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Oracle 1z0-083 Oracle Database Administration II Exam Practice Test

Demo: 85 questions
Total 286 questions

Oracle Database Administration II Questions and Answers

Question 1

Choose two. Which two are true about an Oracle gold image-based installation in Oracle 18c and later releases?

Options:

A.

It does not require the setup wizard.

B.

It can be used to install and upgrade Oracle Database for single-instance and cluster configurations.

C.

It can be used for both Oracle Database and Oracle Grid Infrastructure installation.

D.

It uses a single RPM that automatically extracts and installs the Oracle Database software.

E.

It can only install and configure Oracle Database software. The database has to be created separately.

Question 2

You accidentally drop the CUSTOMERS table, and then recover it by using the FLASHBACK TABLE command. Which two statements are true about the dependent objects of the CUSTOMERS table?

Options:

A.

All the triggers associated with the table are flashed back but are disabled.

B.

Materialized views that use the CUSTOMERS table are flashed back.

C.

LOB segments associated with the CUSTOMERS table are flashed back.

D.

All the constraints defined on the table, except the referential integrity constraints, are flashed back.

E.

Only the primary key constraint created for the table is flashed back, whereas all other indexes must be retrieved separately.

Question 3

You notice a performance change in your production Oracle 12c database. You want to know which change caused this performance difference. Which method or feature should you use?

Options:

A.

Compare Period ADDM report

B.

AWR Compare Period report

C.

Active Session History (ASH) report

D.

Taking a new snapshot and comparing it with a preserved snapshot.

Question 4

Choose two. Which two are true about reclaiming space used by Flashback logs in Oracle Database 19c and later releases?

Options:

A.

Space might be reclaimed proactively before space pressure occurs.

B.

Space is always reclaimed proactively before space pressure occurs.

C.

Space might be reclaimed automatically when the retention period for Flashback logs is lowered.

D.

Space is always reclaimed automatically when the retention period for Flashback logs is lowered.

E.

Space is only reclaimed when there is space pressure in the Fast Recovery Area (FRA).

Question 5

Identify three benefits of Unified Auditing.

Options:

A.

Decreased use ofstorage to store audit trail rowsin the database.

B.

It improves overall auditing performance.

C.

It guarantees zero-loss auditing.

D.

The audit trail cannot be easily modified because it is read-only.

E.

It automatically audits Recovery Manager (RMAN) events.

Question 6

Choose two. Which two are true about an RPM-based Oracle Database installation?

Options:

A.

It includes the Oracle Preinstallation RPM.

B.

From Oracle Database 18c, a single RPM can be used to install only Oracle Database Server for a single instance.

C.

It requires an Unbreakable Linux Network (ULN) subscription.

D.

It performs a software-only Oracle Database installation.

E.

It uses a service configuration script to create a single-instance database as part of the installation.

Question 7

Choose two. Which two are true about Oracle Grid Infrastructure for a Standalone Server?

Options:

A.

It can manage database resources on the server where it is installed or on a different server.

B.

The CSS daemon runs from the Grid Infrastructure home.

C.

It supports volume management, file system, and automatic restart capabilities.

D.

It requires Oracle Automatic Storage Management (ASM) components to be installed separately.

E.

It must be installed before the Oracle database software is installed.

Question 8

Which two are true about Rapid Home Provisioning (RHP), which has been available since Orcale 18c? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

It is an Oracle Database service

B.

It cannot be used to upgrade Oracle Database homes.

C.

It can be used to provision applications.

D.

It can be used to patch Grid Infrastructure homes containing Oracle Restart.

E.

It can be used to provision middleware.

Question 9

Examine this configuration: 1. CDB1 is an Oracle Database 12c Release 2 database containing pluggable databases PDB$SEED, PDB1, and PDB2. 2. PDB$SEED is open READ ONLY 3. PDB1 is open READ WRITE 4. PDB2 is MOUNTED. 5. ORACLE_HOME is /u01/app/oracle/product/18.1.0/dbhome_1. You execute these commands before upgrading the database to the current release: For which databases will fixup scripts be created?

Options:

A.

CDB1, PDB$SEED, PDB1, and PDB2

B.

PDB$SEED, PDB1, and PDB2 only

C.

CDB1 and PDB$SEED only

D.

CDB1, PDB1, and PDB2 only

E.

CDB1, PDB$SEED, and PDB1 only

Question 10

Choose the best answer. Examine this configuration: 1. CDB1 is an Oracle Database 12c Release 2 container database (CDB). 2. PDB1 and PDB2 are two pluggable databases (PDBs) in CDB1. After successfully performing all the preupgrade tasks, you execute these commands from the Oracle Database 18c environment: $ export ORACLE_SID=cdb1 $ sqlplus / as sysdba SQL> STARTUP UPGRADE; SQL> SHOW pdbs CON_ID CON_NAME OPEN MODE RESTRICTED -------------------------------------------------¬-------------2 PDB$SEED 3 PDB1 4 PDB2 MIGRATE YES MOUNTED YES MOUNTED YES SQL> ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE pdb1 OPEN UPGRADE; Pluggable database altered. SQL> exit $ $ORACLE_HOME/perl/bin/perl catctl.pl -C 'PDB2' What is the outcome?

Options:

A.

It fails because PDB$SEED is in MIGRATE state.

B.

Only CDB$ROOT, PDB$SEED, and PDB1 are upgraded.

C.

Only CDB$ROOT, PDB$SEED, and PDB2 are upgraded.

D.

It fails because PDB2 is not in UPGRADE state.

E.

CDB$ROOT, PDB$SEED, PDB1, and PDB2 are upgraded.

F.

Only CDB$ROOT and PDB$SEED are upgraded.

Question 11

Which three are true about managing memory components in an Oracle database instance? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

With Automatic Shared Memory Management, the database instance can increase the Large Pool size by reducing the Shared Pool size.

B.

With Automatic Memory Management, the database instance can increase the System Global Area size by reducing the Program Global Area size.

C.

Automatically tuned and resized System Global Area components will always revert to their initial sizes after an instance restart.

D.

Automatic Memory Management must be used together with locking the System Global Area into physical memory.

E.

With Automatic Shared Memory Management, the database instance can increase the Program Global Area size by reducing the System Global Area size.

F.

On Line Transaction Processing systems often use less Program Global Area than Decision Support Systems.

Question 12

HR_ROOT is an application container with the HR_APP application installed. No application PDBs and no application seed have yet been created in HR_ROOT. An application PDB, PDB1, must be created so that the HR_APP application's common objects are accessible to it. Which two methods can be used?

Options:

A.

Create an application seed, synchronize it with HR_ROOT, and then create the PDB1 application PDB.

B.

Create the PDB1 application PDB and synchronize it with HR_ROOT.

C.

Create the PDB1 application PDB and install HR_APP in it.

D.

Create the PDB1 application PDB and synchronize it with PDB$SEED.

E.

Create an application seed, and install HR_APP in it.

Question 13

Which two are true about Oracle Optimizer Statistics, their use, and their collection? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

The number of table rows is considered when evaluating the cost of accessing a table using an index.

B.

Index balanced B*Tree height is considered when evaluating the cost of using an index.

C.

The Statistics Advisor can help recommend the best way to gather statistics.

D.

Statistics collected using DBMS_STATS always yield the best optimizer result.

E.

The Statistics Advisor generates actions for all recommendations.

Question 14

Which two are true about diagnosing Oracle Database failure situations using Data Recovery Advisor? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Using the Data Recovery Advisor LIST FAILURE command always requires that the database for which failures are to be listed is in MOUNT state.

B.

A failure can be closed only when it has been repaired.

C.

Data Recovery Advisor can be used if a database is closed.

D.

The Data Recovery Advisor CHANGE FAILURE command can be used only to change failure priorities.

E.

Data Recovery Advisor can proactively check for failures.

Question 15

Choose three. Which three capabilities require the use of the RMAN recovery catalog?

Options:

A.

using RMAN stored scripts

B.

creating encrypted backups

C.

creating customized reports about a single database's backups

D.

using the REPORT SCHEMA command to list a database's data files and tablespaces at times in the past

E.

using the KEEP FOREVER clause with the BACKUP command

F.

using the REPORT SCHEMA command to list a database's current data files and tablespaces

Question 16

Which three are true about transporting databases across platforms using Recovery Manager (RMAN) image copies? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

By default, the transported database will use Oracle Managed Files (OMF)

B.

Data files can be converted on the destination system.

C.

Data files can be converted on the source system.

D.

A new DBID is automatically created for the transported database.

E.

Databases can be transported between systems with different endian formats.

F.

The password file is automatically converted by RMAN.

Question 17

Choose three. Your container database, CDB1, is in local undo mode. You successfully execute this command while connected to CDB1: CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE pdb1 ADMIN USER pdb1_admin IDENTIFIED BY pdb123 ROLES= (CONNECT) CREATE_FILE_DEST='/u01/app/oracle/oradata/cdb1/pdb1' ; Which three are true about PDB1?

Options:

A.

It has the same common users defined as does CDB1.

B.

It has only local roles.

C.

It has the same number of roles as CDB1.

D.

Service PDB1 is created for remote logins to PDB1.

E.

It is in mount state after creation.

F.

It has no local users.

Question 18

Which three are true about Database Point-in-Time Recovery? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

The database must have FLASHBACK DATABASE ON to perform Database Point-in-Time Recovery.

B.

The database must be in MOUNT state when performing Database Point-in-Time Recovery.

C.

Database Point-in-Time Recovery is performed by the Managed Recovery Process (MRP)

D.

The Database must be in ARCHIVE LOG mode.

E.

The target point for the recovery must be specified as a stime or System Change Number (SCN).

F.

The database must be open RESETLOGS after Database Point-in-Time Recovery.

Question 19

choose two Examine these RMAN commands: RMAN> CONNECT TARGET "sbu@prod AS SYSBACKUP"; RMAN> CONNECT AUXILIARY "sbu@dup_db AS SYSBACKUP"; RMAN> DUPLICATE TARGET DATABASE TO dup_db FROM ACTIVE DATABASE PASSWORD FILE SECTION SIZE 400M; Which two statements are true about the DUPLICATE command?

Options:

A.

It succeeds.

B.

It fails because no parallel channels are allocated for the auxiliary database.

C.

It fails because connection to the AUXILIARY instance must be as SYSDBA.

D.

Itsucceeds only if the target database is greater than 400M.

E.

No catalogued backup of the TARGET is used to duplicate the database.

Question 20

Choose two. Some archived log backups have been accidentally deleted from storage. Which two commands should be used to update the status of backups in the recovery catalog to display only the missing backups?

Options:

A.

RESYNC CATALOG

B.

CROSSCHECK BACKUP OF ARCHIVELOG ALL

C.

LIST ARCHIVELOG ALL

D.

LIST EXPIRED

E.

LIST ARCHIVELOG

F.

REPORT OBSOLETE

Question 21

Choose three. In which three situations can you use threshold server-generated alerts to help diagnose and fix problems?

Options:

A.

when free space in a dictionary managed tablespace falls below a specified percentage

B.

when free space in a locally managed tablespace falls below a specified percentage

C.

when the total number of locked user account exceeds a specific value

D.

when the number of logons per second exceeds a specific value

E.

when a resumable statement is suspended

F.

when the total number of logons exceeds a specific value

Question 22

Choose three. PDB1 and PDB2 are pluggable databases in CDB1. Examine these commands: $ export ORACLE_SID=CDB1 $ sqlplus / as sysdba SQL> STARTUP ....... Database opened. SQL> SHOW PDBS CON_ID CON_NAME --------------------------------------------------------------------OPEN MODE READ ONLY NO MOUNTED MOUNTED SQL> ALTER PLUGGABLE Pluggable database altered. SQL> ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE pdb1 SAVE STATE; Pluggable database altered. SQL> ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE pdb1 CLOSE; Pluggable database altered. SQL> ALTER PLUGGABLE A DATABASE pdb2 OPEN; Pluggable database altered. CDB1 is then restarted. Which three are true?

Options:

A.

PDB2 will be opened READ WRITE.

B.

PDB1 will be opened READ WRITE.

C.

PDB1 will be MOUNTED.

D.

PDB$SEED will be opened READ ONLY.

E.

PDB$SEED will be MOUNTED

F.

PDB2 will be MOUNTED.

Question 23

choose three Which three RMAN persistent settings can be set explicitly?

Options:

A.

SPFILE backup duplexing

B.

control file auto backup formats

C.

archive log deletion policy

D.

image copy duplexing

E.

redo log backup duplexing

F.

archive log backup duplexing

Question 24

Choose two. Which two are true about the Optimizer Statistics Advisor?

Options:

A.

It always analyzes all schemas in the database.

B.

It can recommend changes to improve the statistics gathering process.

C.

It can be run only manually.

D.

It runs automatically every night by default. E) It can be run only automatically.

Question 25

Choose three. Which three are true about the tools for diagnosing Oracle Database failure situations?

Options:

A.

RMAN can always repair corrupt blocks.

B.

Flashback commands help with repairing physical errors.

C.

The ADR can store metadata in an Oracle Database repository.

D.

The Automatic Diagnostic Repository (ADR) has a separate home directory for each instance of each Oracle product that is installed and uses it.

E.

The ADR command-line utility (ADRCI) can package incident information to send to Oracle Support.

F.

The Data Recovery Advisor uses the ADR.

Question 26

Unified auditing is enabled in your database. The HR_ADMIN and OE_ADMIN roles exist and are granted system privileges. You execute the command: SQL>CREATE AUDIT POLICY table_aud PRIVILEGES CREATE ANY TABLE, DROP ANY TABLE ROLES hr_admin,oe_admin; Which statement is true?

Options:

A.

It succeeds and needs to be enabled to capture all SQL statements that require either the specified privileges or any privilege granted to the HR_ADMIN or OE_ADMIN role.

B.

It fails because the command does notspecify when the unified audit policy should be enforced.

C.

It succeeds and starts capturing only successful SQL statements for all users who have either the specified privileges or roles granted to them.

D.

It fails because system privileges cannot be granted with roles in the same audit policy.

Question 27

You create a table with the PERIOD FOR clause to enable the use of the Temporal Validity feature of Oracle Database 12c. Examine the table definition: create table employees (empno number, salary number, deptid number, name varchar2(100), period for employee_time); Which three statements are true concerning the use of the Valid Time Temporal feature for the EMPLOYEES table?

Options:

A.

The valid time columns employee_time_start and employee_time_end are automatically created.

B.

Thesamestatementmayfilteronbothtransactiontimeandvalidtemporaltimebyusingthe AS OF TIMESTAMP and PERIOD FOR clauses.

C.

The valid time columns are not populated by the Oracle Server automatically.

D.

The valid time columns are visible by default when the table is described.

E.

Setting the session valid time using DBMS_FLASHBACK_ARCHIVE.ENABLE_AT_VALID_TIME sets the visibility for data manipulation language (DML), data definition language (DDL), and queries performed by the session.

Question 28

A container database (CDB) contains two pluggable databases PDB1 and PDB2. The LOCAL_UNDO_ENABLED database property is set to FALSE in the CDB. Data file 24 of PDB2 was deleted and you need to restore and recover it. The only RMAN backup that exists was created with the BACKUP DATABASE command while connected to CDB$ROOT. Which three are true? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Data file 24 can be recovered only while connected to PDB2.

B.

Data file 24 can be restored and recovered while connected to CDB$ROOT.

C.

Data file 24 can be restored only while connected to CDB$ROOT.

D.

Data file 24 can be restored only while connected to PDB2.

E.

Data file 24 can be recovered while connected to PDB2.

F.

Data file 24 can be recovered while connected to CDB$ROOT.

Question 29

Which two are true about server-generated alerts? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Stateful alerts must be created by a DBA after resolving the problem.

B.

Stateless alerts can be purged manually from the alert history.

C.

Stateless alerts can be cleared manually.

D.

Stateless alerts are automatically cleared.

E.

Stateful alerts are purged automatically from the alert history

Question 30

our SALES_ROOT application container has two application PDBs. The SALES_APP application has a common table, FIN.REVENUE, in the two PDBs. Examine this query and its output: Which two are true? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

The CONTAINERS clause cannot be used in queries on the REVENUE table.

B.

The REVENUE table must be a list-partitioned table.

C.

The MAPTABLE tables defines a logical partition key on a commonly used column for the REVENUE table.

D.

The MAPTABLE table is a metadata-linked table.

E.

A container map exists for the REVENUE table, but is not enabled.

F.

The REVENUE table partitions are not pruned across the PDBs automatically.

Question 31

hoose two. Which two are true about Recovery Manager (RMAN) diagnostic message output?

Options:

A.

The RMAN LOG command line clause causes output issued during RMAN command compilation to be written to a log file only.

B.

The RMAN LOG command line clause causes output issued during RMAN command compilation to be written to a log file and to standard output.

C.

RMAN error stacks should be read from the bottom up as that is the order in which errors are generated.

D.

Media Management messages for SBT devices are written to an Oracle trace file.

E.

MAN error stacks should be read from the top down as that is the order in which errors are generated.

Question 32

Choose two. Which two are true about monitoring waits for sessions and services?

Options:

A.

V$SERVICE_EVENT displays wait counts for every wait event for each service even including counts of zero for waits that never occurred.

B.

V$SESSION_WAIT and V$SESSION both contain details of the event on which a non-waiting session last waited.

C.

V$SESSION_WAIT and V$SESSION both contain details of the event on which a waiting session is currently waiting.

D.

V$SESSION_EVENT displays all waits events for those events that have occurred at least once for sessions that have now terminated.

E.

V$SESSION_WAIT_CLASS displays waits broken down by wait class only for terminated sessions.

Question 33

Choose three. You must migrate a non-CDB Oracle 11g Database to a CDB without first performing an upgrade to the non-CDB. User-defined objects are stored in several tablespaces in the non-CDB. Which three methods can you use?

Options:

A.

Data Pump full database export and import

B.

cloning the non-CDB as a PDB

C.

replication using GoldenGate

D.

Data Pump transportable tablespaces

E.

Data Pump full transportable database

F.

the DBMS_PDB package

Question 34

Which three are true about performing an Oracle Database install on Linux? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

The runfixup.sh script can install missing RPMs.

B.

The Oracle Preinstallation RPM must be used to configure the Oracle database installation owner, the Oracle Inventory group, and an Oracle administrative privileges group

C.

It allows you to select the languages supported by the Oracle database server.

D.

It can be done before installing Grid Infrastructure for a Standalone Server

E.

The Oracle Preinstallation RPM can be used to configure the Oracle database installation owner, the Oracle Inventory group, and an Oracle administrative privileges group

F.

It can be done after installing Grid Infrastructure for a Standalone Server.

G.

The Oracle database administrator must be granted access to the root operating system account to run root privileged scripts.

Question 35

Choose two. Which two are true about server-generated alerts?

Options:

A.

Stateless alerts can be cleared manually.

B.

Stateless alerts are automatically cleared after one day.

C.

Stateful alerts are purged automatically from the alert history after one day.

D.

Stateless alerts can be purged manually from the alert history.

E.

Stateful alerts must be cleared by a DBA to resolve the problem identified in the alert.

Question 36

Choose the best answer. Examine this configuration:

1. CDB1 is a container database running in ARCHIVELOG mode.

2. Multiple uncommitted transactions are running in CDB1.

3. Redo log groups 1 and 2 are INACTIVE.

4. Redo log group 3 is the CURRENT group.

All members of redo log group 3 are lost before it is archived. Examine these possible steps:

1. SHUTDOWN ABORT

2. STARTUP NOMOUNT

3. STARTUP MOUNT

4. ALTER DATABASE MOUNT

5. RESTORE DATABASE

6. RECOVER DATABASE NOREDO

7. RECOVER DATABASE UNTIL AVAILABLE

8. RESTORE ARCHIVELOG ALL

9. ALTER DATABASE OPEN

10. ALTER DATABASE OPEN RESETLOGS

Choose the minimum required steps in the correct order to recover the database.

Options:

A.

1,3,5, 6, 9

B.

1,3, 5, 7, 10

C.

1,2, 5, 7,4, 10

D.

1,3, 5, 6, 10

E.

1,3,5, 6, 10

F.

1,3,5,8, 6, 10

Question 37

Which two are true about the character sets used in an Oracle database? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Single-byte character sets provide better performance than multibyte character sets.

B.

Unicode enables information from any language to be stored using a single character set.

C.

Unicode is the only supported character set for Oracle databases created using Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA).

D.

Single-byte character sets always use 7-bit encoding schemes.

E.

Multibyte character sets allow more efficient space utilization than single byte character sets.

F.

Single-byte character sets always use 8-bit encoding schemes.

Question 38

Choose the best answer. A schema owner truncated a table in error and must recover the data. Which Oracle Flashback feature could be used to recover the data?

Options:

A.

FLASHBACK DATABASE

B.

FLASHBACK TABLE

C.

FLASHBACK VERSION QUERY

D.

FLASHBACK DATA ARCHIVE

E.

FLASHBACK TRANSACTION

Question 39

Choose three. Which three are true about a container database (CDB)?

Options:

A.

It can be created from a non-CDB.

B.

It can contain only one PDB$SEED, which is created when the CDB is created.

C.

It can have local users with the same name in different PDBs.

D.

It can contain only one Application Container seed, which is created when the Application Container is created.

E.

It can be created by cloning an existing CDB.

F.

It can have any number of pluggable databases (PDBs) limited only by space availability.

G.

It contains predefined common roles in both the root and the seed.

Question 40

Examine this command: $ rhpctl move database –sourcehome Oracle_home_path –destinationhome Oracle_home_path For which two purposes can you use this command? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

to switch an existing Oracle Database home to a newer release of Oracle software on the same server

B.

to switch to a read-only Oracle home

C.

to switch back to the previous Oracle home as part of a rollback operation

D.

to switch the Oracle Database home when using a centralized Rapid Home Provisioning server

E.

to switch to a patched Oracle Database home Answer: CE

Question 41

choose three Which three are true about unified auditing in full mode?

Options:

A.

The unified audit trail is written to a read-only table.

B.

The unified audit trail is written to a read-only external file.

C.

Audit records are created for COMMIT, ROLLBACK, and SAVEPOINT statements.

D.

Audit records are created for SYS.

E.

Audit records are created for non-sys users.

Question 42

Choose two. Which two statements are true when row-archival management is enabled?

Options:

A.

The ORA_ARCHIVE_STATE column may only be queried by users with the DBA role set.

B.

The ORA_ARCHIVE_STATE column is only displayed if it is referenced in the column select list of a query

C.

The ROW ARCHIVAL VISIBILITY session parameter defaults to active rows.

D.

The ORA_ARCHIVE_STATE column may only be updated by users with the DBA role set.

E.

The ORA_ARCHIVE_STATE column is updated in an overnight maintenance job based on activity tracking.

Question 43

Which four are true about a Recovery Manager (RMAN) duplication without a TARGET connection? (Choose four.)

Options:

A.

The NOREDO clause must be used if the backups of the database being duplicated were taken when the database was in NOARCHIVELOG mode.

B.

The UNDO TABLESPACE clause is always required when no connection exists to the TARGET instance.

C.

RMAN “pushes” the backups of the database to be duplicated over the network to the auxiliary instance.

D.

The NOREDO clause can be used if the backups of the database being duplicated were taken when the database was in ARCHIVE LOG mode.

E.

RMAN SBT-based backups of the database to be duplicated can be used by the auxiliary instance.

F.

The UNDO TABLESPACE clause is always required when no connection exists to the recovery catalog and the TARGET database is closed.

G.

The UNDO TABLESPACE clause is always required when no connection exists to the recovery catalog and the TARGET database is opened.

Question 44

Choose two. Which two are true about gathering optimizer statistics?

Options:

A.

Executing DBMS_STATS.GATHER_DATABASE_STATS while connected to CDB$ROOT gathers object statistics only in PDB$SEED.

B.

Executing DBMS_STATS.GATHER_DATABASE_STATS while connected to CDB$ROOT gathers object statistics only in CDB$ROOT.

C.

Executing DBMS_STATS.GATHER_DATABASE_STATS while connected to CDB$ROOT gathers object statistics in all open pluggable databases (PDBs).

D.

System statistics can be gathered only while the CDB is in MOUNT state.

E.

Executing DBMS_STATS.GATHER_DATABASE_STATS while connected to a PDB opened in read/ write mode gathers object statistics for that PDB.

Question 45

Which three are true about upgrading Oracle Grid Infrastructure? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

A direct upgrade can be performed only from the immediately preceding Oracle Grid Infrastructure version.

B.

The newer version is installed in a separate Oracle Grid Infrastructure home on the same server as the existing version.

C.

An existing Oracle base can be used.

D.

The upgrade process will automatically install all mandatory patches for the current version of Oracle Grid Infrastructure.

E.

Existing Oracle Database instances must be shut down before starting the upgrade.

F.

Only the grid user can perform the upgrade.

Question 46

Which three are true about monitoring waits for sessions and services? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

V$SESSION_EVENT displays all waits for all past and existing sessions if the wait has occurred at least once for a session.

B.

V$SERVICE_EVENT displays all waits for all services if the wait has occurred at least once for a service.

C.

V$SESSION_WAIT _CLASS displays waits broken down by wait class only for waiting sessions.

D.

V$SESSION_WAIT and V$SESSION both contain details of the event on which a non-waiting session last waited.

E.

V$SESSION_EVENT displays all waits for all past sessions if the wait has occurred at least once for a session.

F.

V$SESSION_WAIT and V$SESSION both contain details of the event on which a session is currently waiting.

Question 47

Choose three. In which three situations can you use threshold server-generated alerts to help diagnose and fix problems?

Options:

A.

when free space in a dictionary managed tablespace falls below a specified percentage

B.

when free space in a locally managed tablespace falls below a specified percentage

C.

when the total number of locked user account exceeds a specific value

D.

when the number of logons per second exceeds a specific value

E.

when a resumable statement is suspended

F.

when the total number of logons exceeds a specific value

Question 48

Which three are true in Oracle 19c and later releases? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

If the password file location changes, then the new location is used automatically by the Oracle Server.

B.

Schema Only accounts can be granted administrator privileges.

C.

All the Oracle-supplied accounts are Schema Only accounts.

D.

Privilege Analysisisincluded in Oracle Enterprise Edition and no longer requires Database Vault. E) Unified Auditing can be configured to audit only events that are issued indirectly by an audited user.

E.

Unified Auditing can be configured to audit only events that are issued directly by an audited user.

Question 49

Which three statements are true about Automatic Workload Repository (AWR)?

Options:

A.

All AWR tables belong to the SYSTEM schema.

B.

The AWR data is stored in memory and in t he database.

C.

The snapshots collected by AWR are used by the self-tuning components in the database

D.

AWR computes time model statistics based on time usage for activities, which are displayed in the v$SYS time model and V$SESS_TIME_MODEL views.

E.

AWR contains system wide tracing and logging information.

Question 50

Which three conditions must be met before you create a Virtual Private Catalog (VPC)?

Options:

A.

A base recovery catalog should exist.

B.

The owner of VPC cannot own recovery catalog.

C.

At least one target database should be registered in the recovery catalog.

D.

The register database privilege should be granted to the virtual catalog owner.

E.

The recovery_catalog_owner role should be granted to the virtual catalog owner.

Question 51

Choose two. Which two are true about memory advisors?

Options:

A.

If Automatic Memory Management is enabled, no memory advisors are available.

B.

If Automatic Memory Management is enabled, the Shared Pool Advisor and Buffer Cache Advisor are available to set the maximum size for these individual System Global Area components.

C.

All memory advisors use data from Automatic Workload Repository.

D.

If Automatic Shared Memory Management is enabled, both the SGA Advisor and PGA Advisor are always available.

E.

If Manual Shared Memory Management is enabled, only the Shared Pool Advisor and Buffer Cache Advisor are available.

Question 52

Which two are true about OS groups and users for Oracle Grid Infrastructure and the Oracle Relational Database Management System (RDBMS)? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

By default, members of the OSASM group can access Automatic Storage Management and RDBMS instances.

B.

The primary group for the Oracle Grid Infrastructure and Oracle Database owners must be the Oracle Inventory group.

C.

The Oracle Grid Infrastructure installation must be owned by the grid user.

D.

The Oracle Grid Infrastructure owner owns Oracle Restart and Oracle Automatic Storage Management binaries.

E.

The Oracle Grid Infrastructure owner must have OSOPER, OSBACKUPDBA, and OSKMDBA as secondary groups.

F.

The same OSDBA group must be used for Automatic Storage Management and the Oracle Database.

Question 53

Choose two. Which two are true about various Oracle security and auditing capabilities?

Options:

A.

Application-common Transparent Security Data Protection (TSDP) policies can be created only if all the PDBs in the application container are closed.

B.

Application-common TSDP policies are always container specific.

C.

Application-common OLS policies can be created only if all the PDBs in the application container are closed.

D.

Unified auditing can be automatically synchronized to all application PDBs in an application container.

E.

Fine-grained auditing (FGA) policies in an application root are automatically synchronized to all application PDBs contained in the application container when they are updated.

Question 54

Choose three. Which three actions are mandatory post database upgrade?

Options:

A.

Updating client scripts with the new Oracle home.

B.

Resetting passwords to enforce case-sensitivity.

C.

Run OPatch commands from the new Oracle home.

D.

Setting threshold values for tablespace alerts.

E.

Migration to unified auditing.

F.

Upgrading user tables that depend on Oracle-maintained abstract data types.

Question 55

For which two requirements can you use the USER_TABLESPACE clause with the CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE command? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

to specify a default tablespace in a PDB cloned from another PDB in the same CDB

B.

to exclude all tablespaces except SYSTEM, SYSAUX, and TEMP when plugging in a PDB

C.

to include specific user tablespaces only when relocating a PDB

D.

to specify the list of user tablespaces to include when moving a non-CDB to a PDB

E.

to exclude a temp tablespace when plugging in a PDB

F.

to specify the list of tablespaces to include when creating a PDB from the CDB seed

Question 56

A user complains about poor database performance. You want to verify if the user’s session has waited for certain types of I/O activity. Which view displays all waits waited on by a session at least once?

Options:

A.

V$SESSION_EVENT

B.

V$SESSTAT

C.

V$SESSION_WAIT

D.

V$SESSION_WAIT_CLASS

E.

V$SESSION

Question 57

Choose three. Which three are true about OPatch ?

Options:

A.

It requires installation of Oracle Universal Installer.

B.

It supports Rolling Patching.

C.

It must be invoked as the user that owns the software being patched.

D.

It is a Java-based utility for applying patchsets.

E.

It is platform independent.

F.

It can be used to apply interim patches to the Grid Infrastructure and Database Home combination.

Question 58

Choose the best answer. Examine this configuration: 1. CDB1 is a container database. 2. DEFAULT_SHARING is METADATA. 3. APP_ROOT is an application root contained in CDB1. 4. APP_PDB1 is an application PDB contained in APP_ROOT. 5. COMPANYAPP is an application contained in APP_ROOT. 6. EMP is a common table created in APP_ROOT and all its application PDBs, created when version 1.0 of COMPANYAPP was installed. You execute these commands: $ sqlplus sys/ orac1e@localhost:1521/cdb1 as sysdba SQL> ALTER SYSTEM SET DEFAULT_SHARING=DATA; System altered. SQL> ALTER SESSION SET CONTAINER=app_root; Session altered. SQL> ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE APPLICATION companyapp BEGIN UPGRADE '1.0' TO '2.0'; pluggable database altered. SQL> ALTER TABLE emp ADD (sal NUMBER NOT NULL) ; Table altered. SQL> ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE APPLICATION companyapp END UPGRADE TO '2.0'; Pluggable database altered. SQL> ALTER SESSION SET CONTAINER=app_pdb1; Session altered. SQL> DESC emp; Name Null? Type --------------------------------------------------------------ENO NUMBER ENAME VARCHAR2 (20) SQL> SELECT * FROM emp; ENO ENAME ---------------------------------100 Alan 200 Ben SQL> ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE APPLICATION companyapp SYNC; What will be the outcome and why?

Options:

A.

SAL will be added to APP_PDB1.EMP, with 0 in columns of existing rows.

B.

SAL will be added to APP_PDB1.EMP, with NULLs in columns of existing rows.

C.

It will return an error because the SYNC operation is not allowed when constraints are added to common objects.

D.

It will return an error because EMP is not empty in APP_ROOT.

E.

It will return an error because EMP.SAL is empty in APP_ROOT.

Question 59

Choose two. Which two are true about backup encryption?

Options:

A.

The Transparent Data Encryption (TDE) keystore is backed up using RMAN.

B.

Vendor-specific media management software can be used for making encrypted RMAN backups to media.

C.

The BACKUP BACKUPSET command can encrypt and decrypt backup sets.

D.

Image copies can be encrypted.

E.

Keystore-based encryption is the default mode for RMAN backup encryption.

F.

Backup encryption can be enabled selectively for specific tablespaces.

Question 60

Which two are true about data movement between a non-CDB and a PDB using Data Pump? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Tablespaces are automatically created as need while importing full exports in either a non-CDB or a PDB.

B.

Oracle attempts to convert conventional database users to local users when moving schemas from a non-CDB to a PDB.

C.

A new PDB is automatically created when importing a non-CDB into a CDB.

D.

Oracle attempts to convert common users to conventional users when moving schemas from a PDB to a non-CDB.

E.

Moving data from a PDB to a non-CDB is only possible by using transportable tablespace export and import.

F.

Moving data from a non-CDB to a PDB is only possible by using conventional export and import.

Question 61

Choose three. Which three are true about using an RMAN Recovery Catalog with a pluggable database (PDB) target connection in Oracle Database 19c and later releases?

Options:

A.

The base catalog owner must give the Virtual Private Catalog access to metadata for one or more PDBs.

B.

The target PDB must be registered in both the base catalog and the Virtual Private Catalog.

C.

The base catalog must be used by RMAN when performing point-in-time recovery for the PDB registered in the Virtual Private Catalog.

D.

The base catalog must be enabled for Virtual Private Catalog use.

E.

The target PDB must be registered in a Virtual Private Catalog.

F.

The target PDB must be registered in a base catalog.

Question 62

Which two are true about the execution of operating system scripts starting from Oracle Database 19c? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

orainstRoot.sh can be executed automatically by the Database installer by using sudo or root credentials.

B.

root.sh can be executed automatically by the Database Installer only if it is provided with root credentials.

C.

The sudo password can be specified in a response file.

D.

root.sh can be executed automatically by the Database installer only by using sudo credentials.

E.

The sudo password must be specified in a response file.

F.

The root password cannot be specified in a response file.

Question 63

Choose two. You are managing this configuration: 1. CDB1 is a container database. 2. PDB1 and PDB2 are two pluggable databases in CDB1. 3. USER1.EMP is a table in PDB1 and USER2.DEPT is a table in PDB2 . CDB1 user SYS executes these commands after connecting successfully to PDB2: SQL> ALTER SESSION SET CONTAINER=pdb1; Session altered. SQL> INSERT INTO user1.emp VALUES (100, 'Alan' ,1) ; 1 row created. SQL> INSERT INTO user1.emp VALUES (101, 'Ben' ,1) ; 1 row created. SQL> ALTER SESSION SET CONTAINER=pdb2; Session altered. SQL> INSERT INTO user2.dept VALUES(1, 'IT'); Which two are true? Which two are true? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

The inserts on USER1.EMP remain uncommitted when the session connected to PDB2.

B.

The inserts on USER1.EMP were committed when the session inserted a row into USER2. DEPT.

C.

The insert on USER2.DEPT fails because of the active transaction in the parent container.

D.

The insert on USER2.DEPT is a recursive autonomous transaction by the child session and is committed.

E.

The inserts on USER1.EMP were rolled back when the session connected to PDB2

F.

The insert on USER2.DEPT is uncommitted.

G.

The inserts on USER1.EMP were committed when the session connected to PDB2.

Question 64

Which statement describes the significance of the CHANGE FAILURE command in RMAN? (Choose all that apply.)

Options:

A.

It is used to change failure priority only for HIGH or LOW priorities.

B.

It is used to execute the advised repair script.

C.

It is used to change failure priority only for the CRITICAL priority.

D.

It is used to explicitly close the open failures.

E.

It is used to inform the database about the repair after the repair script executes.

Question 65

Choose two. RMAN has just been connected to a target database and the recovery catalog database. In which two cases would an automatic full resynchronization occur between this target database's control file and the RMAN recovery catalog?

Options:

A.

when control file metadata for archive log backups or image copies has been overwritten in the target database's control file due to being older than CONTROL_FILE_RECORD_KEEP_TIME

B.

when a new tablespace is added to a registered target database

C.

when a backup of the current control file is created

D.

when control file metadata for data file backups or image copies has been overwritten in the target database's control file due to being older than CONTROL_FILE_RECORD_KEEP_TIME

E.

when the target is first registered

Question 66

Which two are true about Recovery Manager (RMAN) diagnostic message output? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Media Management messages for SBT devices are always written to sbtio.log.

B.

RMAN error stacks should be read from the bottom up as that is the order in which errors are generated.

C.

RMAN error stacks should be read from the top down as that is the order in which errors are generated.

D.

The RMAN LOG command line clause causes output issued during RMAN command compilation to be written to a log file and to standard output.

E.

The RMAN LOG command line clause causes output issued during RMAN command compilation to be written to a log file only.

F.

Media Management messages for SBT devices are written to an Oracle trace file.

Question 67

Which two are true about gathering optimizer statistics? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Executing DBMS_STATS.GATHER_DATABASE_STATS while connected to CDB$ROOT gathers object statistics in all open PDBs except PDB$SEED.

B.

Executing DBMS_STATS.GATHER_DATABASE_STATS while connected to a PDB opened in read/ write mode gathers object statistics for that PDB.

C.

Executing DBMS_STATS.GATHER_DATABASE_STATS while connected to CDB$ROOT gathers object statistics only in CDB$ROOT.

D.

System statistics can be gathered only while connected to CDB$ROOT.

E.

Executing DBMS_STATS.GATHER_DATABASE_STATS while connected to CDB$ROOT gathers object statistics in all open pluggable databases (PDBs)

Question 68

Examine this configuration:

1. CDB1 is a container database.

2. PDB1 and PDB2 are pluggable databases in CDB1.

3. PDB1 and PDB2 are OPEN in READ WRITE mode.

You execute these commands successfully: Which two are true? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Uncommitted transactions in PDB1 have been rolled back.

B.

PDB1 is closed.

C.

Uncommitted transactions in CDB1 and PDB1 have been rolled back.

D.

CDB1 is shut down.

E.

CDB1 is in MOUNT state

Question 69

Which three are true about an application seed pluggable database (PDB)? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

It is automatically synchronized with its application root PDB when an application is upgraded. B)It cannot be added to an application container after the application container has already been created.

B.

A new application PDB created by cloning an application seed PDB can have an old version of the application installed after cloning completes.

C.

It is automatically synchronized with its application root PDB when an application is installed.

D.

It cannot be dropped from its application container.

E.

A new application PDB created by cloning an application seed PDB can have an up-to-date version of the application installed after cloning completes.

F.

It is not required in an application container.

Question 70

Choose three. Which three are true about backing up the control file?

Options:

A.

It cannot be backed up manually as a binary copy.

B.

It gets backed up automatically by RMAN as a trace file containing SQL statements for control file re¬creation when a database backup occurs.

C.

It can be backed up manually as a binary copy.

D.

It can get backed up automatically as a binary copy.

E.

It gets backed up automatically by RMAN when the BACKUP SPFILE command is used.

F.

It can be backed up manually as a trace file containing SQL statements for control file recreation.

Question 71

Which three are true about Oracle Grid Infrastructure for a Standalone Server?

Options:

A.

It requires Oracle ASMLib to manage Automatic Storage Managerment (ASMl) disks.

B.

It creates one disk group during installation.

C.

It includes both Oracle Restart and Oracle Automatic Storage Management (ASM) software.

D.

Automatic Storage Management (ASM requires that ars groups OSASM and OSDBA be assigned assecondary groups for its installation owner.

E.

It requires the operating system ORACLE_BASDE environment variable to be predefined before installation.

F.

It requires Oracle ASM Filter Drver (ASMFD) to manage Automatic Storage Managemernt (AsM) disks.

Question 72

Which three are true about requirements for various FLASHBACK operations? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

FLASHBACK transaction query requires undo to retrieve all versions of a row that existed between two points in time.

B.

FLASHBACK drop requires that the RECYCLEBIN parameter be set to ON.

C.

FLASHBACK version query requires that the RECYCLEBIN parameter be set to ON.

D.

FLASHBACK DATA ARCHIVE requires undo to store all versions of all rows of a table being tracked.

E.

FLASHBACK drop requires undo to retrieve all versions of a row that existed two points in time.

F.

FLASHBACK version query requires undo to retrieve all versions of a row that existed between two points in time.

Question 73

Choose two. When backing up to the Oracle Fast Recovery Area (FRA), you determine that the backup takes too long and suspect a performance bottleneck. Which two are true about diagnosing and tuning these problems?

Options:

A.

Data files with a high value in V$BACKUP_ASYNC_IO.SHORT_WAITS are a potential performance bottleneck when asynchronous I/O is used.

B.

If an RMAN BACKUP VALIDATE command takesroughly the same time as an actual backup, then read I/O is a likely bottleneck.F

C.

If an RMAN BACKUP VALIDATE command takes noticeably less time than an actual backup, then write I/O is a likely bottleneck.

D.

If an RMAN BACKUP VALIDATE command takesroughly the same time as an actual backup, then both read and write I/O are likely bottlenecks.

E.

Data files with a high value in V$BACKUP_SYNC_IO.DISCRETE_BYTES_PER_SECOND are a potential performance bottleneck when synchronous I/O is used.

Question 74

Which two are true about RMAN duplexed backup sets? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

A duplexed backup set uses the same number of SBT channels as a non-duplexed backup set for the same number of files.

B.

A non-duplexed backup set written to disk can be duplexed to disk by backing up the backup set that is already on disk.

C.

A non-duplexed backup set written to SBT can be duplexed to tape by backing up the backup set that is already on tape.

D.

A non-duplexed backup set written to disk can be duplexed to tape by backing up the backup set that is already on disk.

E.

A non-duplexed backup set written to SBT can be duplexed to disk by backing up the backup set that is already on tape.

F.

A duplexed backup set always uses twice as many SBT channels as a non-duplexed backup set for the same number of files.

Question 75

Choose three. Which are the three steps in the SQL tuning process for Oracle Database environments?

Options:

A.

Tune individual SQL statements using the SQL Tuning Advisor.

B.

Identify poorly tuned SQL statements using Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor.

C.

Test the application as a whole using tuned SQL statements.

D.

Test tuned SQL statements one at a time for all statements in the application.

E.

Identify poorly tuned SQL statements using the SQL Tuning Advisor.

F.

Tune SQL statements as a group using the SQL Tuning and SQL Access Advisors.

Question 76

Which four are true about duplicating a database using Recovery Manager (RMAN)? (Choose four.)

Options:

A.

Duplication can be done by having the auxiliary database instance pull backup sets from the target database instance.

B.

A connection to an auxiliary instance is always required.

C.

A subset of the target database can be duplicated.

D.

A new DBID is always created for the duplicated database.

E.

A connection to the recovery catalog instance is always required.

F.

A backup of the target database is always required.

G.

Duplication can be done by having the target database instance push copies to the auxiliary database instance.

Question 77

After implementing full Oracle Data Redaction, you change the default value for the NUMBER data type as follows: SQL> select number_value from REDACTION_VALUES_FOR_TYPE_FULL; NUMBER_VALUE ------------0 SQL> exec DBMS_REDACT.UPDATE_FULL_REDACTION_VALUES(-1); SQL> select number_value from REDACTION_VALUES_FOR_TYPE_FULL; NUMBER_VALUE -------------1 After changing the value, you notice that FULL redaction continues to redact numeric data with zero.What must you do to activate the new default value for numeric full redaction?

Options:

A.

Re-enableredactionpoliciesthatuseFULLdataredaction.

B.

Re-createredactionpoliciesthatuseFULLdataredaction.

C.

Re-connect the sessions that access objects with redaction policies defined on them.

D.

Flushthesharedpool.

E.

Restart the database instance. Correct

Question 78

Choose two. Which two are prerequisites for using FLASHBACK TABLE?

Options:

A.

A table's constraints must be disabled before issuing the flashback.

B.

The FLASHBACK ANY TABLE system privilege or the FLASHBACK object privilege must be granted to the user performing the flashback.

C.

Row Movement must be enabled on the table being flashed back.

D.

A table's indexes must be set to unusable before issuing the flashback.

E.

The FLASHBACK ANY TABLE system privilege or the FLASHBACK object privilege must be granted to the table owner.

Question 79

Choose two. In performance management, which two factors might reduce the ability of an application to scale to a larger number of users?

Options:

A.

poorly trained users who do not commit transactions

B.

the number of tablespaces containing tables updated by a transaction

C.

issuing multiple savepoints during a transaction

D.

the number of data files containing extents belonging to tables updated by a transaction

E.

poorly written SQL

Question 80

Choose two. Which two are true about RMAN Multisection backups when a very large data file is divided into four sections?

Options:

A.

The four sections must be image copies.

B.

Each of the file sections must be processed serially.

C.

The four sections must be contained in backup sets.

D.

The four sections can be created in parallel.

E.

The four sections can be created serially.

Question 81

Choose three. Which three are true about creating container databases (CDBs) and pluggable databases (PDBs) in Oracle 19c and later releases?

Options:

A.

A snapshot copy PDB can be a full copy of a source PDB.

B.

A snapshot copy PDB does not depend on an existing storage snapshot of the source PDB.

C.

A PDB snapshot depends on an existing storage snapshot of the source PDB.

D.

A PDB snapshot can be a full copy of a source PDB.

E.

A CDB can be duplicated using the Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA) in silent mode with no configuration required before starting the duplication.

F.

A CDB can be duplicated using Recovery Manager (RMAN) with no configuration required before starting the duplication.

G.

A PDB snapshot can be a sparse copy of a source PDB.

Question 82

Choose two. Which two are true about Rapid Home Provisioning of Oracle software?

Options:

A.

It can be used for applications and middleware.

B.

It can be used only for Oracle Grid Infrastructure, including Oracle Restart.

C.

It can be used for both Oracle Database and Oracle Grid Infrastructure, including Oracle Restart.

D.

It can be used for both Oracle Database and Oracle Grid Infrastructure, excluding Oracle Restart.

E.

It can be used only for Oracle Grid Infrastructure, excluding Oracle Restart.

Question 83

Choose two. A database is configured in ARCHIVELOG mode. A full RMAN backup exists but no control file backup to trace has been taken. A media failure has occurred. In which two scenarios is incomplete recovery required?

Options:

A.

after losing all members of the CURRENT online redo log group

B.

after losing all copies of the control file

C.

after losing an UNDO tablespace that is in use

D.

after losing all members of an INACTIVE online redo log group

E.

after losing a SYSAUX tablespace data file

Question 84

Which three are true about Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) snapshots?

Options:

A.

They can be retained forever.

B.

They are always created automatically.

C.

They are always created manually.

D.

They are generated if STATISTICS LEVEL is set to TYPICAL.

E.

They are generated if STATISTICS LEVEL is set to BASIC.

F.

They are generated if STATISTICS LEVEL is set to ALL.

Question 85

choose two Examine the command to duplicate a database: RMAN> DUPLICATE TARGET DATABASE TCddb PLUGGABLE DATABASE pdbl,pdb5; Which two statements are true about the DUPLICATE command?

Options:

A.

The root and the seed database in the container database (CDB) are also duplicated.

B.

A backup of PDB1 and PDB5 must exist before executing the command.

C.

The SPFILE is copied along with the data files of the pluggable databases (PDBs).

D.

An auxiliary instance must be started with the initialization parameter ENABLE_PLUGGABLE_DATABASE set to TRUE. E) The DUPLICATE command first creates a backup, and then duplicates the

PDBs by using the backup.

Demo: 85 questions
Total 286 questions