methods to assess risk. KRIs are metrics that measure the likelihood and impact of risks, and help monitor and prioritize the most critical risks. To establish effective KRIs, the risk assessment methods should be reliable, valid, consistent, and timely. Ineffective methods to assess risk could lead to inaccurate or misleading KRIs, which could result in poor risk management decisions and outcomes. The other options are not as significant as using ineffective methods to assess risk, although they may also affect the quality and usefulness of KRIs. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.4.1, page 4-36.
Which of the following is MOST important to the effectiveness of a senior oversight committee for risk monitoring?
Key risk indicators (KRIs)
Risk governance charter
Organizational risk appetite
Cross-business representation
Cross-business representation is most important to the effectiveness of a senior oversight committee for risk monitoring. Here’s a
Importance of Cross-business Representation:
Comprehensive Risk Perspective: Having representatives from different business units ensures that the committee has a comprehensive view of risks across the entire organization. This diverse representation helps in identifying and assessing risks that may impact various parts of the business differently.
Informed Decision-Making: Members from different business areas can provide unique insights and expertise, leading to more informed and balanced decision-making processes.
Improved Communication: Cross-business representation facilitates better communication and collaboration across the organization, ensuring that risk management practices are understood and implemented consistently.
Comparison with Other Options:
Key Risk Indicators (KRIs): While important for monitoring specific risks, KRIs alone do not ensure the effectiveness of the oversight committee without a diverse representation to interpret and act on these indicators.
Risk Governance Charter: A risk governance charter outlines the roles, responsibilities, and processes for risk management, but its effectiveness depends on the active participation of diverse business representatives.
Organizational Risk Appetite: Understanding the organizational risk appetite is crucial, but without cross-business representation, the risk appetite may not be appropriately reflected or acted upon across all business areas.
Best Practices:
Diverse Membership: Ensure that the oversight committee includes members from all key business units and functions to provide a holistic view of organizational risks.
Regular Meetings: Schedule regular meetings to review and discuss risk management activities, KRIs, and emerging risks with input from all representatives.
Clear Communication: Establish clear communication channels between the oversight committee and business units to ensure that risk management practices are effectively implemented and monitored.
Which of the following is the MOST effective way to help ensure accountability for managing risk?
Assign process owners to key risk areas.
Obtain independent risk assessments.
Assign incident response action plan responsibilities.
Create accurate process narratives.
The most effective way to help ensure accountability for managing risk is to assign process owners to key risk areas. Process owners are the persons or entities that have the authority andresponsibility to manage a specific process or a group of related processes. Process owners help to identify, assess, and respond to the risks associated with the process, and to monitor and report on the process performance and improvement. Process owners also help to communicate and coordinate the process management activities with the relevant stakeholders, such as the board, management, business units, and IT functions. Assigning process owners to key risk areas helps to ensure accountability for managing risk, because it helps to define and clarify the roles and responsibilities of the process owners, and to establish and enforce the expectations and standards for the process owners. Assigning process owners to key risk areas also helps to measure and evaluate the effectiveness and efficiency of the process owners, and to identify and address any issues or gaps in the process management activities. The other options are not as effective as assigning process owners to key risk areas, although they may be related to the risk management process. Obtaining independent risk assessments, assigning incident response action plan responsibilities, and creating accurate process narratives are all activities that can help to support or improve the risk management process, but they do not necessarily ensure accountability for managing risk. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2, Section 2.2.1, page 2-11.
Zero Trust architecture is designed and deployed with adherence to which of the following basic tenets?
Incoming traffic must be inspected before connection is established.
Security frameworks and libraries should be leveraged.
Digital identities should be implemented.
All communication is secured regardless of network location.
Zero Trust Architecture:
Zero Trust is a security concept centered on the belief that organizations should not automatically trust anything inside or outside their perimeters and must verify everything attempting to connect to their systems.
Basic Tenets of Zero Trust:
The primary principle is "never trust, always verify." This means every access request is authenticated, authorized, and encrypted regardless of where it originates.
Zero Trust requires securing all communication, whether it occurs within the internal network or comes from external sources. This approach prevents lateral movement by potential attackers who have breached the network perimeter.
Key Components:
Authentication and Authorization:Continuous verification of user identities and access privileges.
Microsegmentation:Dividing the network into small, isolated segments to limit the spread of threats.
Encryption:Ensuring that all data, whether at rest or in transit, is encrypted to protect its confidentiality and integrity.
Other Options:
Incoming Traffic Inspection:While important, this is just one aspect of Zero Trust.
Security Frameworks and Libraries:These are tools and guidelines to implement security but do not define the core tenets of Zero Trust.
Digital Identities:Implementing digital identities is part of the broader Zero Trust strategy but not a standalone tenet.
References:
The CISSP Study Guide explains the Zero Trust architecture and its emphasis on securing all communications regardless of network location (Sybex CISSP Study Guide, Chapter 8: Principles of Security Models, Design, and Capabilities).
Which of the following resources is MOST helpful when creating a manageable set of IT risk scenarios?
Results of current and past risk assessments
Organizational strategy and objectives
Lessons learned from materialized risk scenarios
Internal and external audit findings
According to the CRISC Review Manual1, lessons learned from materialized risk scenarios are the insights and knowledge gained from analyzing the causes, impacts, and responses of actual risk events that occurred in the past. Lessons learned from materialized risk scenarios are the most helpful resource when creating a manageable set of IT risk scenarios, as they help to identify and prioritize the most relevant and realistic risks that could affect the organization’s objectives, processes, and resources. Lessons learned from materialized risk scenarios also helpto improve the risk management practices and capabilities, and to avoid repeating the same mistakes or gaps in the future. References = CRISC Review Manual1, page 206.
A key risk indicator (KRI) indicates a reduction in the percentage of appropriately patched servers. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?
Determine changes in the risk level.
Outsource the vulnerability management process.
Review the patch management process.
Add agenda item to the next risk committee meeting.
A key risk indicator (KRI) is a metric that measures the changes in the level of risk exposure, such as by monitoring the risk drivers, triggers, or events. A KRI indicates a reduction in the percentage of appropriately patched servers means that the enterprise is not applying the latest security updates or fixes to its servers, which could expose them to vulnerabilities or threats. The best course of action for the risk practitioner when a KRI indicates a reduction in the percentage of appropriately patched servers is to determine changes in the risk level. The risk level is the measure of the impact and likelihood of the risk, and it should be consistent and comparable across the enterprise and over time. By determining changes in the risklevel, the risk practitioner can assess the current or emerging risks, and decide on the appropriate risk response strategy and actions. The other options are not the best course of action, as they involve different aspects or outcomes of the risk management process:
Outsource the vulnerability management process means that the enterprise transfers the responsibility or burden of identifying, analyzing, prioritizing, and remediating the vulnerabilities in the IT systems and applications to a third party, such as a vendor or a contractor. This may not be a feasible or effective way to address the risk of unpatched servers, as it may not reduce the exposure or impact of the risk, or may introduce new risks, such as contractual disputes, quality issues, or intellectual property rights.
Review the patch management process means that the enterprise evaluates the existing procedures and practices for applying the security updates or fixes to the servers, and identifies the gaps or weaknesses that need to be addressed. This may be a useful step in the risk management process, but it is not the best course of action, as it may not provide immediate or sufficient information or action to address the risk of unpatched servers, or may not account for the uncertainties or complexities of the risk.
Add agenda item to the next risk committee meeting means that the enterprise communicates the risk of unpatched servers to the senior executives who oversee the enterprise-wide risk management program, and provide guidance and direction to the risk owners and practitioners. This may be a helpful step in the risk management process, but it is not the best course of action, as it may not provide timely or adequate information or action to address the risk of unpatched servers, or may not reflect the urgency or priority of the risk. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 4, Section 4.3.2.1, pp. 171-172.
For no apparent reason, the time required to complete daily processing for a legacy application is approaching a risk threshold. Which of the following activities should be performed FIRST?
Temporarily increase the risk threshold.
Suspend processing to investigate the problem.
Initiate a feasibility study for a new application.
Conduct a root-cause analysis.
The first activity that should be performed when the time required to complete daily processing for a legacy application is approaching a risk threshold is to conduct a root-cause analysis. This will help to identify the source of the problem and the factors that are contributing to the increased processing time. By conducting a root-cause analysis, the enterprise can determine the most appropriate and effective solution to address the problem and prevent it from recurring. Temporarily increasing the risk threshold, suspending processing to investigate the problem, and initiating a feasibility study for a new application are not the first activities that should be performed, as they may not resolve the underlying issue and may introduce additional risks or costs. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.1.2, page 193.
Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for a risk practitioner to report changes and trends in the IT risk profile to senior management?
To ensure risk owners understand their responsibilities
To ensure IT risk is managed within acceptable limits
To ensure the organization complies with legal requirements
To ensure the IT risk awareness program is effective
The primary reason for a risk practitioner to report changes and trends in the IT risk profile to senior management is to ensure that IT risk is managed within acceptable limits, because it helps to inform and advise the senior management on the current state and direction of IT risk, and to support the risk-based decision making and prioritization. An IT risk profile is a summary of the key IT risks that an organization faces, and their implications for the organization’s objectives and strategy. An IT risk profile may change or evolve over time, due to factors such as newtechnologies, business initiatives, or external events. Reporting changes and trends in the IT risk profile to senior management is the primary reason, as it helps to ensure that the senior management is aware of and prepared for the IT risk challenges and opportunities, and that the IT risk is managed within the acceptable limits defined by the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance. To ensure risk owners understand their responsibilities, to ensure the organization complies with legal requirements, and to ensure the IT risk awareness program is effective are all possible reasons for reporting changes and trends in the IT risk profile, but they are not the primary reason, as they are not directly related to the management of IT risk within acceptable limits. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.2.3, page 91
Establishing and organizational code of conduct is an example of which type of control?
Preventive
Directive
Detective
Compensating
According to the CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), establishing an organizational code of conduct is an example of a directive control, which is a type of control that guides or steers the behavior of individuals or processes to achieve desired outcomes. A directive control aims toinfluence or encourage compliance with the organization’s policies, standards, procedures, and guidelines. A directive control can also communicate the organization’s values, ethics, and expectations to its stakeholders. A directive control can take various forms, such as:
Codes of conduct or ethics
Policies or manuals
Training or awareness programs
Job descriptions or roles and responsibilities
Performance appraisals or incentives
Supervision or oversight
References = CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.4: IT Risk Scenarios, pp. 105-1061
Which of the following would be the BEST way for a risk practitioner to validate the effectiveness of a patching program?
Conduct penetration testing.
Interview IT operations personnel.
Conduct vulnerability scans.
Review change control board documentation.
Conducting vulnerability scans is the best way for a risk practitioner to validate the effectiveness of a patching program. Vulnerability scans are automated tools that identify and report on the vulnerabilities in a system or network, such as missing patches, misconfigurations, or outdated software. Vulnerability scans can help the risk practitioner to verify that the patches have been applied correctly and consistently, and that there are no remaining or new vulnerabilities that need to be addressed. Conducting penetration testing, interviewing IT operations personnel, and reviewing change control board documentation are also useful methods to evaluate the patching program, but they are not as comprehensive, objective, or timely as vulnerabilityscans. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2, Section 2.3.3, page 2-28.
Which of the following is MOST helpful in determining the effectiveness of an organization's IT risk mitigation efforts?
Assigning identification dates for risk scenarios in the risk register
Updating impact assessments for risk scenario
Verifying whether risk action plans have been completed
Reviewing key risk indicators (KRIS)
Key risk indicators (KRIs) are metrics that provide information about the level of exposure to a specific risk or a group of risks.
Reviewing KRIs is the most helpful way to determine the effectiveness of an organization’s IT risk mitigation efforts. This means that the organization monitors and evaluates the actual results and outcomes of the risk responses, compares them with the risk appetite and tolerance of the organization, identifies any deviations or breaches that may require attention or action, and reports them to the appropriate parties for decision making or improvement actions.
The other options are not the most helpful ways to determine the effectiveness of an organization’s IT risk mitigation efforts. They are either secondary or not essential for risk management.
The references for this answer are:
Risk IT Framework, page 15
Information Technology & Security, page 9
Risk Scenarios Starter Pack, page 7
Which of the following would provide the MOST objective assessment of the effectiveness of an organization's security controls?
An internal audit
Security operations center review
Internal penetration testing
A third-party audit
According to the CRISC Review Manual1, a third-party audit is an independent and objective examination of an organization’s security controls by an external auditor or organization. A third-party audit provides the most objective assessment of the effectiveness of an organization’s security controls, as it helps to avoid any conflicts of interest, biases, or assumptions that may affect the internal audit, review, or testing. A third-party audit also helps to ensure that the security controls comply with the relevant standards, regulations, and best practices, and that they meet the expectations and requirements of the stakeholders, such as customers, partners, or regulators. References = CRISC Review Manual1, page 224.
An organization has identified a risk exposure due to weak technical controls in a newly implemented HR system. The risk practitioner is documenting the risk in the risk register. The risk should be owned by the:
chief risk officer.
project manager.
chief information officer.
business process owner.
The business process owner should be the risk owner for the risk exposure due to weak technical controls in a newly implemented HR system, because they are responsible for the performance and outcomes of the HR business process, and they understand the business requirements, expectations, and impact of the HR system. The business process owner can also evaluate the trade-offs between the potential benefits and costs of the HR system, and the potential risks and consequences of a failure or breach of the system. The business process owner can also communicate and justify their risk acceptance or mitigation decision to the senior management and other stakeholders, and ensure that the risk is monitored and reviewed regularly. The other options are less appropriate to be the risk owner for this risk exposure. The chief risk officer is responsible for overseeing the enterprise-wide risk management framework and process, which includesensuring the identification, assessment, and reporting of risks. However, they are not the owner of the HR system or the HR business process, and they may not have the full knowledge or authority to accept or mitigate the risk on behalf of the business. The project manager is responsible for managing the implementation of the HR system, which includes ensuring the delivery of the system within the scope, time, and budget constraints. However, they are not the owner of the HR system or the HR business process, and they may not have the full knowledge or authority to accept or mitigate the risk on behalf of the business. The chief information officeris responsible for managing the IT function and resources, which includes providing the technical support and security for the HR system. However, they are not the owner of the HRsystem or the HR business process, and they may not have the full knowledge or authority to accept or mitigate the risk on behalf of the business. References = Getting risk ownership right 1
Which of the following should be included in a risk assessment report to BEST facilitate senior management's understanding of the results?
Benchmarking parameters likely to affect the results
Tools and techniques used by risk owners to perform the assessments
A risk heat map with a summary of risk identified and assessed
The possible impact of internal and external risk factors on the assessment results
A risk heat map is a graphical tool that displays the level of risk for each risk area based on the impact and likelihood of occurrence. It also provides a summary of the risk assessment results, such as the number and severity of risks, the risk appetite and tolerance, and the risk response strategies. A risk heat map can help senior management to understand the risk profile of the organization, prioritize the risks that need attention, and allocate resources accordingly. A risk heat map is more effective than the other options because it can communicate complex information in a simple and visual way, and it can highlight the key risk areas and trends. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.4.2, page 97.
After a high-profile systems breach at an organization s key vendor, the vendor has implemented additional mitigating controls. The vendor has voluntarily shared the following set of assessments:
Which of the assessments provides the MOST reliable input to evaluate residual risk in the vendor's control environment?
External audit
Internal audit
Vendor performance scorecard
Regulatory examination
An external audit is the most reliable input to evaluate residual risk in the vendor’s control environment, as it provides an independent and objective assessment of the vendor’s financial systems and processes. An external audit is conducted by a third party, such as a certified public accountant (CPA) or a professional auditing firm, that follows the generally accepted auditing standards (GAAS) and the generally accepted accounting principles (GAAP). An external audit can help to verify the accuracy and completeness of the vendor’s financial statements, identify any material misstatements or errors, and evaluate the effectiveness and efficiency of the vendor’s internal controls. An external audit can also provide assurance and confidence to the organization and other stakeholders that the vendor is complying with the relevant laws, regulations, and contractual obligations.
The other options are not the most reliable inputs to evaluate residual risk in the vendor’s control environment. An internal audit is conducted by the vendor itself, which may introduce bias or conflict of interest. An internal audit may also have a different scope, methodology, or quality than an external audit. A vendor performance scorecard is completed by the organization, which may not have the sufficient access, expertise, or authority to assess the vendor’s control environment. A vendor performance scorecard may also focus more on the service level agreement (SLA) compliance, rather than the financial systems and processes. A regulatory examination is conducted by a regulator, such as a government agency or a standard-settingbody, which may have a different purpose, criteria, or perspective than the organization. A regulatory examination may also have a limited scope, frequency, or transparency. References = Guide to VendorRisk Assessment | Smartsheet, Understanding Inherent Vs. Residual Risk Assessments - Resolver, Assessing Internal Controls over Compliance - HCCA Official Site
An organization has experienced a cyber-attack that exposed customer personally identifiable information (Pll) and caused extended outages of network services. Which of the following stakeholders are MOST important to include in the cyber response team to determine response actions?
Security control owners based on control failures
Cyber risk remediation plan owners
Risk owners based on risk impact
Enterprise risk management (ERM) team
Risk owners based on risk impact are the most important stakeholders to include in the cyber response team, as they are responsible for the business outcomes affected by the cyber attack and can decide on the appropriate response actions. The other options are not the most important stakeholders to include in the cyber response team, although they may be involved in the process.
Which of the following BEST enables an organization to address new risk associated with an Internet of Things (IoT) solution?
Transferring the risk
Introducing control procedures early in the life cycle
Updating the risk tolerance to include the new risk
Implementing IoT device monitoring software
Introducing control procedures early in the IoT solution life cycle ensures proactive identification and mitigation of risks. This approach aligns withSecure System Development PracticesandRisk Mitigation Strategies, reducing exposure as the solution evolves.
Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to consider when determining the control requirements for data privacy arising from emerging technologies?
internal audit recommendations
Laws and regulations
Policies and procedures
Standards and frameworks
The most important factor for a risk practitioner to consider when determining the control requirements for data privacy arising from emerging technologies is the laws and regulations that apply to the organization and the technologies. Laws and regulations are the legal and ethical obligations that the organization must comply with when collecting, processing, storing, and sharing personal data. Laws and regulations can vary depending on the jurisdiction, sector, and type of data involved, and they can impose different requirements and restrictions on the use of emerging technologies that may affect data privacy. For example, the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) in the European Union, the California Consumer Privacy Act (CCPA) in the United States, and the Personal Data Protection Act (PDPA) in Singapore are some of the laws and regulations that govern data privacy and protection in different regions and contexts123. A riskpractitioner should consider the laws and regulations when determining the control requirements for data privacy arising from emerging technologies, because they can help to ensure that the organization respects the rights and interests of the data subjects, avoids legal and reputational risks, and maintains trust and accountability. The other options are not the mostimportant factor, although they may be relevant or influential to the control requirements for data privacy arising from emerging technologies. Internal audit recommendations are the suggestions and feedback from the internal audit function, which evaluates and improves the effectiveness of the governance, risk management, and control systems of the organization, but they do not supersede or replace the laws and regulations. Policies and procedures are the rules and guidelines that define how the organization operates and conducts its activities, but they should be aligned and consistent with the laws and regulations. Standards and frameworks are the best practices and benchmarks that are adopted by the organization to guide and support its processes and performance, but they should be compatible and compliant with the laws and regulations. References = Emerging privacy-enhancing technologies: Current regulatory and policy approaches | en | OECD, Data and Cybersecurity: 2023 Regulatory Challenges - KPMG, Ethical Dilemmas and Privacy Issues in Emerging Technologies: A … - MDPI
When assigning control ownership, it is MOST important to verify that the owner has accountability for:
Control effectiveness.
The budget for control implementation.
Assessment of control risk.
Internal control audits.
Control owners must be accountable for ensuring the effectiveness of the controls they manage. This accountability ensures the alignment of controls with risk objectives, as outlined inControl Governance and Ownership.
Which of the following is the MOST comprehensive resource for prioritizing the implementation of information systems controls?
Data classification policy
Emerging technology trends
The IT strategic plan
The risk register
The most comprehensive resource for prioritizing the implementation of information systems controls is the risk register. The risk register is a document that records the identified risks, their analysis, and their responses. The risk register provides a holistic and systematic view of the risk profile and the risk treatment of the organization. The risk register can help to prioritize the implementation of information systems controls by providing the information on the likelihood, impact, and exposure of the risks, the effectiveness and efficiency of the controls, and the gaps or issues of the control environment. The other options are not as comprehensive as the risk register, as they are related to the specific aspects or components of the information systems controls, not the overall assessment and evaluation of the information systems controls. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.4: IT Risk Response, page 87.
Which of the following cloud service models is MOST appropriate for client organizations that want to maximize their control over management of the data life cycle?
Data as a Service (DaaS)
Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
Platform as a Service (PaaS)
Software as a Service (SaaS)
Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) provides organizations with the highest level of control over their IT resources in the cloud. With IaaS, clients manage the operating systems, storage, deployed applications, and possibly limited control of select networking components. This level of control allows organizations to manage the data life cycle comprehensively, including data creation, storage, processing, and disposal. In contrast, PaaS and SaaS models abstract more of these controls, limiting the client's ability to manage the data life cycle directly.
Which of the following would provide the MOST reliable evidence of the effectiveness of security controls implemented for a web application?
Penetration testing
IT general controls audit
Vulnerability assessment
Fault tree analysis
The most reliable evidence of the effectiveness of security controls implemented for a web application is penetration testing. Penetration testing is a process that simulates an attack on the web application by exploiting its vulnerabilities, using the same tools and techniques as real attackers. Penetration testing helps to evaluate the effectiveness of security controls, because it helps to verify that the security controls can prevent, detect, or mitigate the attack, and to measure the impact and severity of the attack. Penetration testing also helps to identify and address any weaknesses or gaps in the security controls, and to provide recommendations andsolutions for improving the security of the web application. The other options are not as reliable as penetration testing, although they may provide some evidence of the effectiveness of security controls. IT general controls audit, vulnerability assessment, and fault tree analysis are all examples of analytical or evaluative methods, which may help to assess or estimate the effectiveness of security controls, but they do not necessarily test or measure the effectiveness of security controls in a realistic scenario. References = 10
When prioritizing risk response, management should FIRST:
evaluate the organization s ability and expertise to implement the solution.
evaluate the risk response of similar organizations.
address high risk factors that have efficient and effective solutions.
determine which risk factors have high remediation costs
According to the Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, the first step in prioritizing risk response is to address the high risk factors that have efficient and effective solutions. This means that management should focus on the risks that have the most impact on the organization’s objectives and can be mitigated with the least amount of resources and effort. This approach helps to optimize the risk response process and achieve the best results in terms of risk reduction and value creation. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 5, Section 5.3.2, Page 223.
Which of the following is the MOST effective way to mitigate identified risk scenarios?
Assign ownership of the risk response plan
Provide awareness in early detection of risk.
Perform periodic audits on identified risk.
areas Document the risk tolerance of the organization.
A risk response plan is a document that outlines the actions to be taken to address the identified risk scenarios. A risk response plan should include the objectives, scope, roles and responsibilities, resources, timelines, and metrics for each risk response. Assigning ownership of the risk response plan is the most effective way to mitigate identified risk scenarios, as it ensures accountability, clarity, and communication among the stakeholders involved in the risk management process. Assigning ownership also helps to monitor and evaluate the progress and effectiveness of the risk response plan, and to make adjustments as needed. References =Riskand Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: Risk Response and Mitigation, Section 3.3: Risk Response Plan, p. 152-155.
Which of the following presents the GREATEST risk to change control in business application development over the complete life cycle?
Emphasis on multiple application testing cycles
Lack of an integrated development environment (IDE) tool
Introduction of requirements that have not been approved
Bypassing quality requirements before go-live
The greatest risk to change control in business application development over the complete life cycle is the introduction of requirements that have not been approved. Requirements are the specifications or expectations of the business users or stakeholders for the application, such as the features, functions, or performance1. Change control is the process of identifying, evaluating, approving, and implementing changes to the application, such as the design, code, or configuration2. By introducing requirements that have not been approved, the organization can face significant risks, such as:
Scope creep, which is the uncontrolled or unauthorized expansion of the project scope, and can result in increased costs, delays, or errors3.
Quality issues, which can affect the reliability, usability, or security of the application, and can lead to defects, failures, or breaches4.
Stakeholder dissatisfaction, which can arise from the mismatch or inconsistency between the delivered application and the expected application, and can cause complaints, disputes, or litigation5.
The other options are not the greatest risk to change control, because:
Emphasis on multiple application testing cycles is not a risk, but rather a benefit or a best practice for change control, as it can help to ensure that the application meets the requirements and standards, and that the changes are effective and efficient.
Lack of an integrated development environment (IDE) tool is a challenge, but not a risk, for change control, as it can affect the productivity, collaboration, or integration of the developers, and can cause difficulties or inefficiencies in the development process. However, it does not directly affect the requirements or the quality of the application, and it can be overcome by using other tools or methods.
Bypassing quality requirements before go-live is a risk, but not the greatest risk, for change control, as it can compromise the quality or performance of the application, and can expose the organization to errors, failures, or breaches. However, it is less likely or frequent than introducing requirements that have not been approved, and it can be detected or prevented by using quality assurance or quality control techniques.
References =
Requirements - CIO Wiki
Change Control - CIO Wiki
Scope Creep - CIO Wiki
Quality - CIO Wiki
Stakeholder Management - CIO Wiki
[Software Testing - CIO Wiki]
[Integrated Development Environment (IDE) - CIO Wiki]
[Quality Requirements - CIO Wiki]
[Software Development Life Cycle - CIO Wiki]
When reviewing a risk response strategy, senior management's PRIMARY focus should be placed on the:
cost-benefit analysis.
investment portfolio.
key performance indicators (KPIs).
alignment with risk appetite.
According to the What To Look For When Assessing Your Organization’s Security Risk Posture article, risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. Risk appetite should be aligned with the organization’s strategy, goals, and values, and should reflect the organization’s risk culture and capabilities. When reviewing a risk response strategy, senior management’s primary focus should be placed on the alignment with risk appetite, as this indicates how well the risk response strategy supports the organization’s objectives and expectations, and how consistent it is with the organization’s risk tolerance and risk profile. By ensuring the alignment with risk appetite, senior managementcan evaluate the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk response strategy, and determine if any adjustments or improvements are needed. References = What To Look For When Assessing Your Organization’s Security Risk Posture
Which of the following is the MOST important factor when deciding on a control to mitigate risk exposure?
Relevance to the business process
Regulatory compliance requirements
Cost-benefit analysis
Comparison against best practice
The most important factor when deciding on a control to mitigate risk exposure is the cost-benefit analysis. This is a process that compares the costs and benefits of implementing a control, and determines whether the control is worth the investment. A cost-benefit analysis helps to ensure that the control is efficient and effective in reducing the risk to an acceptable level, and that it does not introduce new risks or adversely affect other objectives. A cost-benefit analysis also helps to prioritize the controls based on their value and feasibility, and to allocate the resources accordingly. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.5, page 1861
Which of the following should be reported periodically to the risk committee?
System risk and control matrix
Emerging IT risk scenarios
Changes to risk assessment methodology
Audit committee charter
Reporting to the Risk Committee:
Role of Risk Committee: The risk committee is responsible for overseeing the organization’s risk management practices, including identifying, assessing, and mitigating risks.
Emerging IT Risks: Reporting emerging IT risk scenarios to the committee ensures that new and evolving threats are identified and addressed proactively.
Importance of Emerging IT Risk Scenarios:
Proactive Risk Management: By staying informed about emerging risks, the committee can implement preventive measures and avoid potential impacts.
Strategic Planning: Understanding emerging risks allows for better strategic planning and resource allocation to address these risks.
Comparison with Other Options:
System Risk and Control Matrix: Useful for ongoing monitoring but may not capture new and emerging risks.
Changes to Risk Assessment Methodology: Important for refining risk management processes but not as critical as identifying new risks.
Audit Committee Charter: Relevant for governance but not directly related to proactive risk management.
Best Practices:
Regular Updates: Provide the risk committee with regular updates on emerging IT risk scenarios.
Collaborative Approach: Engage various stakeholders in identifying and reporting emerging risks.
A key risk indicator (KRI) is reported to senior management on a periodic basis as exceeding thresholds, but each time senior management has decided to take no action to reduce the risk. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for senior management's response?
The underlying data source for the KRI is using inaccurate data and needs to be corrected.
The KRI is not providing useful information and should be removed from the KRI inventory.
The KRI threshold needs to be revised to better align with the organization s risk appetite
Senior management does not understand the KRI and should undergo risk training.
A key risk indicator (KRI) is a metric that measures the level and trend of a risk that may affect the organization’s objectives, operations, or performance1. A KRI threshold is a predefined value or range that indicates the acceptable or tolerable level of risk for the organization2. Theorganization’s risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that it is willing to take in order to meet its strategic goals3. Therefore, the most likely reason for senior management’s response is that the KRI threshold needs to be revised to better align with the organization’s risk appetite. This means that the current threshold is either too low or too high, resulting in false alarms or missed signals. By adjusting the threshold to reflect the organization’s risk appetite, senior management can ensure that the KRI provides relevant and actionable information for risk management and decision making. The other options are not the most likely reasons for senior management’s response, as they imply that the KRI is faulty, irrelevant, or misunderstood. The underlying data source for the KRI is using inaccurate data and needs to be corrected. This option assumes that the KRI is based on erroneous or unreliable data, which would affect its validity and reliability. However, this is not the most likely reason, as senior management would be expected to verify the data quality and accuracy before using the KRI for risk monitoring and reporting. The KRI is not providing useful information and shouldbe removed from the KRI inventory. This option assumes that the KRI is not aligned with the organization’s objectives, strategies, or risk profile, which would affect its usefulness and value. However, this is not the most likely reason, as senior management would be expected to review and update the KRI inventory periodically to ensure that the KRIs are relevant and meaningful for risk management. Senior management does not understand the KRI and should undergo risk training. This option assumes that senior management lacks the knowledge or skills to interpret and use the KRI for risk management, which would affect their competence and confidence. However, this is not the most likely reason, as senior management would be expected to have sufficient risk awareness and education to understand and apply the KRI for risk management. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.1.4, Page 53.
An organization recently invested in an identity and access management (IAM) solution to manage user activities across corporate mobile devices. Which of the following is MOST important to update in the risk register?
Inherent risk
Risk appetite
Risk tolerance
Residual risk
Residual risk is the remaining risk after implementing risk responses, such as controls or mitigation strategies. With the deployment of an IAM solution, the organization has addressed certain access-related risks. Updating the risk register to reflect the new residual risk levels ensures accurate tracking and informs future risk management decisions.
Which of the following BEST enables a risk practitioner to enhance understanding of risk among stakeholders?
Key risk indicators (KRIs)
Risk scenarios
Business impact analysis (BIA)
Threat analysis
Risk scenarios are descriptions of possible events or situations that could cause or affect a risk. Risk scenarios can help a risk practitioner to enhance understanding of risk among stakeholders, as they can illustrate the causes, consequences, and impacts of the risk in a clear and realistic way. Risk scenarios can also facilitate communication and collaboration among stakeholders, as they can provide a common language and framework for risk identification, analysis, and response. Risk scenarios can also support decision-making and prioritization, as they can show the likelihood and severity of the risk outcomes. References = Most Asked CRISC Exam Questions and Answers. CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, Question 237.
An IT department has organized training sessions to improve user awareness of organizational information security policies. Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to reflect effectiveness of the training?
Number of training sessions completed
Percentage of staff members who complete the training with a passing score
Percentage of attendees versus total staff
Percentage of staff members who attend the training with positive feedback
A key performance indicator (KPI) is a metric that reflects how well an organization is achieving its goals and objectives. A KPI should be specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound. For an IT department that has organized training sessions to improve user awareness of organizational information security policies, the best KPI to reflect the effectiveness of the training is the percentage of staff members who complete the training with a passing score. This KPI measures the level of knowledge and understanding of the security policies among the staff members, as well as the quality and impact of the training sessions. It also indicates whether the training sessions have met the predefined criteria and standards for success. A high percentage of staff members who complete the training with a passing score implies that the training sessions have been effective in improving user awareness of organizational information security policies. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.3.2, p. 117-118
Which of the following is MOST important to have in place to ensure the effectiveness of risk and security metrics reporting?
Organizational reporting process
Incident reporting procedures
Regularly scheduled audits
Incident management policy
The most important factor to have in place to ensure the effectiveness of risk and security metrics reporting is an organizational reporting process. An organizational reporting process is a set of procedures that defines the roles, responsibilities, frequency, format, and distribution of the risk and security metrics reports. An organizational reporting process helps to ensure that the risk and security metrics are relevant, accurate, consistent, and timely, and that they provide useful information for decision making and performance improvement. An organizational reporting process also helps to align the risk and security metrics reporting with the enterprise’s objectives, strategies, and policies, and to communicate the risk and security status and issues to the appropriate stakeholders. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 5, Section 5.3.2, page 2421
An organization uses one centralized single sign-on (SSO) control to cover many applications. Which of the following is the BEST course of action when a new application is added to the environment after testing of the SSO control has been completed?
Initiate a retest of the full control
Retest the control using the new application as the only sample.
Review the corresponding change control documentation
Re-evaluate the control during (he next assessment
The best course of action when a new application is added to the environment after testing of the SSO control has been completed is to initiate a retest of the full control, as it may reveal any new issues or gaps that the new application may introduce to the SSO control, and ensure that the control remains effective and adequate. Retesting the control using the new application as the only sample, reviewing the corresponding change control documentation, and re-evaluating the control during the next assessment are not the best courses of action, as they may not provide sufficient assurance, evidence, or timeliness of the control testing, respectively. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 154.
An organization outsources the processing of us payroll data A risk practitioner identifies a control weakness at the third party trial exposes the payroll data. Who should own this risk?
The third party's IT operations manager
The organization's process owner
The third party's chief risk officer (CRO)
The organization's risk practitioner
The organization’s process owner should own the risk of exposing the payroll data due to a control weakness at the third party, because the process owner is the person who is responsible for the business process that generates, uses, or transfers the payroll data. The process owner should also ensure that the third party complies with the contractual obligations and service level agreements that define the expected performance and security standards of the payroll data processing. The other options are not the correct answers, because they are not the primary owners of the risk, although they may also be involved in the risk management process. The third party’s IT operations manager, the third party’s chief risk officer (CRO), and the organization’s risk practitioner are examples of secondary owners or stakeholders of the risk, who may provide support, guidance, or oversight to the risk owner, but they are not accountable for the risk or the risk response strategy. References = CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions
Which of the following controls BEST helps to ensure that transaction data reaches its destination?
Securing the network from attacks
Providing acknowledgments from receiver to sender
Digitally signing individual messages
Encrypting data-in-transit
Providing acknowledgments from receiver to sender is a control that helps to ensure that transaction data reaches its destination, as it confirms the successful delivery of the data and allows the sender to resend the data in case of failure. Securing the network from attacks, digitally signing individual messages, and encrypting data-in-transit are controls that help toensure the integrity and confidentiality of the data, but not the availability or delivery of the data. References = CRISC by Isaca Actual Free Exam Q&As, question 199.
An employee lost a personal mobile device that may contain sensitive corporate information. What should be the risk practitioner's recommendation?
Conduct a risk analysis.
Initiate a remote data wipe.
Invoke the incident response plan
Disable the user account.
The best recommendation for a risk practitioner when an employee lost a personal mobile device that may contain sensitive corporate information is to initiate a remote data wipe. A remote data wipe is a process of erasing the data stored on a device remotely, using a command sent over anetwork or a wireless connection. A remote data wipe can help to prevent the unauthorized access, use, disclosure, or theft of the sensitive corporate information, and to minimize the potential impact of the loss on the enterprise’s reputation, operations, and compliance. A remote data wipe can also help to comply with the data breach notification laws and regulations, and to reduce the legal liability and penalties. Conducting a risk analysis, invoking the incident response plan, and disabling the user account are not as immediate and effective as initiating a remote data wipe, as they do not address the primary risk of data exposure and loss. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 217.
Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to aggregate risk assessment results from different business units?
To improve communication of risk to senior management
To compare risk profiles across the business units
To allocate budget for risk management resources
To determine overall impact to the organization
Aggregating risk assessment results helps evaluate the total exposure and provides a consolidated view of risk, supporting enterprise-wide decision-making.
During a post-implementation review for a new system, users voiced concerns about missing functionality. Which of the following is the BEST way for the organization to avoid this situation in the future?
Test system reliability and performance.
Adopt an Agile development approach.
Conduct user acceptance testing (UAT).
Adopt a phased changeover approach.
Conducting User Acceptance Testing (UAT) is the best way for an organization to avoid situations where users voice concerns about missing functionality after a system implementation.
User Acceptance Testing (UAT):
Definition:UAT involves testing the system with actual users to ensure it meets their needs and requirements. It verifies that the system performs in real-world scenarios as expected by the users.
Involvement of Users:UAT includes the end-users in the testing process, ensuring that their feedback is incorporated and that the system functionalities align with their expectations.
Benefits:
Identifying Gaps:UAT helps in identifying gaps between the delivered system and user expectations. This early detection allows for adjustments before the system goes live.
Improved Satisfaction:By involving users in the testing process, the likelihood of the system meeting their needs increases, leading to higher user satisfaction and reduced post-implementation issues.
Risk tolerance
Risk velocity
Risk appetite
Risk capacity
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Risk capacity refers to the maximum level of risk an organization can absorb or sustain without jeopardizing its viability. It is directly influenced by the organization’s financial resources and largest annualized losses it can bear. Risk appetite and risk tolerance reflect willingness and acceptable variations but are distinct from capacity, which is the hard limit on risk exposure.
It is MOST important for a risk practitioner to have an awareness of an organization s processes in order to:
perform a business impact analysis.
identify potential sources of risk.
establish risk guidelines.
understand control design.
It is most important for a risk practitioner to have an awareness of an organization’s processes in order to identify potential sources of risk, as this enables the risk practitioner to understand the objectives, activities, resources, dependencies, and outputs of the processes, and how they may be affected by internal or external factors that create uncertainty or variability. Identifying potential sources of risk is the first step in the risk identification process, which aims to find, recognize, and describe the risks that could affect the achievement of the organization’s goals. The other options are not the most important reasons for a risk practitioner to have an awareness of an organization’s processes, although they may be related or beneficial aspects of it. Performing a business impact analysis is a part of the risk analysis process, which aims to understand the nature and extent of the risks and their consequences on the organization’s objectives and functions. Establishing risk guidelines is a part of the risk governance process, which aims to define and communicate the risk management principles, policies, and roles across the organization. Understanding control design is a part of the risk response process, which aims to select and implement the appropriate actions to modify the risk level or achieve the risk objectives. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Identification, page 47.
From a risk management perspective, which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of using automated system configuration validation tools?
Residual risk is reduced.
Staff costs are reduced.
Operational costs are reduced.
Inherent risk is reduced.
From a risk management perspective, the primary benefit of using automated system configuration validation tools is that they reduce the inherent risk, which is the risk that exists before any controls are applied. Automated system configuration validation tools can help to ensure that the system settings are consistent, compliant, and secure, and that they match the predefined standards and policies. This can reduce the likelihood and impact of errors, misconfigurations, vulnerabilities, or deviations that may compromise the system’s functionality, performance, or integrity. The other options are not the primary benefits of using automated system configuration validation tools, although they may be secondary benefits or outcomes of doing so. Residual risk is the risk that remains after the controls are applied, and it may not be directly affected by the automated system configuration validation tools. Staff costs and operational costs are related to the efficiency and economy of the system configuration process, but they are not the main risk management objectives. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk Response, page 150.
An organization plans to migrate sensitive information to a public cloud infrastructure. Which of the following is the GREATEST security risk in this scenario?
Data may be commingled with other tenants' data.
System downtime does not meet the organization's thresholds.
The infrastructure will be managed by the public cloud administrator.
The cloud provider is not independently certified.
The greatest security risk in this scenario is that data may be commingled with other tenants’ data on the public cloud infrastructure. Data commingling occurs when data from different sources or customers are mixed together without proper segregation or encryption. This may result in data leakage, unauthorized access, or loss of confidentiality and integrity. Data commingling is a common challenge in public cloud environments, where multiple customers share the same physical resources and network. System downtime, infrastructure management, and cloud provider certification are also potential risks in this scenario, butthey are not as great as data commingling. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 5, Section 5.2.1.1, page 2451
1: ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC®) Exam Guide, Answer to Question 638.
Which of the following is the BEST recommendation when a key risk indicator (KRI) is generating an excessive volume of events?
Reevaluate the design of the KRIs.
Develop a corresponding key performance indicator (KPI).
Monitor KRIs within a specific timeframe.
Activate the incident response plan.
Reevaluating the design of the key risk indicators (KRIs) is the best recommendation when a KRI is generating an excessive volume of events, because it helps to determine whether the KRI is relevant, reliable, and valid, and whether it needs to be modified or replaced. A KRI is a metric or indicator that helps to monitor and evaluate the likelihood or impact of a risk, or the effectiveness or efficiency of a control. A KRI can be quantitative or qualitative, and can be derived from internal or external sources. An event is an occurrence or incident that may indicate a change or trend in the risk level or performance. A KRI that generates an excessivevolume of events may indicate that the KRI is not well-designed or well-aligned with the risk objectives or criteria, and that it may produce false positives or negatives, or irrelevant or misleading information. Therefore, reevaluating the design of the KRIs is the best recommendation, as it helps to improve the quality and usefulness of the KRIs, and to avoid unnecessary or inappropriate actions or responses. Developing a corresponding key performance indicator (KPI), monitoring KRIs within a specific timeframe, and activating the incident response plan are all possible actions to perform after reevaluating the design of the KRIs, but they are not the best recommendation, as they do not address the root cause of the excessive volume of events. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.3.2, page 97
Which of the following IT controls is MOST useful in mitigating the risk associated with inaccurate data?
Encrypted storage of data
Links to source data
Audit trails for updates and deletions
Check totals on data records and data fields
Check totals are IT controls that verify the accuracy and completeness of data by comparing the sum or count of data records or data fields with a predetermined or expected value. Check totals can help detect and prevent errors, omissions, or alterations in data entry, processing, or transmission. Check totals can also help identify and correct data discrepancies or anomalies. Therefore, check totals are the most useful IT controls in mitigating the risk associated with inaccurate data. The other options are not the best answers because they do not directly address the risk of inaccurate data. Encrypted storage of data is an IT control that protects the confidentiality and integrity of data by preventing unauthorized access or modification. However, encryption does not ensure the accuracy or validity of the data itself. Links to source data are IT controls that provide traceability and transparency of data by allowing users to access or view the original data from which the derived or aggregated data is obtained. However, links to source data do not verify or correct the data quality or consistency. Audit trails for updates and deletions are IT controls that record thehistory and changes of data by capturing the date, time, user, and action performed on the data. Audit trails can help monitor and review the data activities and transactions, but they do not prevent or detect the data errors or inaccuracies. References = CRISC Review Manual, pages 164-1651; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, page 722
Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of creating and documenting control procedures?
To facilitate ongoing audit and control testing
To help manage risk to acceptable tolerance levels
To establish and maintain a control inventory
To increase the likelihood of effective control operation
The primary purpose of creating and documenting control procedures is to help manage risk to acceptable tolerance levels. Control procedures are the specific actions or steps that are performed to achieve the control objectives and mitigate the risks. Control procedures should be documented to provide clear guidance, consistency, and accountability for the control activities. Documenting control procedures also helps to monitor and evaluate the effectiveness andefficiency of the controls, and to identify and address any gaps or weaknesses. The other options are not the primary purpose of creating and documenting control procedures, although they may be secondary benefits or outcomes. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1, Section 1.3.2, page 1-15.
Which of the following would BEST facilitate the implementation of data classification requirements?
Assigning a data owner
Scheduling periodic audits
Implementing technical controls over the assets
Implementing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution
Assigning a data owner ensures accountability and responsibility for classifying and protecting data according to its sensitivity. This role is critical in implementing effectiveData Governance Practices.
Which of the following presents the GREATEST challenge to managing an organization's end-user devices?
Incomplete end-user device inventory
Unsupported end-user applications
Incompatible end-user devices
Multiple end-user device models
The greatest challenge to managing an organization’s end-user devices is having an incomplete end-user device inventory. An end-user device inventory is a document that records and tracks all the devices that are owned, used, or managed by the organization’s end-users, such as laptops, tablets, smartphones, etc. An end-user device inventory helps to identify and classify the devices based on their type, model, location, owner, status, etc. An end-user device inventory also helps to monitor and control the devices, such as enforcing security policies, applying patches and updates, detecting and resolving issues, etc. Having an incomplete end-user device inventory could lead to a lack of visibility and accountability for the devices, which could increase the risk of data loss, theft, or compromise, as well as the cost and complexity of device management. The other options are not as challenging as having an incomplete end-user device inventory, although they may also pose some difficulties or limitations for the device management. Unsupported end-user applications, incompatible end-user devices, and multiple end-user device models are all factors that could affect the functionality and compatibility of the devices, but they do notnecessarily affect the visibility and accountability of the devices. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.2.1, page 3-11.
Which of the following is the BEST approach to use when creating a comprehensive set of IT risk scenarios?
Derive scenarios from IT risk policies and standards.
Map scenarios to a recognized risk management framework.
Gather scenarios from senior management.
Benchmark scenarios against industry peers.
IT risk scenarios are the descriptions or representations of the possible or hypothetical situations or events that may cause or result in an IT risk for the organization. IT risk scenarios usually consist of three elements: a threat or source of harm, a vulnerability or weakness, and an impact or consequence.
The best approach to use when creating a comprehensive set of IT risk scenarios is to map scenarios to a recognized risk management framework, which is an established or recognized model or standard that provides the principles, guidelines, and best practices for the organization’s IT risk management function. Mapping scenarios to a recognized risk management framework can help the organization to create a comprehensive set of IT risk scenarios by providing the following benefits:
It can ensure that the IT risk scenarios are relevant, appropriate, and proportional to the organization’s IT objectives and needs, and that they support the organization’s IT strategy and culture.
It can ensure that the IT risk scenarios are consistent and compatible with the organization’s IT governance, risk management, and control functions, and that they reflect the organization’s IT risk appetite and tolerance.
It can provide useful references and benchmarks for the identification, analysis, evaluation, and communication of the IT risk scenarios, and for the alignment and integration of the IT risk scenarios with the organization’s IT risk policies and standards.
The other options are not the best approaches to use when creating a comprehensive set of IT risk scenarios, because they do not provide the same level of detail and insight that mapping scenarios to a recognized risk management framework provides, and they may not be specific or applicable to the organization’s IT objectives and needs.
Deriving scenarios from IT risk policies and standards means creating or generating the IT risk scenarios based on the rules or guidelines that define and describe the organization’s IT risk management function, and that specify the expectations and requirements for the organization’s IT risk management function. Deriving scenarios from IT risk policies and standards can help the organization to create a consistent and compliant set of IT risk scenarios, but it is not the best approach, because it may not cover all the relevant or significant IT risks that may affect the organization, and it may not support the organization’s IT strategy and culture.
Gathering scenarios from senior management means collecting or obtaining the IT risk scenarios from the senior management or executives that oversee or direct the organization’s IT activities or functions. Gathering scenarios from senior management can help the organization to create a high-level and strategic set of IT risk scenarios, but it is not the best approach, because it may not reflect the operational or technical aspects of the IT risks, and it may not involve the input or feedback from the other stakeholders or parties that are involved or responsible for the IT activities or functions.
Benchmarking scenarios against industry peers means comparing and contrasting the IT risk scenarios with those of other organizations or industry standards, and identifying the strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, or threats that may affect the organization’s IT objectives oroperations. Benchmarking scenarios against industry peers can help the organization to create a competitive and innovative set of IT risk scenarios, but it is not the best approach, because it may not be relevant or appropriate for the organization’s IT objectives and needs, and it may not comply with the organization’s IT policies and standards. References =
ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, pp. 19-20, 23-24, 27-28, 31-32, 40-41, 47-48, 54-55, 58-59, 62-63
ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 199
CRISC Practice Quiz and Exam Prep
Which of the following is the PRIMARY responsibility of the first line of defense related to computer-enabled fraud?
Providing oversight of risk management processes
Implementing processes to detect and deter fraud
Ensuring that risk and control assessments consider fraud
Monitoring the results of actions taken to mitigate fraud
Computer-enabled fraud is the use of information technology (IT) to commit or conceal fraudulent activities, such as theft, manipulation, or unauthorized access of data, systems, or networks. Computer-enabled fraud can pose significant risks to an organization, such as financial loss, reputational damage, legal liability, or regulatory sanctions. Therefore, an organization should establish a comprehensive and effective framework to prevent, detect, and respond to computer-enabled fraud. The framework should involve three lines of defense, which are theroles and responsibilities of different functions within theorganization to manage and control risks. The first line of defense consists of the business owners, whose role is to identify, assess, and manage risks, including computer-enabled fraud risks. The primary responsibility of the first line of defense related to computer-enabled fraud is to implement processes to detect and deter fraud. This means designing and executing controls that can prevent or reduce the occurrence of computer-enabled fraud, such as authentication, authorization, encryption, logging, orsegregation of duties. This also means monitoring and reporting any suspicious or anomalous activities or transactions that may indicate computer-enabled fraud, such as unusual patterns, volumes, or frequencies of data or system access or usage. Implementing processes to detect and deter fraud can help the first line of defense to protect the organization’s assets, data, and reputation from computer-enabled fraud, and to comply with the organization’s policies and regulations. References = Three Lines of Defence, Roles of Three Lines of Defense for Information Security and Governance, THE THREE LINES OF DEFENSE IN EFFECTIVE RISK MANAGEMENT AND CONTROL, The Three Lines of Defense.
During the risk assessment of an organization that processes credit cards, a number of existing controls have been found to be ineffective and do not meet industry standards. The overall control environment may still be effective if:
compensating controls are in place.
a control mitigation plan is in place.
risk management is effective.
residual risk is accepted.
Compensating controls are additional or alternative controls that are implemented when the existing controls are found to be ineffective or do not meet the required standards. Compensating controls are designed to reduce the risk exposure to an acceptable level and ensure that the organization can still comply with the relevant regulations and industry best practices. For an organization that processes credit cards, compensating controls may include enhanced encryption, monitoring, auditing, or authentication mechanisms. By having compensating controls in place, the organization can maintain an effective overall control environment despitethe deficiencies in the existing controls. The other options are not correct because they do not ensure that the overall control environment is effective. A control mitigation plan is a document that outlines the actions and resources needed to address the control deficiencies, but it does not guarantee that the compensating controls will be implemented or effective. Risk management is a process that involves identifying, analyzing, evaluating, and treating risks, but it does not directly affect the control environment. Residual risk is the risk that remains after the risk treatment, and it may or may not be acceptable depending on the risk appetite of the organization. References = CRISC Review Manual, pages 153-1541; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, page 632
Which of the following presents the GREATEST security risk associated with Internet of Things (IoT) technology?
The inability to monitor via network management solutions
The lack of relevant IoT security frameworks to guide the risk assessment process
The heightened level of IoT threats via the widespread use of smart devices
The lack of updates for vulnerable firmware
Vulnerable firmware that lacks updates is a significant security risk, as it can be exploited by attackers. Addressing this issue aligns withSecure IoT Deployment Practicesto reduce exposure.
The PRIMARY goal of conducting a business impact analysis (BIA) as part of an overall continuity planning process is to:
obtain the support of executive management.
map the business processes to supporting IT and other corporate resources.
identify critical business processes and the degree of reliance on support services.
document the disaster recovery process.
The primary goal of conducting a business impact analysis (BIA) as part of an overall continuity planning process is to identify critical business processes and the degree of reliance on support services. A BIA is a process of assessing the potential impact and consequences of a disruption or interruption of the business activities, operations, or functions. A continuity planning processis a process of developing, implementing, and maintaining a plan to ensure the continuity and recovery of the business activities, operations, or functions in the event of a disruption or interruption. The primary goal of conducting a BIA is to identify critical business processes and the degree of reliance on support services, which are the business processes that are essential for the survival and success of the business, and the support services that are required to enable or facilitate the critical business processes, such as IT systems, human resources, facilities, or suppliers. Identifying critical business processes and the degree of reliance on support services helps to determine the priorities and requirements for the continuity and recovery of the business activities, operations, or functions, and to select and implement the appropriate continuity andrecovery strategies and solutions. Obtaining the support of executive management, mapping the business processes to supporting IT and other corporate resources, and documenting the disaster recovery process are not the primary goals of conducting a BIA, as they are either the benefits or the outputs of the BIA process, and they do not address the primary need of assessing the impact and consequences of the business disruption or interruption. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 50.
Which of the following is MOST important to consider when determining the value of an asset during the risk identification process?
The criticality of the asset
The monetary value of the asset
The vulnerability profile of the asset
The size of the asset's user base
The criticality of the asset is the most important factor to consider when determining the value of an asset during the risk identification process, because it reflects the importance or significance of the asset to the organization’s objectives or functions, and the potential impact or consequence of losing or compromising the asset. An asset is a resource or capability that has value to the organization, such as data, systems, applications, infrastructure, or people. The value of an asset is a measure of the worth or benefit of the asset to the organization, and the cost or loss of the asset to the organization. The risk identification process is a process of systematically identifying the sources and types of risk that an organization faces, and estimating their likelihood and impact. The criticality of the asset is the most important factor, as it helps to prioritize and focus on the assets that have the highest value and impact, and to determine the appropriate level of protection and investment for the assets. The monetary value of the asset, the vulnerability profile of the asset, and the size of the asset’s user base are all possible factors to consider when determining the value of an asset, but they are not the most important factor, as they do not directly reflect the criticality of the asset to the organization’s objectives or functions. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.2.1, page 83
Which of the following BEST enables risk-based decision making in support of a business continuity plan (BCP)?
Impact analysis
Control analysis
Root cause analysis
Threat analysis
The best tool to enable risk-based decision making in support of a business continuity plan (BCP) is an impact analysis. An impact analysis is a process of identifying and evaluating the potential effects of an interruption or disruption of business operations on the organization’scritical functions, processes, and resources. An impact analysis can help to determine the recovery priorities, objectives, and strategies forthe BCP. Control analysis, root cause analysis, and threat analysis are other possible tools, but they are not as effective as an impact analysis. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 12; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 215.
Which of the following would BEST enable mitigation of newly identified risk factors related to internet of Things (loT)?
Introducing control procedures early in the life cycle
Implementing loT device software monitoring
Performing periodic risk assessments of loT
Performing secure code reviews
The BEST way to enable mitigation of newly identified risk factors related to internet of Things (loT) is to introduce control procedures early in the life cycle, because it can help to prevent or reduce the occurrence or impact of the risk factors, and to ensure that the loT devices and systems are designed and developed with security and quality in mind. The control procedures should include requirements analysis, design review, testing, validation, and verification of the loT devices and systems. The other options are not as effective as introducing control procedures early in the life cycle, because:
Option B: Implementing loT device software monitoring is a good way to detect and respond to the risk factors related to loT, but it does not enable mitigation of the risk factors, which is the proactive and preventive approach. Software monitoring is a reactive and corrective measure that may not be able to prevent or reduce the occurrence or impact of the risk factors, especially if they are embedded in the hardware or firmware of the loT devices.
Option C: Performing periodic risk assessments of loT is a necessary way to identify and evaluate the risk factors related to loT, but it does not enable mitigation of the risk factors, which is the action-oriented and solution-focused approach. Risk assessment is an analytical and descriptive process that may not provide the specific and effective measures to address or mitigate the risk factors, especially if they are complex or dynamic.
Option D: Performing secure code reviews is a useful way to verify and improve the security and quality of the software of the loT devices and systems, but it does not enable mitigation of the risk factors related to loT, which may involve more than just the software aspect. The risk factors related to loT may also include the hardware, firmware, network, communication, data, andintegration aspects, which may not be covered or resolved by the code reviews. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, ISACA, 2020, p. 214.
An upward trend in which of the following metrics should be of MOST concern?
Number of business change management requests
Number of revisions to security policy
Number of security policy exceptions approved
Number of changes to firewall rules
A security policy exception is a deviation from the established security policy that is granted to an individual or a group for a specific purpose or period of time. A security policy exception may be necessary when the security policy is too restrictive, outdated, or incompatible with the business requirements or objectives. However, a security policy exception also introduces a risk to the organization, as it may weaken the security posture, expose the organization to threats orvulnerabilities, or violate the compliance or regulatory obligations. Therefore, an upward trend in the number of security policy exceptions approved should be of most concern, as it indicates that the security policy is not effective or aligned with the organization’s needs and goals, and that the organization is accepting more risk than desired. The other options are not as concerning as the number of security policy exceptions approved, because they do not imply a direct or immediate risk to the organization, but rather reflect the normal or expected activities of the security management process, as explained below:
A. Number of business change management requests is a metric that measures the volume and frequency of the requests to modify the business processes, systems, or functions. An upward trend in this metric may indicate that the organization is undergoing a transformation, innovation, or improvement, which may have positive or negative impacts on the organization’s performance and security. However, this metric does not necessarily imply a risk to the organization, as the change management requests may be properly assessed, approved, and implemented, following the established change management procedures and controls.
B. Number of revisions to security policy is a metric that measures the amount and extent of the changes made to the security policy over time. An upward trend in this metric may indicate that the security policy is being updated, refined, or enhanced, which may improve or maintain the security posture and compliance of the organization. However, this metric does not necessarily imply a risk to the organization, as the revisions to the security policy may be based on the best practices, standards, and expectations for security management, and may be communicated and enforced effectively across the organization.
D. Number of changes to firewall rules is a metric that measures the number and type of the modifications made to the firewall configuration, which controls the incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predefined rules. An upward trend in this metric may indicate that the firewall is being adjusted, optimized, or customized, which may increase or decrease the firewall performance and security. However, this metric does not necessarily imply a risk to the organization, as the changes to the firewall rules may be justified, authorized, and validated,following the established firewall management procedures and controls. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.1, page 115. Security Policy Exceptions: What Are They and How to Manage Them, Security Policy Exceptions: How to Handle Them in a Secure Manner, Security Policy Exceptions: A Necessary Evil?
Which of the following is the BEST approach for determining whether a risk action plan is effective?
Comparing the remediation cost against budget
Assessing changes in residual risk
Assessing the inherent risk
Monitoring changes of key performance indicators(KPIs)
According to the CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), assessing changes in residual risk is the best approach for determining whether a risk action plan is effective, as it measures the impact and value of the risk response actions and controls on the risk level. Residual risk is the risk that remains after the risk response actions and controls have been implemented. Assessing changes in residual risk helps to:
Evaluate the extent to which the risk response actions and controls have reduced the likelihood and/or impact of the risk to an acceptable level
Identify and report any deviations, errors, or weaknesses in the risk response actions and controls and their performance
Recommend and implement corrective actions or improvement measures to address any issues or deficiencies in the risk response actions and controls
Monitor and measure the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk response actions and controls and their alignment with the organization’s risk appetite and risk tolerance
Update the risk register and the risk treatment plan to reflect the current risk status and the residual risk levels
References = CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3: IT Risk Response, Section 3.2: Risk Response Process, pp. 161-1621
Which of the following should be a risk practitioner's NEXT step upon learning the impact of an organization's noncompliance with a specific legal regulation?
Identify risk response options.
Implement compensating controls.
Invoke the incident response plan.
Document the penalties for noncompliance.
The next step is toidentify risk response optionsto address the noncompliance and mitigate its impact. This may include corrective actions, implementing controls, or negotiating terms to reduce exposure.
The patch management process is MOST effectively monitored through which of the following key control indicators (KCIs)?
Number of legacy servers out of support
Percentage of patches deployed within the target time frame
Number of patches deployed outside of business hours
Percentage of patched systems tested
Monitoring the percentage of patches deployed within the target time frame is a critical key control indicator for the patch management process. It reflects the organization's ability to apply necessary updates promptly, reducing exposure to known vulnerabilities. Timely patch deployment is essential for maintaining system security and compliance with organizational policies.
When is the BEST to identify risk associated with major project to determine a mitigation plan?
Project execution phase
Project initiation phase
Project closing phase
Project planning phase
The best time to identify the risk associated with a major project to determine a mitigation plan is the project initiation phase. The project initiation phase is the first phase of the project management process, where the project is defined, authorized, and planned. The project initiation phase includes the activities of developing the project charter, identifying the stakeholders, and defining the scope and objectives of the project. The project initiation phase is the best time to identify the risk associated with the project, as it provides the opportunity to understand the project context, requirements, and expectations, and to establish the risk management framework, process, and plan. By identifying the risk early in the project, the mitigation plan can be integrated with the project plan, and the resources, budget, and schedule can be allocated accordingly. The other options are not as optimal as the project initiation phase, as they are related to the execution, closing, or planning of the project, not the definition or authorization of the project. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1: IT Risk Identification, Section 1.1: IT Risk Management Process, page 15.
A company has located its computer center on a moderate earthquake fault. Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when establishing a contingency plan and an alternate processing site?
The contingency plan provides for backup media to be taken to the alternative site.
The contingency plan for high priority applications does not involve a shared cold site.
The alternative site is a hot site with equipment ready to resume processing immediately.
The alternative site does not reside on the same fault no matter how far the distance apart.
The most important consideration when establishing a contingency plan and an alternate processing site for a company that has located its computer center on a moderate earthquake fault is that the alternative site does not reside on the same fault no matter how far the distance apart, as it ensures that the alternative site is not affected by the same earthquake event that may disrupt the primary site, and that the business continuity and recovery objectives can be met. The other options are not the most important considerations, as they are more related to the backup, priority, or readiness of the alternative site, respectively, rather than the location of the alternative site. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 111.
The PRIMARY objective of collecting information and reviewing documentation when performing periodic risk analysis should be to:
Identify new or emerging risk issues.
Satisfy audit requirements.
Survey and analyze historical risk data.
Understand internal and external threat agents.
The primary objective of collecting information and reviewing documentation when performing periodic risk analysis is to identify new or emerging risk issues that may affect the enterprise’s objectives, processes, or resources. This helps to update the risk profile and prioritize the risk responses accordingly. Satisfying audit requirements, surveying and analyzing historical risk data, and understanding internal and external threat agents are secondary objectives that support the primary objective of risk identification. References = Risk IT Framework, 2nd Edition, page 22; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 64.
An organization has been experiencing an increasing number of spear phishing attacks Which of the following would be the MOST effective way to mitigate the risk associated with these attacks?
Update firewall configuration
Require strong password complexity
implement a security awareness program
Implement two-factor authentication
A spear phishing attack is a type of cyberattack that targets a specific individual or organization with a fraudulent email that appears to be from a trusted source, and attempts to trick the recipient into clicking amalicious link, opening a malicious attachment, or providing sensitive information. A spear phishing attack can compromise the security, confidentiality, integrity, or availability of the information systems and data of the individual or organization. The most effective way to mitigate the risk associated with spear phishing attacks is to implement a security awareness program, which is a program that educates and trains the employees and stakeholders of the organization about the security policies, procedures, and best practices, and the potential threats and risks that may affect the organization. A security awareness program can help to prevent or reduce the success of spear phishing attacks, as it can increase the knowledge and skills of the employees and stakeholders to recognize and avoid the fraudulent emails, and to report and respond to any suspicious or malicious activities. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 181.
Develop policies with less restrictive requirements to ensure consistency across the organization.
Develop a global policy to be applied uniformly by each country.
Develop country-specific policies to address local regulations.
Develop a global policy that accommodates country-specific requirements.
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
A global policy that accommodates country-specific requirements balances consistency and compliance. It establishes a baseline of controls while allowing adaptation to local laws and cultural differences. Uniform application without adaptation risks non-compliance. Country-specific policies alone may lack global coherence. Therefore, accommodating local requirements within a global policy framework is best practice.
Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of implementing key control indicators (KCIs)?
Confirming the adequacy of recovery plans.
Improving compliance with control standards.
Providing early detection of control degradation.
Reducing the number of incidents.
Key Control Indicators (KCIs) are metrics used to monitor the performance of controls. Their primary benefit is the early detection of control degradation, allowing organizations to take corrective actions before issues escalate into significant problems.
Which of the following would BEST help to ensure that identified risk is efficiently managed?
Reviewing the maturity of the control environment
Regularly monitoring the project plan
Maintaining a key risk indicator for each asset in the risk register
Periodically reviewing controls per the risk treatment plan
According to the CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), periodically reviewing controls per the risk treatment plan would best help to ensure that identified risk is efficiently managed, as it involves verifying the effectiveness and efficiency of the implemented risk response actions and identifying any gaps or changes in the risk profile. Periodically reviewing controls per the risk treatment plan helps to:
Confirm that the controls are operating as intended and producing the desired outcomes
Detect any deviations, errors, or weaknesses in the controls and their performance
Evaluate the adequacy and appropriateness of the controls in relation to the current risk environment and the organization’s risk appetite and risk tolerance
Recommend and implement corrective actions or improvement measures to address any issues or deficiencies in the controls
Update the risk register and the risk treatment plan to reflect the current risk status and the residual risk levels
References = CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 4: IT Risk Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.1: IT Risk Monitoring, pp. 215-2161
Average time to contain security incidents
Percentage of systems being monitored
Number of false positives reported
Number of personnel dedicated to security monitoring
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
The average time to contain security incidents directly reflects how quickly and effectively an organization can respond to cybersecurity threats, which is a critical measure of the program’s effectiveness. Other options like percentage of systems monitored or number of personnel indicate resources or scope but do not measure outcome or effectiveness. False positives may indicate detection issues but are less tied to program effectiveness than incident containment time.
Which of the following would qualify as a key performance indicator (KPI)?
Aggregate risk of the organization
Number of identified system vulnerabilities
Number of exception requests processed in the past 90 days
Number of attacks against the organization's website
A key performance indicator (KPI) is a measurable value that demonstrates how effectively an organization is achieving its key objectives. A KPI should be relevant, specific, measurable, achievable, and time-bound. The number of identified system vulnerabilities is a KPI that measures the security posture and performance of the organization’s information systems. It also helps to identify the areas that need improvement or remediation. The number of identified system vulnerabilities is relevant to the organization’s objective of protecting its information assets, specific to the system level, measurable by using tools or methods, achievable by implementing security controls or practices, and time-bound by setting a target or threshold. Aggregate risk of the organization, number of exception requests processed in the past 90 days, and number of attacks against the organization’s website are not KPIs, as they are either too broad, not relevant, or not measurable. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 4, Section 4.1.1.1, page 1741
1: ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC®) Exam Guide, Answer to Question 647.
The PRIMARY purpose of vulnerability assessments is to:
provide clear evidence that the system is sufficiently secure.
determine the impact of potential threats.
test intrusion detection systems (IDS) and response procedures.
detect weaknesses that could lead to system compromise.
The primary purpose of vulnerability assessments is to detect weaknesses that could lead to system compromise. A vulnerability assessment is a systematic review of security weaknesses in an information system. It evaluates if the system is susceptible to any known vulnerabilities, assigns severity levels to those vulnerabilities, and recommends remediation or mitigation, if and whenever needed1. By identifying and prioritizing the vulnerabilities, a vulnerability assessment helps to prevent or reduce the risk of cyberattacks that could exploit the vulnerabilities and compromise the system. The other options are not the primary purpose, but they may be secondary or tertiary outcomes or benefits of a vulnerability assessment. Providing clear evidence that the system is sufficiently secure is a result of a successful vulnerability assessment and remediation process, but it is not the main objective. Determining the impact of potential threats is a part of the risk assessment process, which complements the vulnerability assessment process, but it is not the same as detecting the vulnerabilities. Testing intrusion detection systems (IDS) and response procedures is a part of the penetration testing process, which simulates a real-world attack on the system to evaluate its security posture, but it is not the same as scanning the system for vulnerabilities. References = What is Vulnerability Assessment | VA Tools and Best Practices - Imperva
An organization uses a vendor to destroy hard drives. Which of the following would BEST reduce the risk of data leakage?
Require the vendor to degauss the hard drives
Implement an encryption policy for the hard drives.
Require confirmation of destruction from the IT manager.
Use an accredited vendor to dispose of the hard drives.
Data leakage is the unauthorized or accidental disclosure of sensitive or confidential data to unauthorized parties. Data leakage can cause serious damages or losses to the organization, such as data breaches, fines, lawsuits, reputational harm, or loss of customer trust. Data leakage can occur due to various reasons, such as human errors, malicious attacks, or inadequate controls1.
An organization that uses a vendor to destroy hard drives faces a risk of data leakage, as the vendor may not properly or securely destroy the hard drives, or may access or misuse the data stored on them. The best way to reduce this risk is to use an accredited vendor to dispose of the hard drives, because it means that the vendor:
Has been certified or verified by a reputable or recognized authority or organization, such as ISACA, NAID, or R2, to provide hard drive destruction services
Follows the industry standards and best practices for hard drive destruction, such as NIST 800-88 or DoD 5220.22-M, and ensures the compliance with the legal and regulatory requirements, such as HIPAA, PCI DSS, or GDPR
Provides a secure and transparent process for hard drive destruction, such as using a specialized shredder, issuing a certificate of destruction, or allowing the customer to witness the destruction
Maintains a high level of professionalism and integrity, and does not compromise the confidentiality or security of the customer’s data234
The other options are not the best ways to reduce the risk of data leakage, but rather some of the steps or aspects of hard drive destruction. Require the vendor to degauss the hard drives is a step that can help to erase the data on the hard drives by using a strong magnetic field. However,degaussing may not be effective or reliable for some types of hard drives, such as solid state drives (SSDs), and it may not prevent the vendor from accessing or misusing the data before degaussing5. Implement an encryption policy for the hard drives is an aspect that can help to protect the data on the hard drives by using a cryptographic algorithm to make it unreadable without a key. However, encryption may not be sufficient or applicable for some types of data, such as metadata, and it may not prevent the vendor from accessing or misusing the key or the encrypted data6. Require confirmation of destruction from the IT manager is a step that can help to verify that the hard drives have been destroyed by the vendor, and to document the process and the outcome. However, confirmation of destruction may not be accurate or authentic, and it may not prevent the vendor from accessing or misusing the data before destruction7. References =
Data Leakage - ISACA
Hard Drive Shredding Services | Hard Drive Destruction & Disposal
Hard Drive Shredding and Destruction Service | CompuCycle
Electronic Destruction & Recycling | Shred Nations
Degaussing - ISACA
Encryption - ISACA
Certificate of Destruction - ISACA
[CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition]
An organization has outsourced its customer management database to an external service provider. Of the following, who should be accountable for ensuring customer data privacy?
The organization's business process owner
The organization's information security manager
The organization's vendor management officer
The vendor's risk manager
Which of the following provides the BEST measurement of an organization's risk management maturity level?
Level of residual risk
The results of a gap analysis
IT alignment to business objectives
Key risk indicators (KRIs)
Risk management maturity level is the degree to which an organization has developed and implemented a systematic and proactive approach to managing the risks that it faces across its various functions, processes, and activities. Risk management maturity level reflects the organization’s risk culture and capability, and its alignment with its objectives and strategies1.
The best measurement of an organization’s risk management maturity level is the key risk indicators (KRIs), which are metrics or measures that provide information on the current or potential exposure and performance of the organization in relation to specific risks. KRIs can help to:
Monitor and track the changes or trends in the risk level and the risk response over time
Identify and alert the risk issues or events that require attention or action
Evaluate and report the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk management processes and practices
Support and inform the risk decision making and improvement23
KRIs can be classified into different types, such as:
Leading KRIs, which are forward-looking and predictive, and indicate the likelihood or probability of a risk event occurring in the future
Lagging KRIs, which are backward-looking and descriptive, and indicate the impact or consequence of a risk event that has already occurred
Quantitative KRIs, which are numerical or measurable, and indicate the magnitude or severity of a risk event or outcome
Qualitative KRIs, which are descriptive or subjective, and indicate the nature or characteristics of a risk event or outcome4
The other options are not the best measurements of an organization’s risk management maturity level, but rather some of the factors or outcomes of it. Level of residual risk is the level of risk that remains after the risk response has been implemented. Level of residual risk reflects the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk response, and the need for further action or monitoring. The results of a gap analysis are the differences between the current and the desired state of the risk management processes and practices. The results of a gap analysis reflect the completeness and coverage of the risk management activities, and the areas for improvement or enhancement. IT alignment to business objectives is the extent to which IT supports and enables the achievement of the organization’s goals and strategies. IT alignment to business objectives reflects the integration and coordination of the IT and business functions, and the optimization of the IT value and performance. References =
Risk Maturity Assessment Explained | Risk Maturity Model
Key Risk Indicators - ISACA
Key Risk Indicators: What They Are and How to Use Them
Key Risk Indicators: Types and Examples
[CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition]
Which of the following is the MOST essential characteristic of a good IT risk scenario?
The scenario is aligned to business control processes.
The scenario is aligned to the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance.
The scenario is aligned to a business objective.
The scenario is aligned to known vulnerabilities in information technology.
A good IT risk scenario must be aligned with a business objective. This alignment ensures that the risk scenario is relevant to the organization’s goals and can be effectively integrated into its risk management processes.
Alignment to Business Objective (Answer C):
Importance: Aligning risk scenarios with business objectives ensures that they are relevant and support the organization’s overall strategy.
Impact: This alignment helps in prioritizing risk management efforts and resources toward areas that directly affect the organization’s success.
Outcome: It leads to more effective risk management by focusing on risks that could impact key business outcomes.
Comparison with Other Options:
A. The scenario is aligned to business control processes:
Purpose: Control processes are important but secondary to business objectives.
B. The scenario is aligned to the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance:
Purpose: Important for overall risk management but not the primary characteristic of a good risk scenario.
D. The scenario is aligned to known vulnerabilities in information technology:
Purpose: While addressing vulnerabilities is important, the primary focus should be on how these vulnerabilities affect business objectives.
A cote data center went offline abruptly for several hours affecting many transactions across multiple locations. Which of the to" owing would provide the MOST useful information to determine mitigating controls?
Forensic analysis
Risk assessment
Root cause analysis
Business impact analysis (BlA)
The most useful information to determine mitigating controls when a core data center went offline abruptly for several hours affecting many transactions across multiple locations is the root cause analysis. Root cause analysis is a technique that identifies the underlying factors or reasons that caused the problem or incident. Root cause analysis can help to understand the nature, scope,and impact of the problem or incident, and to prevent or reduce the recurrence or severity of the problem or incident in the future. Root cause analysis can also help to identify and prioritize the appropriate mitigating controls that address the root causes of the problem or incident. The other options are not as useful as root cause analysis, as they are related to the investigation, evaluation, or measurement of the problem or incident, not the resolution or prevention of the problem or incident. References = Risk and Information Systems ControlStudy Manual, Chapter 4: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.4: Key Control Indicators, page 211.
Risk management strategies are PRIMARILY adopted to:
take necessary precautions for claims and losses.
achieve acceptable residual risk levels.
avoid risk for business and IT assets.
achieve compliance with legal requirements.
According to the CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), risk management strategies are primarily adopted to achieve acceptable residual risk levels, which are the remaining risk levels after implementing risk response actions. Residual risk levels should be aligned with the organization’s risk appetite and risk tolerance, which are the amount and type of risk that the organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives and the acceptable variation in outcomes related to specific performance measures linked to objectives. Risk management strategies are the approaches or methods used to address risks, such as avoidance, mitigation, transfer, sharing, or acceptance. Risk management strategies should be based on a cost-benefit analysis of the alternatives available and the value of the assets at risk.
References = CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3: IT Risk Response, Section 3.3: Risk Response Options, pp. 166-1691
Which of the following is MOST helpful in aligning IT risk with business objectives?
Introducing an approved IT governance framework
Integrating the results of top-down risk scenario analyses
Performing a business impact analysis (BlA)
Implementing a risk classification system
Integrating the results of top-down risk scenario analyses is the most helpful in aligning IT risk with business objectives, as it helps to identify and prioritize the IT-related risks that could affect the achievement of the business goals and strategies. A top-down risk scenario analysis is a method of risk assessment that starts from the business perspective and considers the potential impact and likelihood of various risk events on the business outcomes and performance. A top-down risk scenario analysis can help to align IT risk with business objectives by providing the following benefits:
It ensures that the IT risk assessment is driven by the business needs and priorities, rather than by the IT technical details or assumptions.
It enables a holistic and comprehensive view of the IT risk landscape and its interdependencies with the business processes and functions.
It facilitates the communication and collaboration among the business and IT stakeholders and enhances their understanding and awareness of the IT risk exposure and control environment.
It supports the development and implementation of effective and efficient IT risk response and mitigation strategies that are aligned with the business risk appetite and objectives.
The other options are not the most helpful in aligning IT risk with business objectives. Introducing an approved IT governance framework is a good practice to establish the principles, policies, and processes for the governance of IT, but it does not directly address the IT riskalignment with the business objectives. Performing a business impact analysis (BIA) is an important step to assess the potential consequences of IT disruptions on the business operations and continuity, but it does not provide information on the likelihood or sources of the IT risk events. Implementing a risk classification system is a useful tool to categorize and organize the IT risks based on their characteristics and attributes, but it does not link the IT risks with the business objectives or outcomes. References = Risk Scenarios Toolkit - ISACA, IT Risk Resources | ISACA, How to reduce risk by aligning business strategy and IT strategy - QuoStar
A risk practitioner is MOST likely to use a SWOT analysis to assist with which risk process?
Risk assessment
Risk reporting
Risk mitigation
Risk identification
SWOT analysis (Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, Threats) is used in the riskidentification phase to comprehensively analyze the organization's internal and externalenvironments. By understanding strengths and weaknesses, internal risks can be identified, while opportunities and threats help to identify external risks. This method provides a foundation for proactive risk management.
A risk assessment has identified increased losses associated with an IT risk scenario. It is MOST important for the risk practitioner to:
update the risk rating.
reevaluate inherent risk.
develop new risk scenarios.
implement additional controls.
The most important action for the risk practitioner to take when a risk assessment has identified increased losses associated with an IT risk scenario is to update the risk rating. A risk rating is a measure of the overall level of risk, based on the combination of the probability and impact of the risk scenario. A risk rating helps to prioritize the risks, communicate the risk exposure, and monitor the risk response. Updating the risk rating is the most important action, because it reflects the current state and magnitude of the risk, and it triggers the review and revision of the risk response plan, if needed. Updating the risk rating also ensures that the risk register and the risk profile are accurate and complete, and that the risk management process is consistent and effective. The other options are not the most important action, although they may be related or subsequent steps in the risk management process. Reevaluating inherent risk is a part of the risk analysis process, which estimates the probability and impact of the risk scenario before considering the existing controls. Reevaluating inherent risk can help to identify the root causes and drivers of the risk, and to assess the effectiveness and efficiency of the controls, but it does not change the overall level of risk or the risk response plan. Developing new risk scenarios is a part of the risk identification process, which identifies and describes the potential events or situations that could affect the achievement of the objectives. Developing new risk scenarios can help to expand the scope and coverage of the risk management process, and to address the emerging or changing risks, but it does not update the existing risk scenarios or the risk response plan. Implementing additional controls is a part of the risk response process, which selects and executes the appropriate actions to reduce, avoid, share, or exploit the risk. Implementing additional controls can help to mitigate the risk and achieve the desired risk level, but it is not the first or the only option, as it depends on the risk appetite, tolerance, and capacity of the organization, and the cost-benefit analysis of the controls. References = Risk Register Template and Examples | Prioritize and Manage Risk, How to Write Strong Risk Scenarios and Statements - ISACA, IT Risk Resources | ISACA
Which of the following will BEST help to ensure key risk indicators (KRIs) provide value to risk owners?
Ongoing training
Timely notification
Return on investment (ROI)
Cost minimization
The best way to ensure key risk indicators (KRIs) provide value to risk owners is to provide timely notification of the changes in the risk exposure. KRIs are metrics that provide an early warning of increasing risk exposure in various areas of the organization. By providing timely notification of the KRI values, the risk owners can be alerted of the risk situation and take appropriate actions to manage the risk. Ongoing training, return on investment (ROI), and cost minimization are other possible ways to ensure KRIs provide value, but they are not as effective as timely notification. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 10; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 140.
Which of the following is the GREATEST impact of implementing a risk mitigation strategy?
Improved alignment with business goals.
Reduction of residual risk.
Increased costs due to control implementation.
Decreased overall risk appetite.
The primary goal of risk mitigation is to reduce residual risk to an acceptable level. This aligns with the principles ofRisk Treatment, ensuring that the implemented strategies effectively address identified risks without exceeding the organization's risk appetite.
Which of the following is the MOST important information to be communicated during security awareness training?
Management's expectations
Corporate risk profile
Recent security incidents
The current risk management capability
The most important information to be communicated during security awareness training is management’s expectations. This will help to establish the security culture and behavior of the enterprise, and to align the staff’s actions with the enterprise’s objectives, policies, and standards. Management’s expectations also provide the basis for measuring and evaluating the effectiveness of the security awareness program. Corporate risk profile, recent security incidents, and the current risk management capability are also important information to be communicated during security awareness training, but they are not as important as management’s expectations. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 5, Section 5.1.1.2, page 2291
1: ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC®) Exam Guide, Answer to Question 642.
During an acquisition, which of the following would provide the MOST useful input to the parent company's risk practitioner when developing risk scenarios for the post-acquisition phase?
Risk management framework adopted by each company
Risk registers of both companies
IT balanced scorecard of each company
Most recent internal audit findings from both companies
The most useful input to the parent company’s risk practitioner when developing risk scenarios for the post-acquisition phase is the risk registers of both companies. The risk register is a document that records the details of the risks, such as their sources, causes, consequences, likelihood, impact, and responses. By reviewing the risk registers of both companies, the risk practitioner can identify the existing and potential risks that may affect the post-acquisition integration, performance, and value. The risk management framework, the IT balancedscorecard, and the most recent internal audit findings are other possible inputs, but they are not as useful as the risk registers. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 11; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 144.
An organization has raised the risk appetite for technology risk. The MOST likely result would be:
increased inherent risk.
higher risk management cost
decreased residual risk.
lower risk management cost.
The risk appetite of an organization is the amount and type of risk that it is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives1. Technology risk is the risk related to the use of information and technology in theorganization2. If an organization has raised its risk appetite for technology risk, it means that it is willing to accept more risk in exchange for more potential benefits from technology initiatives. This would likely result in lower risk management cost, as the organization would spend less on implementing and maintaining controls to mitigate technology risk. The other options are not the most likely results of raising the risk appetite for technology risk. Increased inherent risk is the risk before considering the effect of controls3, and it is not directly affected by the risk appetite. Higher risk management cost would be the opposite of the expected outcome, as the organization would reduce its risk management efforts. Decreased residual risk is the risk after considering the effect of controls3, and it would also be the opposite of the expected outcome, as the organization would accept more risk exposure. References = Organisations must define their IT risk appetite and tolerance; IT Risk Resources; CRISC | What Accurate CRISC Free Download Is
When determining which control deficiencies are most significant, which of the following would provide the MOST useful information?
Risk analysis results
Exception handling policy
Vulnerability assessment results
Benchmarking assessments
A control deficiency is a weakness or flaw in the design or implementation of a control that reduces its effectiveness or efficiency in achieving its intended objective or mitigating the risk that it is designed to address. A control deficiency may be caused by various factors, such as human error, system failure, process inefficiency, resource limitation, etc.
When determining which control deficiencies are most significant, the most useful information would be the risk analysis results, which are the outcomes or outputs of the risk analysis process that measures and compares the likelihood and impact of various risk scenarios, and prioritizes them based on their significance and urgency. The risk analysis results can help to determine which control deficiencies are most significant by providing the following information:
The level and priority of the risks that are associated with the control deficiencies, and the potential consequences or impacts that they may cause for the organization if they materialize.
The gap or difference between the current and desired level of risk, and the extent or degree to which the control deficiencies contribute to or affect the gap or difference.
The cost-benefit or feasibility analysis of the possible actions or plans to address or correct the control deficiencies, and the expected or desired outcomes or benefits that they may provide for the organization.
The other options are not the most useful information when determining which control deficiencies are most significant, because they do not provide the same level of detail and insight that the risk analysis results provide, and they may not be relevant or actionable for the organization.
An exception handling policy is a policy that defines and describes the procedures and guidelines for dealing with the situations or circumstances that deviate from the normal or expected operation or functionality of a control, and that may require special or alternative actions or measures to address or resolve them. An exception handling policy can provide useful information on how to handle or manage the control deficiencies, but it is not the most usefulinformation when determining which control deficiencies are most significant, because it does not indicate the level and priority of the risks that are associated with the control deficiencies, and the potential consequences or impacts that they may cause for the organization.
A vulnerability assessment is an assessment that identifies and evaluates the weaknesses or flaws in the organization’s assets, processes, or systems that can be exploited or compromised by the threats or sources of harm that may affect the organization’s objectives or operations. A vulnerability assessment can provide useful information on the existence and severity of the control deficiencies, but it is not the most useful information when determining which control deficiencies are most significant, because it does not indicate the likelihood and impact of the risk scenarios that are associated with the control deficiencies, and the potential consequences or impacts that they may cause for the organization.
A benchmarking assessment is an assessment that compares and contrasts the organization’s performance, practices, or processes with those of other organizations or industry standards, and identifies the strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, or threats that may affect the organization’s objectives or operations. A benchmarking assessment can provide useful information on the best practices or improvement areas for the organization, but it is not the most useful information when determining which control deficiencies are most significant, because it does not indicate the level and priority of the risks that are associatedwith the control deficiencies, and the potential consequences or impacts that they may cause for the organization. References =
ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, pp. 19-20, 23-24, 27-28, 31-32, 40-41, 47-48, 54-55, 58-59, 62-63
ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 176
CRISC Practice Quiz and Exam Prep
Which of the following would require updates to an organization's IT risk register?
Discovery of an ineffectively designed key IT control
Management review of key risk indicators (KRls)
Changes to the team responsible for maintaining the register
Completion of the latest internal audit
An IT risk register is a document that records and tracks the identified IT risks, their likelihood, impact, and mitigation strategies. It is a living document that needs to be updated regularly to reflect the current risk profile of the organization. One of the situations that would require updates to the IT risk register is the discovery of an ineffectively designed key IT control, as this would increase the likelihood or impact of the related IT risk. Management review of key risk indicators (KRIs), changes to the team responsible for maintaining the register, and completion of the latest internal audit are not reasons to update the IT risk register, as they do not affect the identified IT risks or their mitigation strategies. References = [CRISC Review Manual (DigitalVersion)], page 97; CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, question 198.
Which of the following practices BEST mitigates risk related to enterprise-wide ethical decision making in a multi-national organization?
Customized regional training on local laws and regulations
Policies requiring central reporting of potential procedure exceptions
Ongoing awareness training to support a common risk culture
Zero-tolerance policies for risk taking by middle-level managers
The best practice to mitigate risk related to enterprise-wide ethical decision making in a multi-national organization is to provide ongoing awareness training to support a common risk culture. A common risk culture is a set of shared values, beliefs, and behaviors that influence how the organization identifies, analyzes, responds to, and monitors risks. Ongoing awareness training can help to promote a common risk culture by educating the employees about the enterprise’s risk management objectives, policies, procedures, roles, and responsibilities, as well as the ethical standards and expectations that apply to their work. Ongoing awareness training can also help to reinforce the benefits of ethical decision making and the consequences of unethical behavior. Customized regional training on local laws and regulations, policies requiring central reporting of potential procedure exceptions, and zero-tolerance policies for risk taking bymiddle-level managers are also useful practices, but they are not as effective as ongoing awareness training to support a common risk culture. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 37.
Which of the following is the MOST important requirement when implementing a data loss prevention (DLP) system?
Identifying users who have access
Selecting an encryption solution
Defining the data retention period
Determining the value of data
Determining the value of data is essential when implementing a DLP system. Understanding data value helps prioritize protection efforts, allocate resources effectively, and ensure that critical information assets are adequately safeguarded against loss or unauthorized access.
Which of the following is MOST important to compare against the corporate risk profile?
Industry benchmarks
Risk tolerance
Risk appetite
Regulatory compliance
Risk tolerance is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. Risk tolerance is an important component of the corporate risk profile, as it defines the boundaries and limits of the acceptable risk exposure for the organization. Comparing the risk tolerance against the corporate risk profile can help to ensure that the organization’s risk strategy and objectives are aligned with its risk appetite and capacity, and that the organization is not taking on more risk than it can handle or afford. Comparing the risk tolerance against the corporate risk profile can also help to monitor and adjust the risk management process and controls, and to optimize the risk-return trade-off. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, Question 249. CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, Question 249. CRISC Sample Questions 2024, Question 249. CRISC by Isaca Actual Free Exam Q&As, Question 9.
When documenting a risk response, which of the following provides the STRONGEST evidence to support the decision?
Verbal majority acceptance of risk by committee
List of compensating controls
IT audit follow-up responses
A memo indicating risk acceptance
The strongest evidence to support a risk response decision is a memo indicating risk acceptance. A memo is a formal and written document that can clearly communicate the rationale, criteria, and approval of the risk acceptance decision. Verbal majority acceptance of risk by committee, list of compensating controls, and IT audit follow-up responses are weaker evidence, as they may not be documented, verified, or aligned with the risk response decision. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 11; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 144.
When evaluating enterprise IT risk management it is MOST important to:
create new control processes to reduce identified IT risk scenarios
confirm the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance
report identified IT risk scenarios to senior management
review alignment with the organization's investment plan
Enterprise IT risk management is the process of identifying, analyzing, evaluating, and treating the IT-related risks that may affect the organization’s objectives, operations, or assets1. Enterprise IT risk management should be aligned with the organization’s overall riskmanagement framework and strategy, and support the organization’s value creation and protection2.
When evaluating enterprise IT risk management, it is most important to confirm the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance. Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to take in order to meet its strategic objectives3. Risk tolerance is the acceptable level of variation that an organization is willing to accept around its risk appetite4. By confirming the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance, the evaluation can:
Ensure that the enterprise IT risk management is consistent and compatible with the organization’s risk culture and vision
Provide clear and measurable criteria and boundaries for assessing and prioritizing the IT risks and their impacts
Guide the selection and implementation of the appropriate risk responses and controls that balance the costs and benefits of risk mitigation
Enable the monitoring and reporting of the IT risk performance and outcomes, and the adjustment of the IT risk strategy and objectives as needed5
References = Enterprise IT Risk Management - ISACA, Enterprise Risk Management - Wikipedia, Risk Appetite - COSO, Risk Tolerance - COSO, Risk Appetite and Tolerance - IRM
The MOST essential content to include in an IT risk awareness program is how to:
define the IT risk framework for the organization
populate risk register entries and build a risk profile for management reporting
comply with the organization's IT risk and information security policies
prioritize IT-related actions by considering risk appetite and risk tolerance
An IT risk awareness program shouldprimarily ensure that employees and stakeholders understand and comply with the organization's risk and information security policies. ISACA highlights that an awareness program must reinforce policy understanding to drive compliant and secure behavior across the organization.
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Which of the following is MOST important for mitigating ethical risk when establishing accountability for control ownership?
Ensuring processes are documented to enable effective control execution
Ensuring regular risk messaging is Included in business communications from leadership
Ensuring schedules and deadlines for control-related deliverables are strictly monitored
Ensuring performance metrics balance business goals with risk appetite
The most important thing for mitigating ethical risk when establishing accountability for control ownership is to ensure that the performance metrics balance business goals with risk appetite. Performance metrics are the measures that evaluate the achievement of the objectives or the performance of the processes or controls. Business goals are the desired or expected outcomes or results of the business activities or processes. Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that the organization is willing and able to take. Ethical risk is the risk that arises from the violation or breach of the ethical principles or standards of the organization or the profession. To mitigate ethical risk, the performance metrics should balance business goals with risk appetite, meaning that they should not encourage or reward excessive or inappropriate risk-taking or unethical behavior, but rather promote and support responsible and ethical risk management and decision making. The other options are not as important as ensuring performance metrics balance business goals with risk appetite, as they are related to the documentation, communication, or monitoring of the processes or controls, not the evaluation or alignment of the performance metrics. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.2: Key Performance Indicators, page 183.
Before implementing instant messaging within an organization using a public solution, which of the following should be in place to mitigate data leakage risk?
A data extraction tool
An access control list
An intrusion detection system (IDS)
An acceptable usage policy
According to the CRISC Review Manual1, an acceptable usage policy is a document that defines the rules and guidelines for the appropriate and secure use of IT resources within an organization. It helps to mitigate data leakage risk by establishing the roles and responsibilities of users, the types and purposes of data that can be shared or transmitted, the authorized methods and channels of communication, the security controls and measures to protect data, and the consequences of non-compliance. An acceptable usage policy also educates and raises awareness among users about the potential risks and threats associated with instant messaging and other forms of online communication. Therefore, before implementing instant messaging within an organization using a public solution, an acceptable usage policy should be in place to mitigate data leakage risk. References = CRISC Review Manual1, page 237.
Which of the following is the PRIMARY role of the board of directors in corporate risk governance?
Approving operational strategies and objectives
Monitoring the results of actions taken to mitigate risk
Ensuring the effectiveness of the risk management program
Ensuring risk scenarios are identified and recorded in the risk register
A risk response action plan is a document that specifies the actions to be taken to address the identified risks, the resources required, the timelines, the owners, and the expected outcomes. The risk response action plan should be aligned with the enterprise’s risk appetite and tolerance, and should be approved by the relevant stakeholders. The best way to ensure the implementation of an effective risk response action plan is to assign clear roles and responsibilities to the individuals or groups who will execute the actions, monitor the progress, and report the results. This will help to avoid confusion, ambiguity, duplication, or omission of tasks, and will ensure accountability and ownership of the risk responses. The other options are not as directly related to the implementation of the risk response action plan, although they may be involved in some aspects of it. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3, Section 3.4.1.1, pp. 121-122.
Which of the following criteria associated with key risk indicators (KRIs) BEST enables effective risk monitoring?
Approval by senior management
Low cost of development and maintenance
Sensitivity to changes in risk levels
Use of industry risk data sources
Key risk indicators (KRIs) are metrics that help organizations monitor and assess potential risks that may impact their operations, financial health, or overall performance1. KRIs should have certain characteristics that make them effective for risk monitoring, such as:
Ability to measure the right thing (e.g., supports the decisions that need to be made)
Quantifiable (e.g., damages in dollars of profit loss)
Capability to be measured precisely and accurately
Relevant (measuring the right thing associated with decisions)2
Among the four options given, only option C (sensitivity to changes in risk levels) best enables effective risk monitoring. This is because KRIs should be able to capture the changes in risk levels over time and alert organizations to emerging or escalating risks3. A high sensitivity to changes in risk levels indicates that theKRI is responsive and timely, and can help organizations take preventive or corrective actions before the risks become too severe.
References = Key Risk Indicators: A Practical Guide, Key Risk Indicators: Examples & Definitions, Key Risk Indicators - Wikipedia
A control owner identifies that the organization's shared drive contains personally identifiable information (Pll) that can be accessed by all personnel. Which of the following is the MOST effective risk response?
Protect sensitive information with access controls.
Implement a data loss prevention (DLP) solution.
Re-communicate the data protection policy.
Implement a data encryption solution.
Personally identifiable information (PII) is any information that can be used to identify, contact, or locate an individual, such as name, address, phone number, email, social security number, etc1. PII is subject to various laws and regulations that aim to protect the privacy and security of individuals’data1. Organizations that collect, store, process, or transmit PII have a responsibility to safeguard it from unauthorized access, use, disclosure, modification, or destruction1.
One of the best practices for protecting PII is to implement access controls, which are mechanisms that restrict access to PII based on the principle of least privilege2. Access controls ensure that only authorized personnel who have a legitimate need to access PII can do so, and that they can only perform the actions that are necessary for their roles and responsibilities2. Access controls can be implemented at different levels, such as network, system, application, or data level, and can use various methods, such as passwords, tokens, biometrics, encryption, etc2.
If an organization’s shared drive contains PII that can be accessed by all personnel, this poses a high risk of data breach, theft, loss, or misuse, which could result in legal, financial, reputational, or operational consequences for the organization and the individuals whose data is compromised3. Therefore, the most effective risk response is to protect the sensitive information with access controls, such as:
Classify the PII according to its sensitivity and impact level, and assign appropriate labels and permissions to the data files and folders2.
Restrict access to the shared drive to only those personnel who have a valid business reason to access the PII, and grant them the minimum level of access required to perform their tasks2.
Implement strong authentication and authorization mechanisms, such as multifactor authentication, role-based access control, or attribute-based access control, to verify the identity and privileges of the users who access the shared drive2.
Encrypt the PII stored on the shared drive, and use secure protocols and channels to transmit the data over the network2.
Monitor and audit the access and activities on the shared drive, and generate logs and reports to detect and respond to any unauthorized or anomalous events2.
The other options are not as effective as access controls, because they do not directly address the root cause of the risk, which is the lack of access restrictions on the shared drive. Implementing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution, which is a tool that monitors and prevents the leakage of sensitive data, may help to detect and block some unauthorized data transfers, but it does not prevent unauthorized access or viewing of the PII on the shared drive4. Re-communicating the data protection policy, which is a document that defines the rules and responsibilities for handling PII, may help to raise awareness and compliance among the personnel, but it does not enforce or verify the actual implementation of the policy. Implementing a data encryption solution, which is a technique that transforms the PII into an unreadable format, may helpto protect the confidentiality of the data, but it does not prevent unauthorized access or modification of the data, and it may introduce additional complexity and overhead to the data management process.
References = Guide to Protecting the Confidentiality of Personally Identifiable Information (PII), Best Practices for Protecting PII, How to Secure Personally Identifiable Information against Loss or Compromise, Data Loss Prevention (DLP) | Microsoft 365 security, [Protecting Personal Information: A Guide for Business], [Encryption - Wikipedia]
Which of the following should be the PRIMARY input to determine risk tolerance?
Regulatory requirements
Organizational objectives
Annual loss expectancy (ALE)
Risk management costs
Organizational objectives should be the primary input to determine risk tolerance, as they define the desired outcomes and performance of the organization, and guide the selection of the acceptable level of risk that the organization is willing to take to achieve those objectives. Regulatory requirements, annual loss expectancy (ALE), and risk management costs are not the primary inputs, as they are more related to the external or internal constraints or factors that affect the risk tolerance, rather than the drivers or determinants of the risk tolerance. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 109.
Which of the following BEST enables a proactive approach to minimizing the potential impact of unauthorized data disclosure?
Cyber insurance
Data backups
Incident response plan
Key risk indicators (KRIs)
Key Risk Indicators (KRIs) are metrics used by organizations to provide early warning signs of potential risks, including unauthorized data disclosure. By monitoring KRIs, organizations can proactively identify vulnerabilities and take corrective actions before a risk materializes. This proactive approach is essential in minimizing the potential impact of data breaches.
According to ISACA's CRISC Review Manual, KRIs are defined as "metrics capable of showing that the enterprise is, or has a high probability of being, subject to a risk that exceeds the defined risk appetite." They are critical to the measurement and monitoring of risk and performance optimization. ISACA
While data backups (Option B) are vital for data recovery post-incident, they do not prevent unauthorized disclosures. An incident response plan (Option C) is reactive, focusing on responding after an incident has occurred. Cyber insurance (Option D) provides financial compensation post-incident but does not prevent the occurrence of data breaches.
Therefore, implementing and monitoring KRIs is the most proactive approach to minimizing the potential impact of unauthorized data disclosure.
An unauthorized individual has socially engineered entry into an organization's secured physical premises. Which of the following is the BEST way to prevent future occurrences?
Employ security guards.
Conduct security awareness training.
Install security cameras.
Require security access badges.
Social engineering is a technique that involves manipulating or deceiving people into performing actions or divulging information that may compromise the security of an organization or its data12.
Entry into an organization’s secured physical premises is a form of physical access that allows an unauthorized individual to access, steal, or damage the organization’s assets, such as equipment, documents, or systems34.
The best way to prevent future occurrences of social engineering entry into an organization’s secured physical premises is to conduct security awareness training, which is an educational program that aims to equip the organization’s employees with the knowledge and skills they need to protect the organization’s data and sensitive information from cyber threats, such as hacking, phishing, or other breaches56.
Security awareness training is the best way because it helps the employees to recognize and resist the common and emerging social engineering techniques, such as tailgating,impersonation, or pretexting, that may be used by the attackers to gain physical access to the organization’s premises56.
Security awareness training is also the best way because it fosters a culture of security and responsibility among the employees, and encourages them to follow the best practices andpolicies for physical security, such as locking the doors, verifying the identity of visitors, or reporting any suspicious activities or incidents56.
The other options are not the best way, but rather possible measures or controls that may supplement or enhance the security awareness training. For example:
Employing security guards is a measure that involves hiring or contracting professional personnel who are trained and authorized to monitor, patrol, and protect the organization’s premises from unauthorized access or intrusion78. However, this measure is not the best way because it may not be sufficient or effective to prevent or deter all types of social engineering attacks, especially if the attackers are able to bypass, deceive, or coerce the security guards78.
Installing security cameras is a control that involves using electronic devices that capture and record the visual images of the organization’s premises, and provide evidence or alerts of any unauthorized access or activity . However, this control is not the best way because it is reactive rather than proactive, and may not prevent or stop the social engineering attacks before they cause any harm or damage to the organization .
Requiring security access badges is a control that involves using physical or electronic cards that identify and authenticate the employees or authorized visitors who are allowed to enter the organization’s premises, and restrict or deny the access to anyone else . However, this control is not the best way because it may not be foolproof or reliable to prevent or detect the social engineering attacks, especially if the attackers are able to steal, forge, or clone the security access badges . References =
1: What is Social Engineering? | Types & Examples of Social Engineering Attacks1
2: Social Engineering: What It Is and How to Prevent It | Digital Guardian2
3: What is physical Social Engineering and why is it important? - Integrity3603
4: What Is Tailgating (Piggybacking) In Cyber Security? - Wlan Labs4
5: What Is Security Awareness Training and Why Is It Important? - Kaspersky5
6: Security Awareness Training - Cybersecurity Education Online | Proofpoint US6
7: Security Guard - Wikipedia7
8: Security Guard Services - Allied Universal8
Security Camera - Wikipedia
Security Camera Systems - The Home Depot
Access Badge - Wikipedia
Access Control Systems - HID Global
Which of the following is the MOST important component in a risk treatment plan?
Technical details
Target completion date
Treatment plan ownership
Treatment plan justification
A risk treatment plan is a document that outlines the approach and actions to be taken to address the unacceptable risks identified in the risk assessment process1. A risk treatment plan should include the following components2:
The risk identification number and description
The risk treatment option chosen (e.g., avoid, reduce, share, or accept)
The risk treatment owner, who is responsible for implementing and monitoring the risk treatment
The risk treatment actions, which are the specific tasks or steps to be performed to execute the risk treatment
The risk treatment resources, which are the human, financial, or technical resources required to support the risk treatment
The risk treatment target date, which is the deadline for completing the risk treatment
The risk treatment performance indicators, which are the measures to evaluate the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk treatment
The risk treatment status, which is the current progress or outcome of the risk treatment
Among the four options given, the most important component in a risk treatment plan is the treatment plan ownership. This is because the treatment plan ownership defines theaccountability and authority for the risk treatment, and ensures that the risk treatment actions are carried out as planned and reported as required3. The treatment plan ownership also facilitates the communication and coordination among the stakeholders involved in the risk treatment, and enables the escalation and resolution of any issues or challenges that may arise during the risk treatment process4.
References = Risk Treatment (With Examples), ISO 27001 Risk Assessment & Risk Treatment: The Complete Guide, Risk Management Framework - Treat Risks, Risk Management Plan Components
Which of the following provides the MOST useful information when measuring the progress of risk response action plans?
Results of risk remediation team interviews
Annual loss expectancy (ALE) changes
Vulnerability assessment results
Percentage of mitigated risk scenarios
“Percentage of mitigated risk scenarios is a metric that measures the proportion of risk scenarios that have been reduced or eliminated by the risk responses and actions. However, this metric is not the most useful tool because it does not provide a comprehensive and consistent view of the risk landscape…”
To truly measure progress,an up‑to‑date risk registerprovides the full context and current status of risk treatments—capturing what’s been done and what remains.
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The BEST way for management to validate whether risk response activities have been completed is to review:
the risk register change log.
evidence of risk acceptance.
control effectiveness test results.
control design documentation.
Reviewing the risk register change log is the best way for management to validate whether risk response activities have been completed, because it helps to track and monitor the changes and updates that have been made to the risk register, and to verify that the risk response activities have been implemented and closed. A risk register is a document that captures, identifies, assesses and tracks risk as part of the risk management process4. A risk register change log is a record that documents the date, description, and reason for each change or update that is made to the risk register. A risk response activity is an action or task that is performed to implement the chosen risk response strategy for a specific risk, such as avoid, transfer, mitigate, or accept. Reviewing the risk register change log is the best way, as it helps to ensure that the risk register is accurate and current, and that the risk response activities have been completed and reported. Reviewing evidence of risk acceptance, control effectiveness test results, and control design documentation are all possible ways to validate whether risk response activities have been completed, but they are not the best way, as they may not cover all the risk response activities, and they may not reflect the changes or updates in the risk register. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.4.1, page 101
Which of the following is the BEST method for determining an enterprise's current appetite for risk?
Comparative analysis of peer companies
Reviews of brokerage firm assessments
Interviews with senior management
Trend analysis using prior annual reports
Conducting interviews with senior management is the best method for determining an enterprise’s current appetite for risk, because it helps to obtain the direct and qualitative input and feedback from the senior management on their expectations and preferences regarding thelevel and type of risk that the enterprise is willing to accept or pursue, in relation to its objectives and strategy. Risk appetite is the amount and nature of risk that an enterprise is willing to take in order to achieve its objectives and create value. Risk appetite is influenced by factors such as the enterprise’s culture, values, vision, mission, and strategy, as well as the externalenvironment and stakeholders. Risk appetite may vary depending on the context and situation, and may change over time. Conducting interviews with senior management is the best method, as it helps to understand and capture the current and explicit risk appetite of the enterprise, and to align the risk management process and activities with the senior management’s risk vision and direction. Conducting comparative analysis of peer companies, reviewing brokerage firm assessments, and performing trend analysis using prior annual reports are all possible methods for determining an enterprise’s current appetite for risk, but they are not the best method, as they may provide only indirect, quantitative, or historical information, and may not reflect the current and specific risk appetite of the enterprise. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2, Section 2.2.1, page 45
Which of the following is the MOST important outcome of a business impact analysis (BIA)?
Understanding and prioritization of critical processes
Completion of the business continuity plan (BCP)
Identification of regulatory consequences
Reduction of security and business continuity threats
The most important outcome of a business impact analysis (BIA) is understanding and prioritization of critical processes. A BIA is a process that identifies and evaluates the potential effects of disruptions or disasters on the organization’s business functions and processes. A BIA helps to understand the dependencies, interrelationships, and impacts of the business processes, and to prioritize them based on their importance and urgency. A BIA also helps to determine the recovery objectives, strategies, and resources for the business processes, such as the recovery time objective (RTO), the recovery point objective (RPO), and the minimum operating requirements (MOR). The other options are not as important as understanding and prioritization of critical processes, although they may be part of or derived from the BIA. Completion of thebusiness continuity plan (BCP), identification of regulatory consequences, and reduction of security and business continuity threats are all activities or outcomes that can be supported or facilitated by the BIA, but they are not the primary purpose or result of the BIA. References = CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, Chapter 5, Section 5.2.1, page 5-9.
A risk practitioner learns of an urgent threat intelligence alert to patch a critical vulnerability identified in the organization's operating system. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?
Patch the operating system immediately
Determine whether any active attacks are exploiting the vulnerability
Invoke the organization's incident response plan
Evaluate the threat in the context of the organization's IT environment
Before acting, the risk practitioner mustevaluate the threat in the organizational context. This includes checking system exposure, current mitigations, and potential business impact. Only then can an informed decision (such as patching or mitigation) be made.
Which of the following is the MOST likely reason an organization would engage an independent reviewer to assess its IT risk management program?
To ensure IT risk management is focused on mitigating emerging risk
To confirm that IT risk assessment results are expressed in quantitative terms
To evaluate threats to the organization's operations and strategy
To identify gaps in the alignment of IT risk management processes and strategy
An independent review is typically sought to provide an objective assessment of the IT risk management program, ensuring that it aligns with the organization’s overall strategy andobjectives. The reviewer can identify areas where the program may not be effectively addressing the organization’s strategic goals or where improvements can be made to better manage IT risks.
Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of analyzing logs collected from different systems?
A record of incidents is maintained.
Forensic investigations are facilitated.
Security violations can be identified.
Developing threats are detected earlier.
According to the CRISC Review Manual, the greatest benefit of analyzing logs collected from different systems is to detect developing threats earlier, because it helps to identify and correlate the patterns, trends, and anomalies that may indicate a potential attack or compromise. Log analysis is the process of examining and interpreting the log data generated by various systems, such as firewalls, servers, routers, and applications. Log analysis can provide valuable insights into the activities and events that occur on the systems, and can enable the timely detection and response to the emerging threats. The other options are not the greatest benefits of analyzing logs, as they are less proactive or less strategic than detecting developing threats earlier. Maintaining a record of incidents is a benefit of logging, but not of analyzing logs, as it involves storing and preserving the log data for future reference. Facilitating forensic investigations is a benefit of analyzing logs, but it is a reactive and tactical activity that occurs after an incident has happened. Identifying security violations is a benefit of analyzing logs, but it is a specific and operational activity that focuses on the compliance and enforcement of the security policies and standards. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 5, Section 5.3.2, page 263.
Which of the following would BEST enable a risk practitioner to embed risk management within the organization?
Provide risk management feedback to key stakeholders.
Collect and analyze risk data for report generation.
Monitor and prioritize risk data according to the heat map.
Engage key stakeholders in risk management practices.
Engaging key stakeholders in risk management practices is the best way to embed risk management within the organization. This means that the risk practitioner involves andcommunicates with the people who have an interest or influence in the organization’s objectives, activities, and risks, such as senior management, business unit managers, employees, customers, suppliers, regulators, etc.
Engaging key stakeholders in risk management practices helps to create a risk-aware culture, align risk management with the organization’s strategy and vision, ensure the ownership and accountability of risks and controls, obtain the support and commitment for risk management initiatives, and improve the risk management performance and outcomes.
The other options are not the best ways to embed risk management within the organization. They are either secondary or not essential for risk management.
The references for this answer are:
Risk IT Framework, page 17
Information Technology & Security, page 11
Risk Scenarios Starter Pack, page 9
An organization has outsourced its billing function to an external service provider. Who should own the risk of customer data leakage caused by the service provider?
The service provider
Vendor risk manager
Legal counsel
Business process owner
The business process owner should own the risk of customer data leakage caused by the service provider, as they have the responsibility and authority over the design, execution, and performance of the business process. The business process owner is also accountable for the risks and controls associated with their process, and they can provide valuable input and feedback on the likelihood and impact of customer data leakage on the process outcomes and objectives.
The other options are not the best choices for owning the risk of customer data leakage caused by the service provider. The service provider is responsible for delivering and supporting the billing function and ensuring the security and privacy of the customer data, but they may not have the full visibility or understanding of the business process and objectives. The vendor risk manager is responsible for managing and monitoring the vendor relationship and performance, but they may not have the direct involvement or influence on the business process and its risks and controls. The legal counsel is responsible for providing legal advice and guidance on the contractual and regulatory obligations and implications of the outsourcing arrangement, but they may not have the detailed knowledge or experience of the business process and its risks andcontrols. References = Guide to Vendor Risk Assessment | Smartsheet, IT Risk Resources | ISACA, Data Ownership: Considerations for Risk Management - ISACA
Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of an anti-virus program?
Frequency of anti-virus software updates
Number of alerts generated by the anti-virus software
Number of false positives detected over a period of time
Percentage of IT assets with current malware definitions
An anti-virus program is a software that detects and removes malicious software, such as viruses, worms, or ransomware, from the IT assets, such as computers, servers, or networks. The effectiveness of an anti-virus program can be measured by the key performance indicators (KPIs) that reflect the achievement of the program objectives and the alignment with the enterprise’s risk appetite and tolerance. The best KPI to measure the effectiveness of an anti-virus program is the percentage of IT assets with current malware definitions. Malware definitions are the files or databases that contain the signatures or patterns of the known malicious software, and they are used by the anti-virus program to scan and identify the malware. The percentage of IT assets with current malware definitions indicates how well the anti-virus program is able to protect the IT assets from the latest or emerging threats, and reduce the exposure and impact of the risks associated with the malware. The other options are not as good as the percentage of IT assets with current malware definitions, as they may not reflect the quality or timeliness of the protection, or the alignment with the enterprise’s risk appetite and tolerance. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 4, Section 4.3.2.1, pp. 171-172.
Following an acquisition, the acquiring company's risk practitioner has been asked to update the organization's IT risk profile What is the MOST important information to review from the acquired company to facilitate this task?
Internal and external audit reports
Risk disclosures in financial statements
Risk assessment and risk register
Business objectives and strategies
The most important information to review from the acquired company to facilitate the task of updating the organization’s IT risk profile is the risk assessment and risk register. The risk assessment is a process of identifying, analyzing, and evaluating the IT risks of the acquiredcompany. The risk register is a document that records the details of the IT risks, such as their sources, causes, consequences, likelihood, impact, and responses. By reviewing the risk assessment and risk register, the risk practitioner can gain a comprehensive and accurate understanding of the IT risk profile of the acquired company, and integrate it with the IT risk profile of the acquiring organization. Internal and external audit reports, risk disclosures in financial statements, and business objectives and strategies are other possible sources of information, but they are not as important as the risk assessment and risk register. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 11; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 144.
Which of the following is the GREATEST concern when using a generic set of IT risk scenarios for risk analysis?
Quantitative analysis might not be possible.
Risk factors might not be relevant to the organization
Implementation costs might increase.
Inherent risk might not be considered.
According to the CRISC 351-400 topic3 Flashcards, the greatest concern when using a generic set of IT risk scenarios for risk analysis is that the risk factors might not be relevant to the organization. This is because generic risk scenarios are not tailored to the specific context, objectives, and environment of the organization, and they may not capture the unique threats, vulnerabilities, and impacts that the organization faces. Therefore, using generic risk scenarios may result in inaccurate or incomplete risk assessment and analysis, and may lead to ineffective or inappropriate risk responses. To avoid this, the organization should customize the risk scenarios to reflect its own situation and needs, and involve the relevant stakeholders and experts in the process. References = CRISC 351-400 topic3 Flashcards, Generic IT Risk Scenarios for Risk Analysis: The Greatest Concern
A recent internal risk review reveals the majority of core IT application recovery time objectives (RTOs) have exceeded the maximum time defined by the business application owners. Which of the following is MOST likely to change as a result?
Risk forecasting
Risk tolerance
Risk likelihood
Risk appetite
Recovery time objectives (RTOs) are the maximum acceptable time frames for restoring the critical functions and processes after a disruption1. RTOs are derived from the business impact analysis (BIA) andreflect the organization’s risk appetite, which is the amount of risk that an organization is willing to accept to achieve its objectives2. Risk tolerance is the level of risk a company is willing to tolerate, and it is affected by a number of factors, including how much uncertainty or financial loss can be tolerated and where those losses will impact operations3. Risk tolerance is used to measure if the risk exposure is within the risk appetite and to implement controls to reduce the residual risk to an acceptable level2. If the majority of core IT application RTOs have exceeded the maximum time defined by the business application owners, it means that the organization is not meeting its risk appetite and is exposed to more risk than it can accept. Therefore, the most likely change as a result is to adjust the risk tolerance to reflect the current reality and to take actions to improve the recovery capabilities and reduce the risk exposure4. Risk forecasting is the process of estimating the potential outcomes and impactsof future events that may affect the organization’s objectives5. Risk forecasting may change as aresult of the RTOs exceeding the maximum time, but it is not the most likely change, as it does not directly address the gap between the risk appetite and the risk exposure. Risk likelihood is the probability of a risk event occurring5. Risk likelihood may change as a result of the RTOs exceeding the maximum time, but it is not the most likely change, as it does not directly measure the impact of the risk event on the organization’s objectives. Risk appetite is the amount of risk that an organization is willing to accept to achieve its objectives2. Risk appetite may change as a result of the RTOs exceeding the maximum time, but it is not the most likely change, as it is a strategic decision that reflects the organization’s vision and mission, and not a tactical response to a specific risk event. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5: Risk Response and Mitigation, Section 5.3: Business Continuity Planning, pp. 227-238.
Which of the following presents the GREATEST privacy risk related to personal data processing for a global organization?
Privacy risk awareness training has not been conducted across the organization.
The organization has not incorporated privacy into its risk management framework.
The organization allows staff with access to personal data to work remotely.
Personal data processing occurs in an offshore location with a data sharing agreement.
Greatest Privacy Risk:
Jurisdictional Challenges: Processing personal data in an offshore location often involves dealing with different legal and regulatory requirements, which can complicate compliance with data privacy laws such as GDPR or CPRA.
Data Transfer Risks: Even with a data sharing agreement, the protection and enforcement of privacy rights can be less stringent in the offshore location compared to the home jurisdiction. This can lead to increased risks of data breaches and misuse.
Enforcement Difficulties: If privacy violations occur, enforcing legal actions across borders can be challenging, potentially leading to inadequate redress for affected individuals.
Comparison with Other Options:
Privacy Risk Awareness Training Not Conducted: This is a significant risk but can be mitigated relatively quickly with proper training programs.
Privacy Not Incorporated into Risk Management Framework: While critical, the risk can be managed by integrating privacy into the framework without immediate severe consequences.
Remote Work by Staff with Access to Personal Data: This introduces risks related to secure access and data protection but can be managed with proper security controls.
Best Practices:
Data Sovereignty Considerations: Ensure data is processed in jurisdictions with strong privacy laws that align with the organization's regulatory requirements.
Regular Audits and Assessments: Conduct regular audits of data processing practices in offshore locations to ensure compliance with data privacy agreements.
Legal Safeguards: Establish robust legal safeguards and contracts to enforce data protection standards across jurisdictions.
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration for a risk practitioner when making a system implementation go-live recommendation?
Completeness of system documentation
Results of end user acceptance testing
Variances between planned and actual cost
availability of in-house resources
End user acceptance testing is a process that verifies that a system or service meets the requirements and expectations of the end users, who are the actual or potential customers or beneficiaries of the system or service. End user acceptance testing is the final stage of testing before the system or service is deployed or released to the production environment. The results of end user acceptance testing are the most important consideration for a risk practitioner when making a system implementation go-live recommendation, as they indicate the quality, functionality, usability, and reliability of the system or service from the end user perspective. The results of end user acceptance testing can help to identify and resolve any defects, errors, or issues that may affect the performance, satisfaction, or acceptance of the system or service by the end users. The results of end user acceptance testing can also help to evaluate the benefits, value, and risks of the system or service for the end users and the organization. The other options are not the most important consideration for a risk practitioner when making a system implementation go-live recommendation, although they may be relevant and useful. The completeness of system documentation is a factor that affects the maintainability, supportability, and auditability of the system or service, but it does not measure the end user experience or satisfaction. The variances between planned and actual cost is a measure of the efficiency and budget management of the system or service development or implementation, but it does not reflect the end user needs or expectations. The availability of in-house resources is a resource that supports the system or service delivery and operation, but it does not ensure the end user acceptance or approval. References = CRISC Review Manual, pages 180-1811; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, page 87
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when implementing ethical remote work monitoring?
Monitoring is only conducted between official hours of business
Employees are informed of how they are bong monitored
Reporting on nonproductive employees is sent to management on a scheduled basis
Multiple data monitoring sources are integrated into security incident response procedures
The most important consideration when implementing ethical remote work monitoring is to inform the employees of how they are being monitored, because this respects their privacy rights and expectations, and ensures their consent and compliance with the monitoring policy. Informing the employees of how they are being monitored also helps to build trust and transparency between the employer and the employees, and reduces the potential legal or ethical issues that may arise from the monitoring activities. The other options are not the most important considerations, although they may also be relevant for ethical remote work monitoring. Monitoring only during official hours of business, reporting on nonproductive employees to management, and integrating multiple data monitoring sources into security incident response procedures are examples of operational or technical aspects of remote work monitoring,notethical aspects. References = CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions
What should be the PRIMARY driver for periodically reviewing and adjusting key risk indicators (KRIs)?
Risk impact
Risk likelihood
Risk appropriate
Control self-assessments (CSAs)
Risk appetite should be the primary driver for periodically reviewing and adjusting key risk indicators (KRIs), because it reflects the level of risk that the enterprise is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. KRIs should be aligned with the risk appetite and adjusted accordingly when the risk appetite changes due to internal or external factors. The other options are not the primary drivers, although they may also influence the review and adjustment of KRIs. Risk impact, risk likelihood, and control self-assessments (CSAs) are secondary drivers that depend on the risk appetite. References = Most Asked CRISC Exam Questions and Answers
A risk practitioner has identified that the agreed recovery time objective (RTO) with a Software as a Service (SaaS) provider is longer than the business expectation. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?
Collaborate with the risk owner to determine the risk response plan.
Document the gap in the risk register and report to senior management.
Include a right to audit clause in the service provider contract.
Advise the risk owner to accept the risk.
The best course of action for the risk practitioner who has identified that the agreed RTO with a SaaS provider is longer than the business expectation is to document the gap in the risk register and report to senior management. The risk register is the document that records the details of all identified risks, including their sources, causes, impacts, likelihood, and responses. The risk register should be updated regularly to reflect any changes in the risk environment or the risk status. Reporting to senior management is also important, because senior management is the highest level of authority and responsibility in the organization, and they are responsible for setting the strategic direction, objectives, and risk appetite of the organization. Senior management should also oversee the risk management process, and ensure that the risks are aligned with the organization’s goals and values. By documenting the gap in the risk register and reporting to senior management, the risk practitioner can communicate the issue clearly and effectively, and seek guidance and support for resolving the problem. Collaborating with the risk owner, including a right to audit clause, or advising the risk owner to accept the risk are not the best courses of action, because they may not be feasible, effective, or desirable in some situations, or they may require senior management approval or involvement. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.1, page 4-13.
Which of the following should be the MAIN consideration when validating an organization's risk appetite?
Comparison against regulations
Maturity of the risk culture
Capacity to withstand loss
Cost of risk mitigation options
According to the Gaining the competitive edge – measuring and assessing an organization’s risk culture article, risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. Risk appetite should be aligned with the organization’s strategy, goals, and values, and should reflect the organization’s risk culture and capabilities. One of the main considerations when validating an organization’s risk appetite is the capacity to withstand loss, which is the ability of the organization to absorb the impact of adverse events without jeopardizing its viability or reputation. The capacity to withstand loss depends on various factors, such as the financial strength, the operational resilience, the governance structure, and the stakeholder expectations of the organization. By assessing the capacity to withstand loss, the organization can determine if its risk appetite is realistic and appropriate, or if it needs to be adjusted to match its risk profile and environment. References = Gaining the competitive edge – measuring and assessing an organization’s risk culture
An organization has decided to outsource a web application, and customer data will be stored in the vendor's public cloud. To protect customer data, it is MOST important to ensure which of the following?
The organization's incident response procedures have been updated.
The vendor stores the data in the same jurisdiction.
Administrative access is only held by the vendor.
The vendor's responsibilities are defined in the contract.
Outsourcing a web application and storing customer data in the vendor’s public cloud involves transferring some of the organization’s data processing and storage functions to a third-party service provider. This can bring benefits such as cost savings, scalability, and flexibility, but it also introduces risks such as data breaches, unauthorized access, compliance violations, and loss of control12.
To protect customer data, it is most important to ensure that the vendor’s responsibilities are defined in the contract. A contract is a legally binding agreement that specifies the terms and conditions of the outsourcing relationship, such as the scope, duration, quality, and cost of the services, as well as the rights and obligations of both parties. A contract should also address the following aspects of data protection :
Data ownership: The contract should clearly state that the organization retains the ownership and control of its customer data, and that the vendor has no rights to use, disclose, or retain the data for any purpose other than providing the agreed services.
Data security: The contract should define the minimum security standards and controls that the vendor must implement and maintain to protect the customer data from unauthorized or accidental access, use, disclosure, modification, or destruction. The contract should also specify the security certifications or audits that the vendor must comply with or undergo to demonstrate its security posture.
Data privacy: The contract should ensure that the vendor complies with the applicable data privacy laws and regulations that govern the collection, processing, and transfer of customer data, such as the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) or the California Consumer Privacy Act (CCPA). The contract should also require the vendor to obtain the consent of the customers before collecting or sharing their data, and to respect their rights to access, correct, delete, or restrict their data.
Data breach notification: The contract should establish the procedures and timelines for the vendor to notify the organization and the relevant authorities in the event of a data breach or security incident that affects the customer data. The contract should also define the roles and responsibilities of both parties in responding to and resolving the incident, as well as the remedies and penalties for the vendor’s failure or negligence.
Data backup and recovery: The contract should outline the backup and recovery policies and practices that the vendor must follow to ensure the availability and integrity of the customer data in case of a disaster or system failure. The contract should also specify the frequency and format of the backups, the location and security of the backup storage, and the testing and restoration procedures.
Data retention and disposal: The contract should stipulate the retention period and disposal method for the customer data, in accordance with the organization’s data retention policy and the legal or regulatory requirements. The contract should also require the vendor to return or destroy the customer data at the end of the contract or upon the organization’s request, and to provide proof of the data deletion.
By defining the vendor’s responsibilities in the contract, the organization can ensure that the customer data is protected in a consistent and compliant manner, and that the vendor is accountable and liable for any data protection issues or breaches that may arise from the outsourcing arrangement .
The other options are not as important as defining the vendor’s responsibilities in the contract, because they do not address the core issue of establishing a clear and enforceable data protection framework between the organization and the vendor. Updating the organization’s incident response procedures, which are the plans and actions to be taken in the event of a data breach or security incident, may help to mitigate the impact and consequences of such events, but it does not prevent or reduce the likelihood of them occurring in the first place. Storing the data in the same jurisdiction, which means keeping the data within the same geographic or legal boundaries as the organization, may help to avoid some of the data privacy and sovereignty challenges that arise from cross-border data transfers, but it does not guarantee the security and confidentiality of the data. Restricting the administrative access to the vendor, which means limiting the ability to view, modify, or delete the data to the vendor’s personnel only, may help to reduce the risk of unauthorized or accidental access by the organization’s staff, but it does not ensure that the vendor’s staff are trustworthy and competent, and it may also impair the organization’s oversight and control over the data.
References = Consumer data protection and privacy | McKinsey, 9 Tips for Protecting Consumer Data (& Why It’s Important to Keep It …, [Outsourcing Contracts: Key Issues and Best Practices], [Data Protection in Cloud Services: A Guide for Businesses], [Incident Response Planning: Best Practices for Businesses], [Data Localization: What is it and Why is it Important?], [Administrative Access: Definition, Risks, and Best Practices]
Which of the following key performance indicators (KPis) would BEST measure me risk of a service outage when using a Software as a Service (SaaS) vendors
Frequency of business continuity plan (BCP) lasting
Frequency and number of new software releases
Frequency and duration of unplanned downtime
Number of IT support staff available after business hours
Software as a Service (SaaS) is a cloud computing model that provides software applications over the internet, without requiring the users to install or maintain them on their own devices. SaaS vendors are responsible for hosting, managing, and updating the software applications, and providing technical support and security to the users. The key performance indicator (KPI) that would best measure the risk of a service outage when using a SaaS vendor is the frequency and duration of unplanned downtime, which is the amount and length of time that the software applications are unavailable or inaccessible due to unexpected events, such as network failures, server crashes, power outages, cyberattacks, etc. The frequency and duration of unplanned downtime indicate the reliability and availability of the SaaS vendor, and the potential impact of the service outage on the users’ business operations and productivity. References = 3
A penetration testing team discovered an ineffectively designed access control. Who is responsible for ensuring the control design gap is remediated?
Control owner
Risk owner
IT security manager
Control operator
Role of the Control Owner:
The control owner is responsible for the design, implementation, and maintenance of a specific control.
They have detailed knowledge of the control’s purpose, its intended functionality, and its operational context within the organization.
Responsibility for Remediation:
When a penetration testing team discovers an ineffectively designed access control, it is the control owner’s responsibility to ensure the design gap is remediated.
The control owner must assess the findings, determine the root cause of the ineffectiveness, and take necessary actions to redesign or enhance the control to address the identified weaknesses.
Steps to Remediate Control Design Gap:
Assess the Findings:Understand the specific issues identified by the penetration testing team.
Redesign the Control:Modify the control design to address the identified gaps and ensure it meets security requirements.
Implement Changes:Apply the redesigned control and test its effectiveness.
Continuous Monitoring:Regularly review the control to ensure it remains effective over time.
Comparing Other Roles:
Risk Owner:Manages overall risk but does not directly handle control design.
IT Security Manager:Oversees the security posture but delegates specific control responsibilities to control owners.
Control Operator:Operates the control but is not responsible for its design or remediation.
References:
The CRISC Review Manual emphasizes the control owner's responsibility in maintaining and improving control effectiveness (CRISC Review Manual, Chapter 3: Risk Response and Mitigation, Section 3.7 Control Design and Selection).
The MOST important characteristic of an organization s policies is to reflect the organization's:
risk assessment methodology.
risk appetite.
capabilities
asset value.
An organization’s policies are the set of rules and guidelines that define the organization’s objectives, expectations, and responsibilities for its activities and operations. They provide the direction and framework for the organization’s governance, risk management, and compliance functions.
The most important characteristic of an organization’s policies is to reflect the organization’s risk appetite, which is the amount and type of risk that the organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its goals. The risk appetite is usually expressed as a range or a threshold, and it is aligned with the organization’s strategy and culture.
Reflecting the organization’s risk appetite in its policies ensures that the policies are consistent, appropriate, and proportional to the level and nature of the risks that the organization faces, and that they support the organization’s objectives and values. It also helps to optimize the balance between risk and return, and to create and protect value for the organization and its stakeholders.
The other options are not the most important characteristic of an organization’s policies, because they do not address the fundamental question of whether the policies are suitable and acceptable for the organization.
The risk assessment methodology is the process of identifying, analyzing, and evaluating the risks that may affect the organization’s objectives and operations. It involves determining the likelihood and impact of various risk scenarios, and prioritizing them based on their significance and urgency. The risk assessment methodology is important to inform and support the organization’s policies, but it is not the most important characteristic of the policies, because it does not indicate whether the policies are aligned with the organization’s risk appetite.
The capabilities are the resources and abilities that the organization has or can acquire to achieve its objectives and manage its risks. They include the people, processes, technologies, and assets that the organization uses or relies on. The capabilities are important to enable and implement theorganization’s policies, but they are not the most important characteristic of the policies, because they do not indicate whether the policies are aligned with the organization’s risk appetite.
The asset value is the worth or importance of the assets that the organization owns or controls, and that may be affected by the risks that the organization faces. The assets include the tangible and intangible resources that the organization uses or relies on, such as data, information, systems, infrastructure, reputation, etc. The asset value is important to measure and monitor the organization’s policies, but it is not the most important characteristic of the policies, because itdoes not indicate whether the policies are aligned with the organization’s risk appetite. References =
ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, pp. 29-30, 34-35, 38-39, 44-45, 50-51, 54-55
ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 148
CRISC Practice Quiz and Exam Prep
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when sharing risk management updates with executive management?
Using an aggregated view of organizational risk
Ensuring relevance to organizational goals
Relying on key risk indicator (KRI) data Including
Trend analysis of risk metrics
According to the CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), the most important consideration when sharing risk management updates with executive management is ensuring relevance toorganizational goals, as this helps to align risk management with business strategy and performance. The risk management updates should:
Highlight the key risks that may affect the achievement of the organizational goals and objectives
Demonstrate the value and benefits of risk management in supporting decision making and enhancing business resilience
Provide clear and concise information on the current risk profile, risk appetite, risk tolerance and risk exposure of the organization
Recommend appropriate risk response actions and resource allocation to address the identified risks
Communicate the roles and responsibilities of executive management in overseeing and governing risk management
References = CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 4: IT Risk Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.2: IT Risk Reporting, pp. 221-2221
An organization automatically approves exceptions to security policies on a recurring basis. This practice is MOST likely the result of:
a lack of mitigating actions for identified risk
decreased threat levels
ineffective service delivery
ineffective IT governance
IT governance is the process of ensuring that IT supports the organization’s objectives and strategies, and that IT risks are managed appropriately. IT governance involves defining the roles, responsibilities, and accountabilities of the IT stakeholders, establishing the IT policies, standards, and procedures, and monitoring and evaluating the IT performance and outcomes1.
An organization that automatically approves exceptions to security policies on a recurring basis is most likely the result of ineffective IT governance, because it indicates that the organization:
Lacks a clear and consistent IT strategy and direction, and does not align IT with the business goals and needs
Fails to implement and enforce the IT policies, standards, and procedures, and does not ensure the compliance and accountability of the IT users and providers
Neglects to identify and assess the IT risks, and does not implement the appropriate risk responses and controls
Does not monitor and measure the IT performance and outcomes, and does not review and improve the IT processes and practices23
The other options are not the most likely results of ineffective IT governance, but rather some of the possible causes or consequences of it. A lack of mitigating actions for identified risk is a possible consequence of ineffective IT governance, as it implies that the organization does not have a systematic and proactiveapproach to IT risk management, and does not address the IT risks in a timely and effective manner. Decreased threat levels is a possible cause of ineffective IT governance, as it may create a false sense of security and complacency, and reduce the motivation and urgency to implement and follow the IT policies, standards, and procedures. Ineffective service delivery is a possible consequence of ineffective IT governance, as it means that the organization does not deliver the IT services that meet the expectations and requirements of the customers and stakeholders, and does not ensure the quality and reliability of the IT services. References =
IT Governance - ISACA
IT Governance: What It Is and Why You Need It
IT Governance: The Benefits of an Effective Enterprise IT Governance Framework
[CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition]
From a risk management perspective, the PRIMARY objective of using maturity models is to enable:
solution delivery.
resource utilization.
strategic alignment.
performance evaluation.
Maturity models are tools that help organizations assess and improve their risk management processes and capabilities. They provide a set of criteria or standards that define different levels of maturity, from ad-hoc to innovative. The primary objective of using maturity models in risk management is to enable strategic alignment, which means ensuring that the risk management activities and objectives are consistent with and support the organization’s mission, vision, values, and goals. By using maturity models, organizations can identify their current level of risk management maturity, compare it with their desired level, and plan and implement actions to close the gap. This way, they can align their risk management practices with their strategic direction and priorities, and enhance their performance and value creation. References = How to Use a Maturity Model in Risk Management — RiskOptics - Reciprocity, Using a Maturity Model to Assess Your Risk Management Program, How to Use a Risk Maturity Model to Level Up · Riskonnect
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when prioritizing risk response?
Requirements for regulatory obligations.
Cost of control implementation.
Effectiveness of risk treatment.
Number of risk response options.
The effectiveness of risk treatment determines whether the selected response sufficiently mitigates the identified risk. This consideration ensures alignment with risk appetite and reduces residual risk to acceptable levels, reflecting the priorities set out in theRisk Response and Treatmentdomain of CRISC.
Which of the following actions should a risk practitioner do NEXT when an increased industry trend of external cyber attacks is identified?
Conduct a threat and vulnerability analysis.
Notify senior management of the new risk scenario.
Update the risk impact rating in the risk register.
Update the key risk indicator (KRI) in the risk register.
A possible action that a risk practitioner should do next when an increased industry trend of external cyber attacks is identified is A. Conduct a threat and vulnerability analysis. A threat and vulnerability analysis is a process of identifying and assessing the potential sources and methodsof cyber attacks, as well as the weaknesses and gaps in the organization’s information systems and security controls12 By conducting a threat and vulnerability analysis, a risk practitioner can determine the level of exposure and risk that the organization faces from external cyber attacks, and prioritize the actions and resources needed to mitigate or prevent them3 A threat and vulnerability analysis can also help to update the risk impact rating and the key risk indicator in the risk register, as well as to notify senior management of the new risk scenario, but these are subsequent steps that follow after the analysis is completed. Therefore, the first action that a risk practitioner should do next is to conduct a threat and vulnerability analysis.
Which of the following is MOST helpful in defining an early-warning threshold associated with insufficient network bandwidth’’?
Average bandwidth usage
Peak bandwidth usage
Total bandwidth usage
Bandwidth used during business hours
Peak bandwidth usage is the most helpful in defining an early-warning threshold associated with insufficient network bandwidth. Peak bandwidth usage is the maximum amount of data that istransferred over a network connection at a given time. It indicates the highest demand and stress on the network resources and capacity. By monitoring the peak bandwidth usage, the organization can identify the potential bottlenecks, slowdowns, and disruptions that may occur due to insufficient network bandwidth. The organization can also plan and allocate the network bandwidth accordingly to meet the peak demand and avoid service degradation. The other options are not as helpful as peak bandwidth usage, as they do not reflect the actual or potential network performance issues that may arise due to insufficient network bandwidth. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.3: Key Risk Indicators, page 197.
Which of the following BEST reduces the probability of laptop theft?
Cable lock
Acceptable use policy
Data encryption
Asset tag with GPS
According to the CRISC Review Manual1, a cable lock is a physical security device that attaches a laptop to a fixed object, such as a desk or a wall, to prevent unauthorized removal or theft. A cable lock is the best option to reduce the probability of laptop theft, as it acts as a deterrent and a barrier for potential thieves. A cable lock also helps to protect the confidentiality, integrity, andavailability of the data stored on the laptop, as well as the laptop itself. References = CRISC Review Manual1, page 253.
Which of the following is MOST important when conducting a post-implementation review as part of the system development life cycle (SDLC)?
Verifying that project objectives are met
Identifying project cost overruns
Leveraging an independent review team
Reviewing the project initiation risk matrix
The most important activity when conducting a post-implementation review as part of the system development life cycle (SDLC) is to verify that the project objectives are met. The project objectives are the specific and measurable outcomes that the project aims to achieve. By verifying that the project objectives are met, the post-implementation review can evaluate the success and value of the project, and identify the lessons learned and best practices for future projects. Identifying project cost overruns, leveraging an independent review team, and reviewing the project initiation risk matrix are other possible activities, but they are not as important as verifying that the project objectives are met. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 4; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 153.
Which of the following potential scenarios associated with the implementation of a new database technology presents the GREATEST risk to an organization?
The organization may not have a sufficient number of skilled resources.
Application and data migration cost for backups may exceed budget.
Data may not be recoverable due to system failures.
The database system may not be scalable in the future.
The potential scenario that presents the greatest risk to an organization when implementing a new database technology is that data may not be recoverable due to system failures. Data recovery is the process of restoring or retrieving data that has been lost, corrupted, or damaged due to system failures, such as hardware malfunctions, software errors, power outages, or natural disasters. Data recovery is essential for the continuity and integrity of the organization’s operations and information, as data is one of the most valuable and critical assets of the organization. Data recovery is also important for the compliance and accountability of the organization, as data may be subject to legal or regulatory requirements, such as retention, backup, or audit. Data recovery may be challenging or impossible when implementing a new database technology, because the new technology may not be compatible or interoperable with the existing systems, applications, or backups, or because the new technology may nothave adequate or tested recovery mechanisms or procedures. Data recovery may also be costly or time-consuming when implementing a new database technology, because the new technology may require additional or specialized resources, tools, or expertise, or because the new technology may involve large or complex data sets or structures. The other options are not as risky as data recovery, although they may also pose some difficulties or limitations for the new database technology implementation. The organization may not have a sufficient number of skilled resources, application and data migration cost for backups may exceed budget, and the database system may not be scalable in the future are all factors that could affect the feasibility and sustainability of the new database technology, but they do not directly affect the continuity and integrity of the organization’s operations and information. References = 2
Which of the following BEST enables a risk practitioner to focus on risk factors that could potentially affect the results of an IT initiative?
Prioritizing threats and controls
Assessing trends in quantitative risk analysis results
Measuring and reporting qualitative risk trends
Conducting stakeholder surveys
Prioritizing threats and controls helps tofocus resources and mitigationon high-risk elements that directly impact project objectives. This enhances decision-making and project alignment with business goals.
Which of the following provides the BEST evidence that risk responses are effective?
Residual risk is within risk tolerance.
Risk with low impact is accepted.
Risk ownership is identified and assigned.
Compliance breaches are addressed in a timely manner.
Residual risk is the risk that remains after the risk response has been implemented. Risk tolerance is the acceptable level of variation from the desired outcome or objective. If the residual risk is within the risk tolerance, it means that the risk response has been effective in reducing the risk to an acceptable level.
References
•ISACA CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, Domain 3: Risk Response, Section 3.1.1: Residual Risk
•Residual Risk: Definition, Formula & Management - Video & Lesson Transcript | Study.com
•Risk Tolerance - ISACA
Which of the following is a business asset for an organization that runs only in a Software as a Service (SaaS) cloud computing environment?
Hosted data
Platforms
Containers
Security logs
In a SaaS environment, the provider manages infrastructure and platforms. The primary asset that remains under the organization’s control is its hosted data. Hence, data is the key business asset.
Which of the following is MOST important to identify when developing top-down risk scenarios?
Key procedure control gaps
Business objectives
Senior management's risk appetite
Hypothetical scenarios
The most important factor to identify when developing top-down risk scenarios is B. Business objectives12
Top-down risk scenarios are based on the organization’s strategic goals, objectives, and key performance indicators (KPIs), and they aim to identify the potential events or situations that could prevent or hinder the achievement of those goals and objectives12
By identifying the business objectives, the risk practitioner can align the risk scenarios with the organization’s mission, vision, and values, and ensure that the risk scenarios are relevant, realistic, and meaningful for the senior management and other stakeholders12
The other factors are not as important as the business objectives when developing top-down risk scenarios, because they are either more relevant for bottom-up risk scenarios (A and D), or they are derived from the business objectives and the risk scenarios ©12
Which of the following is the MAIN reason for analyzing risk scenarios?
Identifying additional risk scenarios
Updating the heat map
Assessing loss expectancy
Establishing a risk appetite
According to the Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, the main reason for analyzing risk scenarios is to identify additional risk scenarios that may not have been considered in the initial risk identification process. Risk scenarios are hypothetical situations that describe how, where, and why adverse events can occur. By analyzing risk scenarios, the risk manager can gain a better understanding of the relationships between assets, processes, threats, vulnerabilities, and other factors that may affect the organization’s objectives. Analyzing risk scenarios can also help to evaluate the likelihood and impact of the potential risks, as well as the effectiveness of the existing controls and the need for additional controls. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 5, Section 5.2.1, Page 215. How to write good risk scenarios and statements
Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of integrating risk and security requirements in an organization's enterprise architecture (EA)?
Adherence to legal and compliance requirements
Reduction in the number of test cases in the acceptance phase
Establishment of digital forensic architectures
Consistent management of information assets
Integrating risk and security requirements in an organization’s enterprise architecture (EA) helps to ensure that information assets are consistently managed throughout their life cycle, and that the risks associated with them are identified and mitigated. (Risk and Information Systems Control Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, 5th Edition, page 112)
Which of the following is the MOST appropriate key performance indicator (KPI) to measure change management performance?
Percentage of changes implemented successfully
Percentage of rejected change requests
Number of after-hours emergency changes
Number of change control requests
Thepercentage of successfully implemented changesdirectly reflects the effectiveness and stability of the change management process. It measures whether changes achieve intended results without disruption.
What is MOST important for the risk practitioner to understand when creating an initial IT risk register?
Enterprise architecture (EA)
Control environment
IT objectives
Organizational objectives
The most important factor for the risk practitioner to understand when creating an initial IT risk register is the organizational objectives. The organizational objectives are the specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound (SMART) goals that the organization aims to accomplish. The organizational objectives should be aligned with the organization’s vision, mission, and strategy, as well as the stakeholder expectations and needs. The organizational objectives should also reflect the desired outcomes and benefits of the organization, such as increasing revenue, reducing costs, improving quality, or enhancing customer satisfaction. Understanding the organizational objectives is the most important factor when creating an initial IT risk register, because it provides the context, scope, and criteria for identifying, analyzing, and prioritizing the IT risks that may affect or be affected by the organizational objectives.Understanding the organizational objectives also helps to align the IT risk management process with the organizational risk management process, and to communicate the value and impact of the IT risks and the IT risk responses to the senior management and other stakeholders. The other options are not the most important factor, although they may be relevant or influential to the IT risk register. Enterprise architecture (EA) is a conceptual blueprint that defines the structure and operation of an organization. EA describes the current and future state of the organization in terms of its business processes, information systems, and technology infrastructure, and the relationships and dependencies among them. EA also provides the principles, standards, and guidelines for designing, developing, and implementing the organization’s solutions and services. EA can help to understand the IT risk sources, causes, and effects, as well as the IT risk mitigation options and opportunities, but it does not define the purpose or the scope of the IT risk register. Control environment is the set of policies, procedures, and mechanisms that ensure the reliability, security, and quality of the organization’s activities and information. Control environment includes the tone and culture at the top, the roles and responsibilities for governance and oversight, the internal control framework and methodology, and the monitoring and reporting systems. Control environment can help to assess the IT risk levels and the IT risk responses, as well as to ensure the compliance and accountability of the IT risk management process, but it does not provide the context or the criteria for the IT risk register. IT objectives are the specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound (SMART) goals that the IT function aims to accomplish. IT objectives should be aligned and consistent with the organizational objectives, as well as the IT strategy and IT governance. IT objectives should also reflect the expected outcomes and benefits of the IT function, such as delivering value, enabling innovation, or supporting transformation. IT objectives can help to identify and prioritize the IT risks that may affect or be affected by the IT objectives, but they are not the same as or more important than the organizational objectives. References = Three Steps to Creating a Simple IT Risk Register - Gartner, Risk Register Template and Examples | Prioritize and Manage Risk, IT Resources | Knowledge & Insights | ISACA
Which of the following is the MOST important success factor when introducing risk management in an organization?
Implementing a risk register
Defining a risk mitigation strategy and plan
Assigning risk ownership
Establishing executive management support
Establishing executive management support is the most important success factor when introducing risk management in an organization. This is because executive management support can help ensure that risk management is aligned with the organization’s vision, mission, and strategy, as well as provide the necessary resources, authority, and accountability for riskmanagement activities. Executive management support can also help foster a risk-aware culture,promote stakeholder engagement, and facilitate risk communication and reporting. According to the CRISC Review Manual 2022, one of the key elements of IT governance is to obtain executive management support and commitment for risk management1. According to the web search results, executive management support is a critical success factor for risk management in various contexts and industries234.
The results of a risk assessment reveal risk scenarios with high impact and low likelihood of occurrence. Which of the following would be the BEST action to address these scenarios?
Assemble an incident response team.
Create a disaster recovery plan (DRP).
Develop a risk response plan.
Initiate a business impact analysis (BIA).
Developing a risk response plan is the best action to address the risk scenarios with high impact and low likelihood of occurrence, because it helps to define and implement the appropriate actions to reduce or eliminate the risk, or to prepare for and recover from the potential consequences. A risk response plan is a document that outlines the strategies and tactics for managing the identified risks, such as avoiding, transferring, mitigating, or accepting the risk. A risk response plan also assigns the roles and responsibilities for the risk owners and stakeholders, and sets the timelines and budgets for the risk response activities. A risk scenario with high impact and low likelihood of occurrence is a rare but severe event that may cause significant disruption or damage to the organization or its objectives, such as a natural disaster, a cyberattack, or a pandemic. Therefore, developing a risk response plan is the best action to address these scenarios, as it helps to minimize the exposure and impact of the risk, and to enhance the resilience and recovery of the organization. Assembling an incident response team, creating a disaster recovery plan (DRP), and initiating a business impact analysis (BIA) are all important actions to perform as part of the risk response plan, but they are not the best action, as they do not cover the whole spectrum of risk response strategies and activities. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.4.2, page 103
Which of the following is MOST important for an organization to have in place when developing a risk management framework?
A strategic approach to risk including an established risk appetite
A risk-based internal audit plan for the organization
A control function within the risk management team
An organization-wide risk awareness training program
The most important thing for an organization to have in place when developing a risk management framework is a strategic approach to risk including an established risk appetite, as this provides the direction, scope, and objectives of the risk management process, and defines the level of risk that the organization is willing to accept or avoid in pursuit of its goals. A strategic approach to risk aligns the risk management framework with the organization’s vision, mission, values, and strategy, and ensures that the risk management activities support the achievement of the desired outcomes. An established risk appetite sets the boundaries and criteria for risk decision making, and guides the selection and implementation of risk responses. The other options are not the most important things for an organization to have in place when developing a risk management framework, although they may be useful or necessary components of it. A risk-based internal audit plan is a tool that helps to evaluate and improve the effectiveness of the risk management framework, but it does not define or drive the risk management process. A control function within the risk management team is a role that helps to implement and monitor the risk controls, but it does not determine or influence the risk strategy or appetite. An organization-wide risk awareness training program is a method that helps to enhance the risk culture and competence of the organization, but it does not establish or communicate the risk approach or appetite. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1: IT Risk Identification, page 23.
Which of the following is the MOST effective way to help ensure future risk levels do not exceed the organization's risk appetite?
Establishing a series of key risk indicators (KRIs).
Adding risk triggers to entries in the risk register.
Implementing key performance indicators (KPIs).
Developing contingency plans for key processes.
KRIs provide predictive metrics to monitor changes in risk levels, enabling timely interventions to maintain risks within the organization's appetite. This aligns with theRisk Monitoring and Reportingframework, which emphasizes proactive identification of risk thresholds.
The MAIN purpose of a risk register is to:
document the risk universe of the organization.
promote an understanding of risk across the organization.
enable well-informed risk management decisions.
identify stakeholders associated with risk scenarios.
The main purpose of a risk register is to enable well-informed risk management decisions by providing a comprehensive and up-to-date record of all the identified risks, their analysis, and their responses. A risk register is a tool that helps to document, monitor, and communicate the status and outcome of risk management activities. A risk register also facilitates the review and evaluation of the effectiveness of risk management processes and controls. Documenting the risk universe, promoting an understanding of risk,and identifying stakeholders are possible benefits of a risk register, but they are not the main purpose. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.1.1.3, page 531
1: ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC®) Exam Guide, Answer to Question 640.
The number of tickets to rework application code has significantly exceeded the established threshold. Which of the following would be the risk practitioner s BEST recommendation?
Perform a root cause analysis
Perform a code review
Implement version control software.
Implement training on coding best practices
A root cause analysis is a process of identifying and understanding the underlying or fundamental causes or factors that contribute to or result in a problem or incident that has occurred or may occur in the organization. A root cause analysis can provide useful insights and solutions on the origin and nature of the problem or incident, and prevent or reduce its recurrence or impact.
Performing a root cause analysis is the risk practitioner’s best recommendation when the number of tickets to rework application code has significantly exceeded the established threshold, because it can help the organization to address the following questions:
Why did the application code require rework?
What were the errors or defects in the application code?
How did the errors or defects affect the functionality or usability of the application?
Who was responsible or accountable for the application code development and testing?
When and how were the errors or defects detected and reported?
What were the costs or consequences of the rework for the organization and its stakeholders?
How can the errors or defects be prevented or minimized in the future?
Performing a root cause analysis can help the organization to improve and optimize the application code quality and performance, and to reduce or eliminate the need for rework. It can also help the organization to align the application code development and testing with the organization’s objectives and requirements, and to comply with the organization’s policies and standards.
The other options are not the risk practitioner’s best recommendations when the number of tickets to rework application code has significantly exceeded the established threshold, because they do not address the main purpose and benefit of performing a root cause analysis, which is to identify and understand the underlying or fundamental causes or factors that contribute to or result in the problem or incident.
Performing a code review is a process of examining and evaluating the application code for its quality, functionality, and security, using the input and feedback from the peers, experts, or tools. Performing a code review can help the organization to identify and resolve the errors or defects in the application code, but it is not the risk practitioner’s best recommendation, because it doesnot indicate why the application code required rework, and how the errors or defects affected the organization and its stakeholders.
Implementing version control software is a process of using a software tool to manage and track the changes and modifications to the application code, and to ensure the consistency and integrity of the application code. Implementing version control software can help theorganization to control and monitor the application code development and testing, but it is not the risk practitioner’s best recommendation, because it does not indicate why the application code required rework, and how the errors or defects affected the organization and its stakeholders.
Implementing training on coding best practices is a process of providing and facilitating the learning and development of the skills and knowledge on the principles, guidelines, and standards for the application code development and testing. Implementing training on coding best practices can help the organization to enhance the competence and performance of the application code developers and testers, but it is not the risk practitioner’s best recommendation, because it does not indicate why the application code required rework, and how the errors or defects affected the organization and its stakeholders. References =
ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, pp. 40-41, 47-48, 54-55, 58-59, 62-63
ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 189
CRISC Practice Quiz and Exam Prep
An effective control environment is BEST indicated by controls that:
minimize senior management's risk tolerance.
manage risk within the organization's risk appetite.
reduce the thresholds of key risk indicators (KRIs).
are cost-effective to implement
According to the CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), an effective control environment is best indicated by controls that manage risk within the organization’s risk appetite, as this reflects the alignment of thecontrol objectives and activities with the organization’s strategic goals and risk preferences. The risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that the organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. Managing risk within the organization’s risk appetite helps to:
Balance the potential benefits and costs of risk-taking and risk response
Optimize the use of the organization’s resources and capabilities
Enhance the value and performance of the organization
Foster a risk-aware culture that supports the organization’s vision and mission
References = CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.3: IT Risk Assessment Process, pp. 93-941
Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for logging in a production database environment?
To provide evidence of activities
To prevent illicit actions of database administrators (DBAs)
To ensure that changes are authorized
To ensure that changes made are correctly applied
The primary reason for logging is to provide evidence of activities, ensuring accountability and traceability. This supports investigations, audits, and compliance requirements, aligning withControl Monitoring and Reportingstandards.
Which of the following data would be used when performing a business impact analysis (BIA)?
Cost-benefit analysis of running the current business
Cost of regulatory compliance
Projected impact of current business on future business
Expected costs for recovering the business
A business impact analysis (BIA) is a process that identifies and assesses the effects that accidents, emergencies, disasters, and other unplanned, negative events could have on a business. The BIA (sometimes also called business impact assessment) predicts how a business will be affected by everything from a hurricane to a labor strike1.
One of the data that would be used when performing a BIA is the expected costs for recovering the business. This data can help to estimate the amount of resources and funds that would be needed to restore the normal operations and functions of the business after a disruption. The expected costs for recovering the business can include:
The costs of repairing or replacing damaged or lost assets, such as equipment, inventory, or facilities
The costs of hiring or training additional staff, or outsourcing some tasks or services
The costs of implementing alternative or backup systems or processes, such as cloud computing or manual procedures
The costs of communicating and coordinating with customers, suppliers, partners, regulators, and other stakeholders
The costs of complying with legal or contractual obligations, or paying fines or penalties
The costs of mitigating or preventing further losses or damages, such as insurance premiums or security measures23
The expected costs for recovering the business can help to determine the priority and urgency of the recovery activities, and to allocate the available resources and funds accordingly. The expected costs for recovering the business can also help to evaluate the cost-effectiveness and feasibility of the recovery strategies and options, and to justify the investment in the business continuity planning and management4.
The other options are not the data that would be used when performing a BIA, but rather the data that would be used for other purposes or processes. A cost-benefit analysis of running the current business is a data that would be used to compare the advantages and disadvantages of different business decisions or alternatives, such as launching a new product or service, or expanding to a new market. A cost-benefit analysis can help to assess the profitability and viability of the current business, but it does not measure the impact of a disruption on the business5. A cost of regulatory compliance is a data that would be used toestimate the amount of resources and funds that would be required to meet the rules and standards set by the authorities or agencies that govern the business, such as laws, regulations, or policies. A cost of regulatory compliance can help to ensure the legality and accountability of the business, but it does not measure the impactof a disruption on the business. A projected impact of current business on future business is a data that would be used to forecast the potential outcomes and consequences of the current business activities or strategies on the future business performance and growth, such as sales, revenue, market share, or customer satisfaction. A projected impact of current business on future business can help to plan and optimize the future business, but it does not measure the impact of a disruption on the current business. References =
Business Impact Analysis | Ready.gov
Business Impact Analysis Toolkit | Smartsheet
Business Impact Analysis (BIA): Prepare for Anything [2023] • Asana
How To Conduct Business Impact Analysis in 8 Easy Steps - G2
Cost Benefit Analysis - ISACA
[Regulatory Compliance - ISACA]
[Impact Analysis - ISACA]
[CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition]
Which of the following is the BEST control to detect an advanced persistent threat (APT)?
Utilizing antivirus systems and firewalls
Conducting regular penetration tests
Monitoring social media activities
Implementing automated log monitoring
Implementing automated log monitoring is the best control to detect an advanced persistent threat (APT), which is a stealthy and continuous attack on a target network or system. Automated log monitoring can help to identify anomalous or suspicious activities, such as unusual network traffic, unauthorized access attempts, or data exfiltration, that may indicate the presence of an APT. Utilizing antivirus systems and firewalls, conducting regular penetration tests, and monitoring social media activities are controls that help to prevent or mitigate APTs, but not to detect them. References = Most Asked CRISC Exam Questions and Answers - The Knowledge Academy, question 200.
A bank recently incorporated Blockchain technology with the potential to impact known risk within the organization. Which of the following is the risk practitioner’s BEST course of action?
Determine whether risk responses are still adequate.
Analyze and update control assessments with the new processes.
Analyze the risk and update the risk register as needed.
Conduct testing of the control that mitigate the existing risk.
The best course of action for a risk practitioner when a bank recently incorporated Blockchain technology with the potential to impact known risk within the organization is to analyze the risk and update the risk register as needed. Blockchain technology is a new and emerging technologythat may introduce new risks or change the existing risks for the bank. Therefore, the risk practitioner should perform a risk analysis to identify, assess, and evaluate the risks associated with the Blockchain technology, and update the risk register accordingly. Determining whether risk responses are still adequate, analyzing and updating control assessments, and conducting testing of the controls are possible actions that may follow the risk analysis, but they are not the best initial course of action. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 4; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 153.
Which of the following is the MAIN benefit to an organization using key risk indicators (KRIs)?
KRIs assist in the preparation of the organization's risk profile.
KRIs signal that a change in the control environment has occurred.
KRIs provide a basis to set the risk appetite for an organization
KRIs provide an early warning that a risk threshold is about to be reached.
The main benefit of using key risk indicators (KRIs) for an organization is that they provide an early warning that a risk threshold is about to be reached. KRIs are metrics that measure the likelihood and impact of risks, and help monitor and prioritize the most critical risks. KRIs also help to trigger timely and appropriate risk responses, before the risk becomes unmanageable or unacceptable. The other options are not the main benefit of using KRIs, although they may be secondary benefits or outcomes. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.4.1, page 4-36.
Which of the following would BEST enable a risk-based decision when considering the use of an emerging technology for data processing?
Gap analysis
Threat assessment
Resource skills matrix
Data quality assurance plan
The best way to enable a risk-based decision when considering the use of an emerging technology for data processing is to perform a gap analysis. A gap analysis is a technique that compares the current state and the desired state of a process, system, or capability, and identifies the gaps or differences between them. A gap analysis can help to evaluate the benefits, costs, risks, and opportunities of using an emerging technology for data processing, and to determine the feasibility, suitability, and readiness of adopting the emerging technology. The other options are not as helpful as a gap analysis, as they are related to the specific aspects or components ofthe data processing, not the overall assessment and comparison of the current and desired state of the data processing. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1: IT Risk Identification, Section 1.2: IT Risk Identification Methods, page 19.
Which of the following would provide the BEST evidence of an effective internal control environment/?
Risk assessment results
Adherence to governing policies
Regular stakeholder briefings
Independent audit results
The best evidence of an effective internal control environment is the independent audit results. Independent audit results are the outcomes or findings of an external or independent party that evaluates the design, implementation, and operation of the internal controls. Independent audit results can provide an objective, reliable, and consistent assessment of the internal control environment, and identify the strengths, weaknesses, gaps, or issues of the internal controls. Independent audit results can also provide assurance, recommendations, or improvement opportunities for the internal control environment. The other options are not as good as independent audit results, as they are related to the inputs, processes, oroutputs of the internal control environment, not the evaluation or verification of the internal controlenvironment. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.3: IT Control Assessment, page 69.
A risk practitioner is performing a risk assessment of recent external advancements in quantum computing. Which of the following would pose the GREATEST concern for the risk practitioner?
The organization has incorporated blockchain technology in its operations.
The organization has not reviewed its encryption standards.
The organization has implemented heuristics on its network firewall.
The organization has not adopted Infrastructure as a Service (laaS) for its operations.
An organization has outsourced its lease payment process to a service provider who lacks evidence of compliance with a necessary regulatory standard. Which risk treatment was adopted by the organization?
Acceptance
Transfer
Mitigation
Avoidance
According to the ERM - Step 3 - Risk Treatment article, risk transfer is a risk treatment option that involves passing ownership and/or liability of a risk to a third party, such as an insurance company, a contractor, or a supplier. Risk transfer is usually adopted when the organization does not have the capability or the resources to manage the risk internally, or when the cost of transferring the risk is lower than the cost of retaining the risk. In this case, the organization has outsourced its lease payment process to a service provider who lacks evidence of compliance with a necessary regulatory standard. This means that the organization has transferred the risk ofnon-compliance to the service provider, who is now responsible for ensuring that the lease payment process meets the regulatory requirements. Therefore, the answer is B. Transfer. References = ERM - Step 3 - Risk Treatment
Which of the following risk activities is BEST facilitated by enterprise architecture (EA)?
Aligning business unit risk responses to organizational priorities
Determining attack likelihood per business unit
Adjusting business unit risk tolerances
Customizing incident response plans for each business unit
A service organization is preparing to adopt an IT control framework to comply with the contractual requirements of a new client. Which of the following would be MOST helpful to the risk practitioner?
Negotiating terms of adoption
Understanding the timeframe to implement
Completing a gap analysis
Initiating the conversion
Completing a gap analysis identifies discrepancies between current controls and the requirements of the IT control framework, ensuring a focused approach to compliance. This supportsRisk Assessment for Compliance Requirements.
Which of the following controls would BEST reduce the likelihood of a successful network attack through social engineering?
Automated controls
Security awareness training
Multifactor authentication
Employee sanctions
The best control to reduce the likelihood of a successful network attack through social engineering is security awareness training. Security awareness training is a program that educates and trains employees on the common types, techniques, and indicators of social engineering attacks, such as phishing, baiting, pretexting, and quid pro quo12. Security awareness training also teaches employees how to protect themselves and the organization from social engineering attacks, such as by verifying the identity and legitimacy of the sender or caller, avoiding clicking on suspicious links or attachments, reporting any suspicious or unusual activity, and following the organization’s security policies and procedures. Security awareness training can help to reduce the likelihood of a successful network attack through social engineering, because it can increase the employees’ knowledge, skills, and confidence in recognizing and responding to social engineering attempts, and it can also foster a culture of security and responsibility among the employees. The other options are not the best control, although they may be useful or complementary to security awareness training. Automated controls are technical or procedural controls that are performed by a system or a device without human intervention, such as firewalls, antivirus software, encryption, and backups. Automated controls can help to protect the network from external or internal threats, but they may not be effective against social engineering attacks, which rely on humaninteraction and manipulation.Multifactor authentication is a security mechanism that requires users to provide two or more pieces of evidence to verify their identity and access a system or a service, such as a password, a token, a fingerprint, or a facial recognition. Multifactor authentication can help to prevent unauthorized access to the network, but it may not prevent social engineering attacks, which may persuade users to share or compromise their authentication factors. Employee sanctions are disciplinary actions that are taken against employees who violate the organization’s security policies and procedures, such as warnings, fines, suspensions, or terminations. Employee sanctions can help to deter and punish employees who fall victim to or facilitate social engineering attacks, but they may not prevent or reduce the likelihood of social engineering attacks, and they may also create a negative or fearful work environment. References = Avoiding Social Engineering and Phishing Attacks | CISA, What is Social Engineering | Attack Techniques & Prevention Methods …, 10 Types of Social Engineering Attacks - CrowdStrike
Which of the following trends would cause the GREATEST concern regarding the effectiveness of an organization's user access control processes? An increase in the:
ratio of disabled to active user accounts.
percentage of users with multiple user accounts.
average number of access entitlements per user account.
average time between user transfers and access updates.
The average time between user transfers and access updates is a trend that would cause the greatest concern regarding the effectiveness of an organization’s user access control processes, as it indicates thedelay or inefficiency in updating the user access rights and privileges according to the user’s current role and responsibilities. This can result in unauthorized or excessive access to the organization’s information assets, and increase the risk of data leakage, fraud, or misuse. The user access control processes should ensure that the user access rights and privileges are reviewed and modified regularly, and especially when the user’s role or status changes, such as transfer, promotion, demotion, or termination. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, Question241. CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, Question 241. CRISC Sample Questions 2024, Question 241.
Which of the following should be the PRIMARY consideration when assessing the automation of control monitoring?
impact due to failure of control
Frequency of failure of control
Contingency plan for residual risk
Cost-benefit analysis of automation
Automation of control monitoring is the application of technology to allow continuous or high-frequency, automated monitoring of controls to validate the effectiveness of controls designed to mitigate risk1.
Automation of control monitoring can provide benefits such as increased test coverage, improved timeliness, reduced risk velocity, greater visibility, improved consistency, and the ability to identify trends23.
However, automation of control monitoring also involves costs such as the acquisition, implementation, maintenance, and updating of the technology, as well as the training and support of the staff who use it45.
Therefore, the primary consideration when assessing the automation of control monitoring is the cost-benefit analysis of automation, which compares the expected benefits and costs of automation and determines whether the benefits outweigh the costs or vice versa45.
The other options are not the primary consideration, but rather secondary or tertiary factors that may influence the decision to automate or not. For example, the impact due to failure of controland the frequency of failure of control are aspects of the risk assessment that may indicatethe need for automation, but they do not provide the basis for evaluating the feasibility and desirability of automation45. Similarly, the contingency plan for residual risk is a component of the risk response that may include automation as a risk mitigation strategy, but it does not measure the effectiveness and efficiency of automation45. References =
2: A Practical Approach to Continuous Control Monitoring, ISACA Journal, Volume 2, 2015
3: Continuous Controls Monitoring: The Next Generation Of Controls Testing, Forbes Technology Council, June 2, 2022
1: Making Continuous Controls Monitoring Work for Everyone, ISACA Now Blog, June 13, 2022
4: Controls Automation - Monitoring vs. Operation - Part 3, Turnkey Consulting, July 29, 2021
5: What’s Continuous Control Monitoring and Why Is It Important?, MetricStream Blog, October 15, 2019
The PRIMARY benefit of using a maturity model is that it helps to evaluate the:
capability to implement new processes
evolution of process improvements
degree of compliance with policies and procedures
control requirements.
A maturity model is a framework that describes the stages or levels of development and improvement of a certain domain, such as a process, a function, or an organization. A maturitymodel can help to evaluate the current state, identify the strengths and weaknesses, set the goals and objectives, and measure the performance and improvement over time. The primary benefit of using a maturity model is that it helps to evaluate the evolution of process improvements, meaning that it can help to track the progress andchanges of the processes, as well as to identify the best practices and standards. A maturity model can also help to compare the processes with the industry benchmarks and competitors, as well as to align the processes with the business strategy and vision. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.3.2.1, p. 118-119
Real-time monitoring of security cameras implemented within a retail store is an example of which type of control?
Preventive
Deterrent
Compensating
Detective
Real-time monitoring is adetective control, as it is designed to identify and report suspicious or unauthorized activities as they occur. Detective controls provide feedback to mitigate ongoing risks and serve as an integral part of incident response plans.
Which of the following BEST supports ethical IT risk management practices?
Robust organizational communication channels
Mapping of key risk indicators (KRIs) to corporate strategy
Capability maturity models integrated with risk management frameworks
Rigorously enforced operational service level agreements (SLAs)
Robust organizational communication channels are the best way to support ethical IT risk management practices, as they enable transparent and consistent sharing of risk information anddecisions among all stakeholders. Ethical IT risk management requires that the risk management process and outcomes are aligned with the enterprise’s values, objectives, and obligations, and that the risk management activities are conducted with integrity, accountability, and respect. Robust organizational communication channels facilitate these aspects by ensuring that the risk management roles and responsibilities are clearly defined and communicated, that the risk management policies and procedures are widely disseminated and understood, that the risk management performance and results are regularly reported and reviewed, and that the risk management feedback and improvement suggestions are solicited and addressed. Mapping of key risk indicators (KRIs) to corporate strategy, capability maturity models integrated with risk management frameworks, and rigorously enforced operational service level agreements (SLAs) are not directly related to ethical IT risk management practices, but rather to the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk management process. References = CRISC Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control – Question201; ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 201.
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