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WGU Cloud-Deployment-and-Operations WGUCloud Deployment and Operations Exam Practice Test

WGUCloud Deployment and Operations Questions and Answers

Question 1

(A company configures the CloudFront caching TTL to the following settings: Min: 0, Max: 172800. An administrator updates the Cache-Control setting to 432000. However, objects are only cached for 48 hours. What is required to ensure objects are cached for up to 120 hours?)

Options:

A.

Configure the Max setting for 432000

B.

Configure the Min setting for 432000

C.

Configure the expiration setting for 172800

D.

Configure the Cache-Control setting for 172800

Question 2

(An administrator needs to deploy a NAT gateway in an existing VPC subnet. Which two tasks should this administrator perform during deployment? Choose 2 answers.)

Options:

A.

Configure the route table associated with the subnet

B.

Assign a private IP address to the NAT gateway

C.

Configure the access control list associated with the subnet

D.

Assign an elastic IP address to the NAT gateway

Question 3

(Which action must be used to create a metric filter in the Amazon CloudWatch console?)

Options:

A.

Enable an alarm

B.

Define a trace

C.

Select a log group

D.

Specify a stream

Question 4

(Which AWS CloudFormation feature should be used to specify the AWS resources to be provisioned?)

Options:

A.

Template

B.

Change set

C.

Exports

D.

StackSet

Question 5

(A company uses SQS and EC2 to convert videos uploaded by users. In the evenings, videos take several hours to convert when they normally take minutes. The user base is expected to grow a hundredfold in the next 12 months. Which solution should be used to reduce the conversion delays?)

Options:

A.

Use spot instances instead of on-demand

B.

Implement a dead-letter queue

C.

Configure an alarm to scale the fleet based on queue length

D.

Switch from t2.medium to t2.xlarge instance type

Question 6

(What is the advantage of maximizing the time to live of the cache in CloudFront?)

Options:

A.

Minimize requests to the origin

B.

Facilitate a high number of requests

C.

Improve a disaster recovery plan

D.

Improve security measures

Question 7

(An AWS SysOps administrator needs to configure Amazon Route 53 to load balance customer requests across multiple identically configured websites. The load balancing method must ensure that the customer requests are directed to the website that offers the shortest round-trip time. Which routing policy should be used?)

Options:

A.

Latency

B.

Geolocation

C.

Geoproximity

D.

Weighted

Question 8

(A company is using the CloudWatch agent on its EC2 Linux instances. The company needs to determine how long read requests have waited on the instance’s I/O for proper sizing of the instance. Which metric should the company use?)

Options:

A.

disk_read_ops

B.

disk_io_time

C.

diskio_reads

D.

diskio_read_bytes

Question 9

(What is a patch baseline attached to if it is not defined in Patch Manager?)

Options:

A.

Baseline data set

B.

Default patch group

C.

Patch process

D.

Accelerate patch baseline

Question 10

(A company builds an application that renders 3D movies for its users. The application does this by spawning a fleet of instances that each take a slice of the workload and then render a few hundred frames in around 30 minutes. If processing on a node is interrupted, the work can be moved to other running nodes. The cost to users is based on the underlying AWS cost plus a margin. Which EC2 instance type is most suitable to run workload pattern at the lowest cost?)

Options:

A.

Spot Instance

B.

On-Demand Instance

C.

Dedicated Instance

D.

Reserved Instance

Question 11

(Which two locations can Amazon Inspector publish its findings in when it has detected an anomaly? Choose 2 answers.)

Options:

A.

SNS

B.

CloudWatch

C.

CloudTrail

D.

SQS

Question 12

(An endpoint is not responding to a request based on the failure threshold provided. What does Route 53 do once it considers the endpoint unhealthy?)

Options:

A.

Enables SQS

B.

Terminates the connection attempt

C.

Notifies CloudWatch

D.

Sends out an SNS notification

Question 13

(Which solution is used to protect a server from Layer 7 attacks?)

Options:

A.

WAF

B.

Shield

C.

CloudWatch

D.

KMS key rotation

Question 14

(Which AWS service is used to provide remote workers with secure access to AWS resources?)

Options:

A.

Transit Gateway

B.

Client VPN

C.

Network Firewall

D.

NAT instance

Question 15

(What needs to be configured in Systems Manager to run Automation documents on schedule?)

Options:

A.

Maintenance window

B.

Rate control

C.

Session preferences

D.

Resource groups

Question 16

(Where does Patch Manager send compliance reports?)

Options:

A.

OpsWorks

B.

Elastic Block Store (EBS)

C.

Simple Storage Service (S3)

D.

Route 53

Question 17

(Which two solutions should an administrator use to receive emails when a Lambda function returns an error? Choose 2 answers.)

Options:

A.

Amazon Simple Queue Service

B.

Amazon Simple Notification Service

C.

Amazon CloudWatch

D.

AWS CloudTrail

Question 18

(An organization uses CloudFormation to deploy AWS infrastructure. The templates are built in JSON and deploy EC2 instances across multiple regions. Which solution should be used to set values in the template based on region-specific AMI IDs?)

Options:

A.

Outputs

B.

WaitCondition

C.

Mappings

D.

Resources

Question 19

(An administrator needs to implement Amazon Route 53 multivalue routing policy. The operator must ensure that Route 53 will respond to incoming requests with the maximum allowed number of records. How many records should be created?)

Options:

A.

4

B.

8

C.

16

D.

32

Question 20

(An administrator sees the following VPC flow log: 2 123456739010 eni-123bfecad12529 192.168.20.1 203.0.113.66 2066 22 20 7782 1645859356 1645859536 ACCEPT OK. What does the log indicate about the traffic flow?)

Options:

A.

Traffic from 203.0.113.66 to 192.168.20.1 with a destination port of 2066 has been permitted.

B.

Traffic from 192.168.20.1 to 203.0.113.66 with a source port of 2066 has been permitted.

C.

Traffic from 192.168.20.1 to 203.0.113.66 with a destination port of 2066 has been permitted.

D.

Traffic from 203.0.113.66 to 192.168.20.1 with a source port of 22 has been permitted.