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OCEG GRCP GRC Professional Certification Exam Exam Practice Test

Demo: 74 questions
Total 249 questions

GRC Professional Certification Exam Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which design option is characterized by ceasing all activity or terminating sources that give rise to the opportunity, obstacle, or obligation?

Options:

A.

Share

B.

Accept

C.

Control

D.

Avoid

Question 2

What factors should be considered when selecting the appropriate sender of a message?

Options:

A.

The sender’s fluency in the language of the needed communication, cultural background, and comfort in communicating with the target audience.

B.

The sender’s preference for formal or informal communication and their ability to respond appropriately to feedback.

C.

The purpose of communication, desired results, reputation with audience members, and shared culture and background with the audience.

D.

The sender’s job title, office location, years of experience, and favorite communication channel.

Question 3

What is the difference between prescriptive norms and proscriptive norms?

Options:

A.

Prescriptive norms are optional guidelines, while proscriptive norms are mandatory rules.

B.

Prescriptive norms are related to financial performance, while proscriptive norms are related to ethical behavior.

C.

Prescriptive norms are established by government regulations, while proscriptive norms are established by industry standards.

D.

Prescriptive norms encourage behavior the group deems positive, while proscriptive norms discourage behavior the group deems negative.

Question 4

Which Critical Discipline of the Protector Skillset includes skills to enhance stakeholder confidence and perform assessments?

Options:

A.

Audit & Assurance

B.

Security & Continuity

C.

Governance & Oversight

D.

Strategy & Performance

Question 5

What is the role of likelihood and impact in measuring the effect of uncertainty on objectives?

Options:

A.

Likelihood measures the chance of an event occurring, and impact measures the economic and non-economic consequences

B.

Likelihood measures the number of obstacles, and impact measures the number of opportunities

C.

Likelihood measures the financial gain, and impact measures the financial loss

D.

Likelihood and impact are irrelevant in measuring the effect of uncertainty

Question 6

How can an organization know the concerns and needs of its stakeholder groups?

Options:

A.

By identifying and understanding the concerns and needs of both the organizations and specific people within them

B.

By requiring stakeholders to sign non-disclosure agreements then having conversations

C.

By conducting background checks on all stakeholders

D.

By hosting annual stakeholder appreciation events where executives can ask them what they want

Question 7

How can the Code of Conduct serve as a guidepost for organizations of all sizes and in all industries?

Options:

A.

It is a starting point for policies and procedures in large organizations or those in highly regulated industries, while in small organizations that are less regulated it is the only guidance needed.

B.

It is a legally mandated document that must be established and followed by all organizations.

C.

It sets out the principles, values, standards, or rules of behavior that guide the organization's decisions, procedures, and systems, serving as an effective guidepost.

D.

It is only applicable to large organizations in specific industries.

Question 8

What is the primary focus of management actions and controls in the IACM?

Options:

A.

To oversee employees and meet target objectives for the unit being managed.

B.

To directly address opportunities, obstacles, and obligations.

C.

To minimize costs and maximize profits.

D.

To ensure strict adherence to external regulations and internal policies.

Question 9

Culture is difficult or even impossible to "design" because:

Options:

A.

People are not motivated to change.

B.

It is an emergent property.

C.

It takes too long.

D.

There are too many subcultures.

Question 10

What is the significance of ensuring the visibility of objectives across different levels of the organization?

Options:

A.

It showcases the achievements of the organization's leadership team

B.

It creates a competitive environment among different units within the organization

C.

It identifies underperforming employees and takes corrective action

D.

It allows for the coordination of activities

Question 11

Why is it important to prioritize, substantiate, validate, and route notifications within an organization?

Options:

A.

To prevent employees from receiving any notifications that may cause stress unnecessarily

B.

To ensure that notifications are handled by the right organizational units or roles based on topic, type, and severity

C.

To ensure that notifications are only sent to the CEO and board of directors, or to the General Counsel if a legal issue is raised

D.

To provide the right to respond before any follow-up actions or investigations are started

Question 12

At a very high level, how can an organization address an opportunity, obstacle, or obligation?

Options:

A.

By avoiding any actions that could lead to uncertainty

B.

By focusing on immediate goals and actions that don't present uncertainty

C.

By obtaining risk insurance

D.

By using design options such as Avoid, Accept, Share, and Control

Question 13

How are opportunities, obstacles, and obligations prioritized for further analysis?

Options:

A.

Based on identification criteria and the priority of associated objectives

B.

Based on the business units they relate to and how important those units are to the achievement of objectives

C.

Based on the items identified as top priorities at the enterprise level taking higher priority than any unit-based items

D.

Based on the preferences of the executive management team

Question 14

What does the initialism GRC stand for?

Options:

A.

Governing risk and compliance

B.

Governance, risk, and compliance

C.

Governance, risk, and controls

D.

Government, regulation, and controls

Question 15

What is the purpose of using the SMART model for results and indicators?

Options:

A.

To define results and indicators that are Stacked, Monitored, Achievable, Right, and Timely, especially for results and indicators that "run the organization."

B.

To assess the strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats of the organization.

C.

To create a detailed budget and financial forecast for the organization.

D.

To define results and indicators that are Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, and Time-Bound, especially for results and indicators that "run the organization."

Question 16

What type of policy provides instructions on what actions should be avoided by the organization?

Options:

A.

Prescriptive Policy

B.

Procedural Policy

C.

Proscriptive Policy

D.

Reactive Policy

Question 17

What does agility in the context of the PERFORM component refer to?

Options:

A.

The proficiency in building and maintaining relationships with partners and suppliers who must implement Perform actions and controls

B.

The ability to quickly change direction in Perform actions and controls when things change

C.

The capacity to innovate and develop new ways to implement Perform actions and controls

D.

The capability to manage and resolve conflicts and disputes regarding Perform actions and controls

Question 18

What role do mission, vision, and values play in the ALIGN component?

Options:

A.

They specify the processes as well as the technology and tools used in the alignment process.

B.

They determine the allocation of financial resources within the organization.

C.

They outline the legal and regulatory requirements that the organization must satisfy and define how they relate to the business objectives.

D.

They provide clear direction and decision-making criteria and should be well-defined and consistently communicated throughout the organization.

Question 19

What is the relationship between monitoring and assurance activities in identifying opportunities for improvement?

Options:

A.

Monitoring activities focus on improvement, while assurance activities focus on risk assessment

B.

Monitoring and assurance activities have no relationship and operate independently

C.

Monitoring activities are related to financial improvement, while assurance activities are related to operational improvement

D.

Both monitoring and assurance activities identify opportunities to improve total performance

Question 20

What should be avoided to maintain the integrity of the inquiry process?

Options:

A.

Any inquiries that require identification of the respondent

B.

Any automated analysis of information and findings

C.

Any actual or perceived connection between inquiry responses and individual performance appraisals

D.

Any use of technology-based inquiry methods

Question 21

What is the measure of the degree to which obligations and requirements are addressed?

Options:

A.

Noncompliance

B.

Compliance

C.

Violation

D.

Deviation

Question 22

What is meant by the term "residual risk"?

Options:

A.

The risk that is transferred to a third party

B.

The risk that exists in all business activities

C.

The level of risk in the presence of actions & controls

D.

The risk that remains after eliminating all threats

Question 23

What is the significance of a vision statement in inspiring and motivating employees, stakeholders, and customers?

Options:

A.

It specifies the organization's views on ethical issues facing it.

B.

It describes what the organization aspires to be and why it matters, serving as a guidepost for long-term strategic planning and inspiring and motivating employees, stakeholders, and customers.

C.

It details the organization's sales targets and revenue projections to motivate employees to work hard and meet those goals.

D.

It outlines the organization's succession planning and leadership development.

Question 24

How can "assurance competence" contribute to the level of assurance provided?

Options:

A.

It is solely based on the assurance provider's credentials and ensures the highest level of assurance

B.

It is determined by the number of years the assurance provider has been in the industry and ensures high levels of assurance

C.

A greater degree of it allows the assurance provider to use sophisticated, professional, and structured techniques to evaluate the subject matter, resulting in a higher level of assurance

D.

It is only relevant for external audits and does not apply to internal assurance activities and level of assurance

Question 25

How can organizations recover from negative conduct, events, and conditions, and correct identified weaknesses within their governance, management, and assurance processes?

Options:

A.

Through open and transparent acknowledgment of the identified unfavorable conduct or events and acceptance of responsibility by the CEO.

B.

Through the application of responsive actions and controls that recover from unfavorable conduct, events, and conditions; correct identified weaknesses; execute necessary discipline; recognize and reinforce favorable conduct; and deter future undesired conduct or conditions.

C.

Through the use of both technology and physical actions and controls to recover from negative conduct and conditions, correct identified weaknesses, and establish barriers to future misconduct.

D.

Through focusing on promoting positive behavior and establishing reward systems for employees who identify weaknesses in the systems of control.

Question 26

How does the GRC Capability Model define the term "enterprise"?

Options:

A.

The enterprise is the most superior unit that encompasses the entirety of the organization.

B.

The enterprise refers to the organization's sales and distribution channels.

C.

The enterprise refers to the organization's information technology infrastructure and systems.

D.

The enterprise refers to a starship that boldly goes where no man has gone before.

Question 27

GRC Professionals, known as "Protectors," work to achieve a specific goal referred to as Principled Performance. Which of the following best describes Principled Performance®?

Options:

A.

To reliably achieve objectives, address uncertainty, and act with integrity – to produce and preserve value simultaneously.

B.

To maximize profits and minimize losses.

C.

To ensure compliance with all legal requirements.

D.

To eliminate all risks and uncertainties.

Question 28

What is the role of key performance indicators (KPIs)?

Options:

A.

KPIs are subjective measures that are not based on any specific metrics or data

B.

KPIs are indicators that help govern, manage, and provide assurance about performance related to an objective

C.

KPIs are only relevant for external reporting and have no impact on internal decision-making

D.

KPIs are used to determine employee compensation and bonuses

Question 29

Why is it important to provide a helpline for the workforce and other stakeholders?

Options:

A.

To define the learning objectives for the workforce

B.

To evaluate the effectiveness of the education program

C.

To develop new content for the education program based on questions asked

D.

To allow them to seek guidance about future conduct, ask general questions, and have the option for anonymity

Question 30

What is the importance of tracking attendance and assessments?

Options:

A.

To have evidence for defense in enforcement actions

B.

To know which employees need discipline for not attending

C.

To define the learning objectives for the workforce

D.

To provide evidence of "best efforts" and ensure that knowledge is transferred

Question 31

What is the goal of monitoring improvement initiatives?

Options:

A.

To assess the level of employee satisfaction about the improvement initiatives

B.

To evaluate the financial impact of the improvement initiatives

C.

To ensure progress, verify completion, and address any necessary follow-up actions associated with the improvement initiatives

D.

To determine the need for additional training associated with the improvement initiatives

Question 32

What is the purpose of mapping objectives to one another?

Options:

A.

Mapping objectives is a way to reduce the need for communication and collaboration between different departments within the organization

B.

Mapping objectives shows how objectives impact one another and helps allocate resources to achieve the most important objectives and priorities

C.

Mapping objectives is only relevant for financial objectives and has no impact on non-financial objectives

D.

Mapping objectives allows the organization to ignore subordinate-level objectives and focus only on superior-level objectives

Question 33

Which trait of the Protector Mindset involves acting deliberately in advance to reduce the risk of being caught off guard?

Options:

A.

Proactive

B.

Versatile

C.

Collaborative

D.

Assertive

Question 34

What is the role of a values statement in an organization?

Options:

A.

A values statement reflects the shared beliefs and expectations of the organization's leadership, employees, and stakeholders and serves as a guide for establishing a positive and productive organizational culture.

B.

A values statement is a legal document that outlines the financial obligations and liabilities of the organization that contribute to its value.

C.

A values statement is a formal agreement between the organization and its suppliers to ensure the timely delivery of goods and services that are essential to building the organization’s value.

D.

A values statement is a marketing tool used to attract new customers and investors to the organization.

Question 35

What is the term used to describe a cause that has the potential to result in harm?

Options:

A.

Hazard

B.

Prospect

C.

Opportunity

D.

Obstacle

Question 36

What does it mean for an organization to "sense" its external context?

Options:

A.

To make sense of the changes that are tracked in the external context to determine impact on the organization

B.

To evaluate the effectiveness of the organization’s monitoring of the external environment

C.

To continually watch for and make sense of changes in the external context that may have a direct, indirect, or cumulative effect on the organization and to notify appropriate personnel and systems

D.

To use qualitative methods of monitoring the organization’s external context based on experience and intuition

Question 37

What practices are involved in analyzing and understanding an organization’s ethical culture?

Options:

A.

Developing a strategic plan to achieve the organization’s long-term goals for improving ethical culture

B.

Conducting a survey of employees every few years on their views about the organization’s commitment to ethical conduct

C.

Implementing a performance appraisal system to evaluate employee performance

D.

Analyzing the climate and mindsets about how the workforce generally demonstrates integrity

Question 38

What is a consideration to keep in mind when using economic incentives to encourage favorable conduct?

Options:

A.

Ensure that incentives are not "perverse incentives" that encourage adverse conduct

B.

Ensure that any unions or employee organizations approve them

C.

Ensure that economic incentives are only provided to senior management

D.

Ensure that economic incentives are based solely on individual performance metrics

Question 39

What is a key difference between objectives that "Change the Organization" and those that "Run the Organization"?

Options:

A.

Objectives that "Change the Organization" are established by the board of directors, while objectives that "Run the Organization" are established by the management team

B.

Objectives that "Change the Organization" are related to the organization's financial performance, while objectives that "Run the Organization" are related to the organization's legal compliance

C.

Objectives that "Change the Organization" focus on change management, employee training and development, while objectives that "Run the Organization" focus on customer satisfaction and sales growth

D.

Objectives that "Change the Organization" inspire progress and produce new value, while objectives that "Run the Organization" allow the organization to maintain what it has achieved, preserve existing value, and notice when value erodes or atrophies

Question 40

How can integrity be conceptualized as a ratio?

Options:

A.

Integrity can be conceptualized as the ratio of regulations that are applicable to enforcement actions against the company

B.

Integrity can be conceptualized as the ratio of successful projects to failed projects

C.

Integrity can be conceptualized as the ratio of Promises Kept divided by Promises Made, with the goal of achieving a ratio close to 1 or 100%

D.

Integrity can be conceptualized as the ratio of total revenue to total expenses

Question 41

What is the process of validating direction within an organization?

Options:

A.

Conducting a SWOT analysis to identify the organization’s strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats.

B.

Communicating, negotiating, and finalizing direction with other organizational levels/units.

C.

Conducting a comprehensive audit of the organization’s financial records to ensure they are showing movement in the right direction.

D.

Implementing a performance management system to evaluate employee performance and alignment to established direction.

Question 42

What is the purpose of implementing incentives in an organization?

Options:

A.

To reduce the overall cost of employee compensation and benefits.

B.

To reduce the need for performance reviews and evaluations.

C.

To discourage employees from seeking employment opportunities elsewhere.

D.

To encourage the right proactive, detective, and responsive conduct in the workforce and extended enterprise.

Question 43

What does it mean for an organization to be "agile" within the context of the LEARN component?

Options:

A.

The ability to rapidly expand and scale the organization’s operations in response to change

B.

The ability to quickly re-learn context and culture when things change

C.

The ability to adapt the organization’s mission and vision to changing market conditions

D.

The ability to effectively manage risks and respond to compliance issues that are identified

Question 44

What is the term used to describe the measure of the negative effect of uncertainty on objectives?

Options:

A.

Risk

B.

Harm

C.

Obstacle

D.

Threat

Question 45

What is the difference between "inherent effect" and "residual effect" of uncertainty?

Options:

A.

Inherent effect is the effect of uncertainty in the presence of risk, while residual effect is the effect of uncertainty in the presence of reward

B.

Inherent effect is the effect of uncertainty in the absence of actions and controls, while residual effect is the effect of uncertainty in the presence of actions and controls

C.

Inherent effect is the effect of uncertainty in the absence of risk, while residual effect is the effect of uncertainty in the absence of reward

D.

Inherent effect is the effect of uncertainty in the presence of actions and controls, while residual effect is the effect of uncertainty in the absence of actions and controls

Question 46

How do strategic goals differ from other objectives within an organization?

Options:

A.

Strategic goals are short-term objectives focused on the organization’s daily operations and activities

B.

Strategic goals are specific targets related to the organization’s sales and marketing efforts

C.

Strategic goals are long-term objectives typically set at higher levels of the organization and serve as guideposts for long-term strategic planning

D.

Strategic goals are quantitative measures of the organization’s financial performance and profitability

Question 47

The Critical Disciplines skills of Audit & Assurance help organizations through which of the following?

Options:

A.

Managing mergers and acquisitions, evaluating investment opportunities, conducting due diligence, and integrating acquired businesses

B.

Setting direction, setting objectives and indicators, identifying opportunities, aligning strategies, and managing systems

C.

Prioritizing assurance activities, planning and performing assessments, using testing techniques, and communicating to enhance confidence

D.

Identifying critical physical and digital assets, assessing related risks, addressing related risks, measuring and monitoring risks, and performing crisis response

Question 48

Why is it important for an organization to define events and timescales that trigger reconsideration of external factors?

Options:

A.

It allows the organization to reduce its staff time addressing changes in the external context

B.

It helps the organization avoid the need for hiring consultants or law firms to recommend how to respond to changes in the external context

C.

It eliminates the need for supply chain management and procurement activities on an ongoing basis and only requires response to defined events in the supply chain

D.

It ensures that the organization remains responsive and adaptable to changes in the external context that may impact its operations and objectives

Question 49

The difference between the current skill level and the target skill level is referred to as?

Options:

A.

Learning Objective

B.

Educational Needs

C.

Skill Gap

D.

Skill Set

Question 50

What are some examples of informal mechanisms that can capture notifications within an organization?

Options:

A.

An open-door policy and direct communication with management.

B.

Public announcements and press releases.

C.

Standard reporting forms and documentation.

D.

Audits and third-party assessments.

Question 51

Which statement is FALSE?

Options:

A.

The organization should have an education plan for each target population indicating what they should know about the GRC capability and their responsibilities for GRC activities.

B.

Regardless of role, everyone in the organization should receive the same curriculum and the same education activities to ensure consistent understanding.

C.

The organization should conduct a needs assessment to determine the training that will address high-risk situations and develop a training plan for each job or job family.

D.

The organization should identify legally mandated education, including who must be educated, the content required, the time required, and methods that may be used for each required course.

Question 52

Who has ultimate accountability (plenary accountability) for the governance, management, and assurance of performance, risk, and compliance in the Lines of Accountability Model?

Options:

A.

The Fifth Line, or the Governing Authority (Board).

B.

The Second Line, or the individuals and teams that establish performance, risk, and compliance programs.

C.

The First Line, or the individuals and teams involved in operational activities.

D.

The Third Line, or the individuals and teams that provide assurance.

Question 53

What is the difference between a hazard and an obstacle in the context of uncertainty?

Options:

A.

A hazard is a measure of the negative impact on the organization, while an obstacle is a state of conditions that create a hazard.

B.

A hazard affects the likelihood of an event, while an obstacle is a hazard with significant impact on objectives.

C.

A hazard is a cause that has the potential to eventually result in harm, while an obstacle is an event that may have a negative effect on objectives.

D.

A hazard is a type of obstacle, while an obstacle is an overarching category of threat.

Question 54

What are the two dimensions that drive an organization's engagement with stakeholders?

Options:

A.

Compliance and Ethics

B.

Interest and Power

C.

Push and Pull

D.

Internal and External

Question 55

What are some considerations to keep in mind when attempting to influence an organization’s culture?

Options:

A.

Culture change requires long-term commitment, consistent modeling in both words and deeds, and reinforcement by leaders and the workforce.

B.

Culture change is not necessary as long as the organization is meeting its financial targets.

C.

Culture change can be achieved quickly through the implementation of new policies and procedures if there is adequate training provided.

D.

Culture change is solely dependent on the decisions made by the executive leadership team and how they model desired behavior.

Question 56

How do objectives influence the identification and analysis of opportunities and obstacles in the ALIGN component?

Options:

A.

Objectives drive the identification, analysis, and prioritization of opportunities, obstacles, and opportunities

B.

Objectives determine the level of risk tolerance for the organization as it addresses opportunities and obstacles

C.

Objectives outline the roles and responsibilities of employees in the alignment process

D.

Objectives specify the types of software and technology the governing body wants to have used in the alignment process

Question 57

What is the difference between reasonable assurance and limited assurance?

Options:

A.

Reasonable assurance is provided by external auditors as part of a financial audit and indicates conformity to suitable criteria and freedom from material error, while limited assurance results from reviews, compilations, and other activities performed by competent personnel who are sufficiently objective about the subject matter.

B.

Reasonable assurance is provided by internal auditors as part of a risk assessment, while limited assurance results from external audits and regulatory examinations.

C.

Reasonable assurance is provided by the Board of Directors as part of governance activities, while limited assurance results from employee self-assessments.

D.

Reasonable assurance is provided by management as part of strategic planning, while limited assurance results from operational reviews and performance evaluations.

Question 58

What is the benefit of recognizing, compounding, and accelerating the impact of favorable events?

Options:

A.

To preserve records and other evidence for investigation

B.

To ensure confidentiality of the information and determine privilege

C.

To apply consistent discipline to individuals at fault

D.

To maximize benefit and promote future occurrence of favorable events

Question 59

What are some examples of environmental factors that may influence an organization's external context?

Options:

A.

Climate and natural resources

B.

Organizational procurement, vendor selection, and contract negotiation for hazardous waste disposal

C.

Organizational performance metrics, goal setting, and progress tracking regarding climate-related projects

D.

Organizational response to new carbon emission regulations

Question 60

In the Maturity Model, which level indicates that practices are evaluated and managed with data-driven evidence?

Options:

A.

Level 1 – Initial

B.

Level 2 – Managed

C.

Level 3 – Consistent

D.

Level 4 – Measured

Question 61

What type of incentives include appreciation, status, and professional development?

Options:

A.

Economic Incentives

B.

Contractual Incentives

C.

Personal Incentives

D.

Non-Economic Incentives

Question 62

Why is assurance never considered absolute?

Options:

A.

Because it is only applicable to certain industries and sectors

B.

Because the subject matter, assurance providers, information producers, and information consumers are all fallible

C.

Because it does not provide a written guarantee of the accuracy and reliability of the subject matter

D.

Because it is solely based on the opinions and judgments of the assurance provider

Question 63

How do mission, vision, and values work together to describe an organization's highest purpose?

Options:

A.

The mission describes the organization's reason for existing; the vision describes the organization's plans for the next few years; and values describe the organization's performance evaluation criteria.

B.

The mission describes who the organization serves, what it does, and its goals; the vision describes what the organization aspires to be and why it matters; and values describe what the organization believes and stands for. Together, they define the organization's highest purpose.

C.

The mission describes the organization's financial targets, the vision describes the organization's marketing strategy, and the values describe the organization's pricing model.

D.

The mission outlines the organization's legal obligations, the vision outlines the organization's ideas about meeting those obligations, and the values outline the organization's code of conduct.

Question 64

What is the role of sensemaking in understanding the internal context?

Options:

A.

Sensemaking involves analyzing the organization’s supply chain to identify potential bottlenecks and make any necessary changes in how it is managed.

B.

Sensemaking involves evaluating the organization’s sense of all aspects of its culture so that improvements can be made.

C.

Sensemaking involves conducting financial audits to make sense of the financial condition of the organization and ensure compliance with accounting standards.

D.

Sensemaking involves continually watching for and making sense of changes in the internal context that have a direct, indirect, or cumulative effect on the organization.

Question 65

Which trait of the Protector Mindset involves bringing stability against volatile, uncertain, complex, and ambiguous realities?

Options:

A.

Dynamic

B.

Versatile

C.

Stable

D.

Accountable

Question 66

What is the term used to describe the level of risk in the absence of actions and controls?

Options:

A.

Uncontrolled Risk

B.

Inherent Risk

C.

Vulnerability

D.

Residual Risk

Question 67

What is the role of continuous control monitoring in the context of notifications within an organization?

Options:

A.

It is used to monitor employees' personal communications.

B.

It is a tool that provides automated alerts for notifications within an organization.

C.

It is a method primarily for tracking the organization's speed of response to notifications.

D.

It is a technique for listening to hotline employees to ensure they are providing the right information.

Question 68

In the context of GRC, which is the best description of the role of governance in an organization?

Options:

A.

Developing marketing strategies and driving sales growth to meet objectives established by the governing body

B.

Indirectly guiding, controlling, and evaluating an entity by constraining and conscribing resources

C.

Conducting audits and providing assurance on the effectiveness of controls

D.

Implementing operational processes and overseeing day-to-day activities

Question 69

How does Benchmarking contribute to the improvement of a capability?

Options:

A.

By identifying potential legal and regulatory issues.

B.

By comparing the capability's performance to industry standards or best practices.

C.

By assessing the impact of organizational culture.

D.

By evaluating the effectiveness of risk management campaigns.

Question 70

What is the design option that involves ceasing all activity or terminating sources that give rise to the opportunity, obstacle, or obligation?

Options:

A.

Accept

B.

Share

C.

Avoid

D.

Control

Question 71

What is the term used to describe a measure that estimates the consequence of an event?

Options:

A.

Impact

B.

Consequence

C.

Likelihood

D.

Cause

Question 72

What is the difference between "Change the Organization" (CTO) objectives and "Run the Organization" (RTO) objectives?

Options:

A.

CTO objectives are based on subjective measures, while RTO objectives are based on objective measures

B.

CTO objectives are only relevant for change management planning, while RTO objectives are relevant for operational managers

C.

CTO objectives focus on producing new value and improving performance, while RTO objectives focus on preserving existing value and maintaining service levels

D.

CTO objectives are determined by the board of directors, while RTO objectives are determined by front-line managers

Question 73

What is the purpose of after-action reviews?

Options:

A.

They are used to provide incentives to employees for favorable conduct

B.

They are used to ensure the protection of anonymity and non-retaliation for reporters

C.

They uncover root causes of events and help improve proactive, detective, and responsive actions and controls

D.

They are used to escalate incidents for investigation and identify them as in-house or external

Question 74

What is the difference between a mission and a vision?

Options:

A.

The mission states the organization’s purpose and direction, while the vision is an aspirational objective that states what the organization aspires to be.

B.

The mission is determined by external stakeholders, while the vision is determined by internal stakeholders.

C.

The mission is a short-term financial goal, while the vision is a long-term non-financial goal.

D.

The mission is what a for-profit organization should have, while the vision is for non-profit organizations.

Demo: 74 questions
Total 249 questions